The Best Online FMS Coaching

Choose the best preparation for FMS! Click below to know more!

Find Out More

Directions for questions 1-8: Each of the following questions consists of a word printed in capital letters, followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phrase that is most nearly similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

(1) uproariously funny
(2) tasteless
(3) trend-setting
(4) offensive

(1) an artist’s first work
(2) masterpiece
(3) latest work
(4) entire body of work

(1) tonic
(2) sedative
(3) cleaning agent
(4) sharp object

(1) fussy
(2) greedy
(3) wholesome
(4) spiteful

(1) foreign
(2) happy
(3) tiring
(4) mazelike

(1) lingerie shop
(2) restaurant
(3) airline crew
(4) souvenir

7. TARN:
(1) meadow
(2) tall tale
(3) meadow
(4) mountain lake

(1) dance step
(2) card game
(3) card board box
(4) savoury dish

Directions for questions 9-18: In each of the following questions, a word printed in Capital letters is followed by four numbered words or phrases. Choose the one, which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

9. SCAD:
(1) allocation
(2) restraint
(3) dearth
(4) provision

(1) orderly
(2) gloomy
(3) sturdy
(4) stiff

(1) Straightforwardness
(2) conformity
(3) praise
(4) self-righteousness

12. SPUNK:
(1) success
(2) loss of prestige
(3) lack of intelligence
(4) timidity

(1) tentative
(2) informal
(3) verbose
(4) senseless

(1) state truthfully
(2) postulate
(3) emphasise
(4) consider thoughtfully

15. BILK:
(1) reduce in size
(2) make famous
(3) renovate
(4) pay in full

16. CAVIL:
(1) discern
(2) disclose
(3) introduce
(4) commend

(1) disentangle
(2) mollify
(3) magnify
(4) muffle

(1) lacklustre
(2) heartless
(3) cordial
(4) constant

Direction for questions 19-23: In each of the following questions, a related pair of words are linked by a colon, followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair, which is most like the relationship expressed in the original pair in capital letters.

(1) lawyer: litigation
(2) pilot: radar
(3) doctor: hospital
(4) solider: ambush

(1) truth : beauty
(2) courage : fortitude
(3) courage : cravenness
(4) turpitude : depravity

(1) aster: botanist
(2) obelisk : fireman
(3) love : philologist
(4) reef: astrologer

(1) seam : seamstress
(2) apron : chef
(3) awl : cobbler
(4) cement: mason

(1) potentate : kingdom
(2) jailer: law
(3) traitor: country
(4) teacher: education

Directions for questions 24 – 28: Each question consists of sentences, which has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath each sentence are four sets of words, labelled (A) through (D). Choose the word or set of words that when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

24. Perhaps because something in us instinctively distrusts such displays of natural fluency, some readers approach John Updike’s fiction with .
(1) bewilderment
(2) suspicion
(3) veneration
(4) recklessness

25. We were amazed that a man who had been heretofore the most of public speakers could, in a single speech, electrify an audience and bring them cheering to their feet.
(1) masterful
(2) auspicious
(3) pedestrian
(4) accomplished

26. Despite the mixture’s nature, we found that by lowering its temperature in the laboratory we could dramatically reduce its tendency to vaporize.
(1) volatile
(2) resilient
(3) insipid
(4) acerbic

27. In one shocking instance of research, one of the nation’s most influential researchers in the field of genetics reported on experiments that were never carried out and published deliberately scientific papers on his nonexistent work.
(1) comprehensive – abstract
(2) theoretical – challenging
(3) fraudulent – deceptive
(4) erroneous – impartial

28. Her novel published to universal acclaim, her literary gifts acknowledged by the chief figures of the Harlem Renaissance, her reputation as yet by envious slights. Hurston clearly was at the of her career.
(1) undamaged – ebb
(2) untarnished – zenith
(3) unmarred – brink
(4) untainted – extremity

29. Mr. Modi runs a prosperous company. He is quite disappointed with his two sons. Anil and Sunil, who are simple graduates. He believes that neither of them presents the potential of having the ability to take control of his company. He thinks both of his children lack common sense. The belief formulates from the opinion that:
(1) Even a person who is not brilliant can control a company, if she or he has been able to obtain an MBA.
(2) In order to run a company, a person needs common sense.
(3) Sunil and Anil are ignorant to the experience of controlling a company.
(4) If Sunil showed any sign of common sense, he would have the ability to aid Anil in controlling the company.

30. In the year 2000, the Road Accident Research Agency (RARA) concluded that Tej brand motorcycles are safer to ride than Teevra brand motorcycles. RARA based the conclusion on the ratio of number of rider injures to the number of riding hours for each brand of motorcycles from 1996 through 1999. Yet for identically designed motorcycles manufactured since 2000, the number of rider injures has been twice as great among rider of Tej as among riders of Teevra. Therefore, RARA’s conclusion would have been different for the period since 2000. Which of the following is an assumption that, if true, supports the claim that RARA’s conclusion would have been different for the period since 2000?
(1) Soon after RARA had issued its report, customer demand for Tej increased more rapidly than did consumer demand for Teevra.
(2) Of all the motorcycles ridden in the period since 2000, the percentage of Tej ridden was twice the percentage of Teevra ridden.
(3) For the period since 2000, the number of riding hours of Teevra totaled at least half the number of riding hours the Tej.
(4) Prior to 2000, Teevra owners were more likely than Tej owners to report the injuries they sustained while riding their motorcycles.

Directions for questions 31 – 33: Answers should be based on the information given below:
The After-Sales Service Manager of White Goods Appliances Limited is making up an assignment roster for three Technician Teams in the city of Indraprastha. Each team will be assigned to one of the sectors of the city: Sector Pratham, Sector Dwitiya, and Sector Tritiya. Each team will consist of two of the following technicians: Nagabhushanam, Phaneesh, Ramaswamy, Swaminathan, Tirthankar, and Visheshwar. Each technician will be assigned to exactly one team. Ramaswamy, Tirthankar and Visheshwar have each completed a special electro-mechanical appliance maintenance training programme; Nagabhushanam, Phaneesh and Swaminathan have not. Nagabhushanam, Phaneesh and Ramaswamy each have at least five years of job experience; Swaminathan, Tirthankar and Visheshwar do not. The Service Manager must observe the following restrictions in making up the assignment roster:
• Each team must include at least one technician who has completed the special training.
• Each team must include at least one technician who has at least five years job experience.
• Nagabhushanam must be assigned to Sector Pratham or Sector Dwitiya.

31. If Phaneesh is assigned to Sector Dwitiya, which of the following must be true?
(1) Tirthankar is assigned to Sector Pratham
(2) Swaminathan is assigned to Sector Tritiya
(3) Visheshwar is assigned to Sector Dwitiya.
(4) Visheshwar is assigned to Sector Tritiya.

32. The Service Manager CANNOT make an acceptable roster that assigns:
(1) Phaneesh to Sector Pratham and Visheshwar to Sector Tritiya
(2) Ramaswamy to Sector Pratham and Tirthankar to Sector Dwitiya
(3) Swaminathan to Sector Pratham and Nagabhushanam to Sector Dwitiya
(4) Nagabhushanam to Sector Dwitiya and Phaneesh to Sector Tritiya

33. If Tirthankar is assigned to Sector Tritiya, which of the following must be true?
(1) Phaneesh is assigned to Sector Pratham
(2) Ramaswamy is assigned to Sector Dwitiya
(3) Tirthankar is Nagabhushanam’s partner
(4) Nagabhushanam is Visheshwar’s partner.

Directions for questions 34-37: Answers should be based on the information given below:
An inexperienced Yoga teacher, posing as an expert on Yogic Exercises (asanas) prescribed a schedule of exercise programme for a pupil. Choosing from exercises Anubittasana, Bhujangasana, Chakrasana, Dhanurasana, Sukhasana, Tadasana, Ushtrasana and Vyagrasana, the pupil must perform a routine of exactly five different asanas each day. In any day’s routine, except the first, exactly three of the exercises must be the ones that were included in the routine done on the previous day, and any permissible routine must also satisfy the following conditions:
• If Anubittasana is in a routine, Ushtrasana cannot be done in that routine.
• If Bhujangasana is in a routine, Sukhasana must be one of the exercises done after Bhujangasana is in a routine, Sukhasana must be one of the exercises done after Bhujangasana in that routine.
• If Chakrasana is in a routine, Ushtrasana must be one of the exercises done after Chakrasana in that routine.
• The fifth exercise of any routine must be either Dhanurasana or Tadasana

34. If one day’s routine is Anubittasana, Bhujangasana, Vyagrasana, Sukhasana and Tadasana, each of the following could be the next day’s routine, EXCEPT:
(1) Bhujangasana, Chakrasana, Ushtrasana, Sukhasana, Tadasana
(2) Bhujangasana, Sukhasana, Ushtrasana, Vyagrasana, Dhanurasana
(3) Vyagrasana, Sukhasana, Tadasana, Ushtrasana, Dhanurasana
(4) Vyagrasana, Sukhasana, Dhanurasana, Anubittasana, Tadasana

35. Which of the following is true of any permissible routine?
(1) Anubittasana cannot be done third
(2) Bhujangasana cannot be done third
(3) Chakrasana cannot be done fourth
(4) Tadasana cannot be done fourth

36. If the pupil chooses Chakrasana and Vyagrasana for the first day’s routine, which of the following could be the other three exercises chosen?
(1) Anubittasana, Sukhasana, Tadasana
(2) Bhujangasana, Dhanurasana, Ushtrasana
(3) Bhujangasana, Sukhasana, Ushtrasana
(4) Sukhasana, Dhanurasana, Ushtrasana

37. If Chakrasana is the third exercise in a routine, which of the following CANNOT be the second exercise in that routine?
(1) Bhujangasana
(2) Dhanurasana
(3) Sukhasana
(4) Tadasana

38. Mukesh has purchased a device that the manufacturer claims will reduce the fuel consumption in his motorcycle. After a month has passed, Mukesh determines that his mileage currently rests at 50 kmpl. Mukesh’s best friend, Anil, owns the exact same make and model of motorcycle, and has calculated his mileage at 60 kmpl. Anil’s motorcycle does not have the device that Mukesh purchased one month ago. Mukesh then makes the conclusion that the manufacturer of the device’s claim is not true. Which of the following statements would cause Mukesh’s conclusion to be weakest?
(1) Though Mukesh has the same make and model of the motorcycle, Mukesh’s bike is 4 years older
(2) Mukesh was driving in the city, whereas Anil drives the highway.
(3) Before buying the device, Mukesh had never before calculated the mileage of his bike.
(4) Anil lied, he actually only gets 45 kmpl.

Directions for questions 39 – 42: Answers should be based on the information given below:
In the District of Saptanatya, there are exactly seven towns: Jatajatin, Kayanga, Lezim, Mudivettu, Nautanki, Ojapali and Pandvani. All existing and projected roads in this district are two-way and run perfectly straight between one town and the next. All distances by the road are distances from the community theatre called Nrityamandap at the centre of the town to the Nrityamandep to another town. Kayanga is the same distance by road from Jatajatin, Lezim and Mudivettu as Ojapali is from Nautanki and Pandvani. The following are all the currently existing roads and connections by road in Saptanatya:
• Kathakali Marg goes from Jatajatin to Lezim via Kayanga
• Kuchipudi Marg goes from Kayanga directly to Mudivettu
• Triangular Kathak Marg goes from Nautanki to Ojapali, from Ojapli to Pandvani and from Pandvani back to Nautanki

39. Which of the following is a town from which exactly two other towns can be reached by road?
(1) Jatajatin
(2) Lezim
(3) Mudivettu
(4) Nautanki

40. It is possible that the distance by road from Nautanki to Ojapali is unequal to the distance by road form:
(1) Jatajatin to Kayanga
(2) Kayanga to Lezim
(3) Nautanki to Pandvani
(4) Ojapali to Pandvani

41. If a proposed road, named Bharatnatyam Marg were to be built from Jatajatin to Ojapali, then the shortest distance by road from Mudivettu to Nautanki would be the same as the shortest distance by road from Pandvani to
(1) Jatajatin
(2) Kayanga
(3) Lezim
(4) Nautanki

42. If two projected roads were built, one Bharatnatyam Marg from Jatajatin to Ojapali, and another Chakiarkoothu Marg from Lezim directly to Pandvani, then each of the following would be complete list of towns lying along one of the routes that a traveler going by road from Kayanga to Nautanki can select, EXCEPT
(1) Jatajatin, Ojapali
(2) Jatajatin, Pandvani
(3) Jatajatin, Ojapali, Pandvani
(4) Lezim, Pandvani, Ojapali

43. Government of a certain country recently issued employment figures in that country. The figures showed that in 2000, the public sector and the private sector each employed the same number of people. But between 2000 and 2004, according to the government, total employment decreased in the public sector more than it increased in the private sector. If the unemployment rate in this country was the same in both 2000 and 2004, which of the following statements must be true about the country?
(1) In 2004, more people sought work in the private sector than in the public sector
(2) The number of people counted by the government as unemployed was the same in 2000 and 2004
(3) Fewer people were in the labour force, as counted by the government, in 2004 than in 2000
(4) The competition for the available work increased between 2000 and 2004.

Directions for questions 44-47: Answers would be based on the information given below:
A chess tournament is taking place at the college club, and the players at all four of the tables are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents. The players with white pieces are: Shahrukh, Sanjay, Saif and Shakti. The players with black pieces are: Salman, Sunny, Sunil and Sohail. The scores are 3 : 0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, and 1.5:1.5 (Note: Tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each player). Hints: (i) The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Shakti; however, the current score at table 4 is not 2:1. (ii) Saif is playing at the table to the right of Sohail, who has lost all of his games until now. (iii) Sunil, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game. (iv) Salman is leading his match after his last three games. (v) Sanjay is playing against Sunny.

44. What table is Sohail playing at, and what is the score at that table?
(1) Table 1, 2.5 : 1.5
(2) Table 2, 3 : 0
(3) Table 2, 2.5 : 1.5
(4) Table 3, 2 : 1

45. Whose score is highest?
(1) Salman
(2) Saif
(3) Sunny
(4) Shahrukh

46. Which player has black pieces and the lowest score?
(1) Salman
(2) Sunny
(3) Sunil
(4) sohail

47. Who is the winning player at Table 4?
(1) Salman
(2) Shakti
(3) Shahrukh
(4) sanjay

48. A claim – processing company has two office buildings within a business area of the city but the buildings differ with regard to facilities and the pleasantness of the physical environment of the offices. By analyzing the productivity records of these offices, the HR department noted that the productivity of the employees in the more pleasant office building was 32 per cent higher than in the other office. As the background of employees in both offices was comparable, the HR department concluded that more pleasant work environment leads to better productivity. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion of the HR department?
(1) On average, less-productive employees spend no fewer hours per day at their office than do their more – productive colleagues in the other building
(2) More productive employees do not work any more hours than their less productive colleagues
(3) The more productive employees are generally rewarded by being transferred to the more pleasant office
(4) Unpleasant work environment makes people less motivated to work hard than more pleasant surroundings do

Directions for questions 49 – 51: Answers should be based on the information given below:
At the crowded annual sale of Indian Handloom Sarees, there were five ladies in the queue. Each of the lady customers bought something different. The first names of the customers were Asha, Kavita, Usha, Sadhna and Lata. Their last names were Bhonsle, Sargam, Krishnamurthy, Mangeshkar and Uthoop. The available sarees were: Kanjeevaram Silk Saree, Paithani Silk Saree, Gadwal Silk Saree, Sambalpuri Cotton Saree, and Tangail Cotton Saree. Hints: (i) Usha Krishnamurthy was served later than the customer who requested the Tangail Cotton Saree, but before Mrs. Mangeshkar. (ii) The second customer was Sadhna. (iii) The Gadwal Silk Saree was purchased by the customer directly after Kavita. (iv) Lata was the woman who bought the Sambalpuri Cotton Saree; she was served after Asha. The Kanjeevaram Silk Saree was requested by Mrs. Uthoop. (v) Mrs. Sargam was the third in line. The fourth customer in the line bought the Paithani Silk Saree.

49. What was purchased by the third person in line?
(1) Kanjeevaram Silk Saree
(2) Gadwal Silk Saree
(3) Tangail Cotton Saree
(4) Paithani Silk Saree

50. What was the last name of the person who purchased the Gadwal Silk Saree?
(1) Uthoop
(2) Bhonsle
(3) Sargam
(4) Mangeshkar

51. What place was Lata in the queue?
(1) First
(2) Third
(3) Fourth
(4) Fifth

The Quality Control department of a chip manufacturing company received proposals from two firms for installation of two separate inspection systems – J and K. These systems are based on different principles, and they are equally efficient in detecting 98% of product flaws. But both systems suffer from a problem of wrongly rejecting 4% of flawless products. Since false rejections are very costly, the QC departments argued that money could be saved by installing both the systems, instead of either one or the other, and rejecting only products found flawed by both. This argument is most strengthened by which of the following assumptions?
(1) Whichever system performs the second inspection needs to inspect only products rejected by the first system.
(2) The flawless products that system J rejects are not the same products, piece for piece, which system K rejects
(3) In their price-range, systems P and Q together are the least error-prone and cost-efficient inspection systems in the market.
(4) It is more costly to accept a flawed product than to reject a flawless one

53. While traveling to China, a low ranking Indian official asked a Chinese official why Chinese people are so inscrutable. The official looked calm and friendly, responding in a gentle voice, that he much preferred to think upon his race as inscrutable than of his race as wanting in perspicacity. Of the following statements, which best describes the Chinese official’s comment?
(1) What a person lacks in perception may be a result of the carelessness of the observer, instead of the obscurity within the object being observed
(2) If India and China were ever to understand one another, there will need to be a much better cultural understanding.
(3) All people are inscrutable, not just the Chinese
(4) The Chinese distrusts Indians

Directions for questions 54 – 56: Answers should be based on the information given below:
The National Museum Curator at Kolkata must group nine sculptures – Q, R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, and Z – in 12 table spots numbered consecutively from 1-12. The sculptures must be in three groups, each group representing a different period of Indian civilization. The groups must be separated from each other by at least one unused table spots, but unused table spots cannot occur within group. Three of the sculptures are from Indus Valley Civilisation period (3000 BC – 1500 BC), Two are from Maurya Empire period (322 BC – 185 BC) and Four are from Gupta Dynasty period (320 AD – 540 AD). Hints: (i) T, V, W are all sculptures from the same period; (ii) R & T are sculptures from different periods; (iii) Q & X are Indus Valley Civilization period sculptures; (iv) Y is a Maurya Empire period sculpture; (v) Table 5 is always empty.

54. If the sculptures are placed in reverse chronological order by periods, the unused table spaces could be:
(1) 1,6 and 9
(2) 1,5 and 10
(3) 5, 8 and 12
(4) 5, 9 and 10

55. If the Gupta Dynasty sculptures are placed on Tables 1 – 4, which of the following cannot be true?
(1) X is placed on Table 12
(2) Y is placed on Table 9
(3) Table 8 is unused
(4) Q is placed on Table 6

56. If the first five sculptures, in numerical order of tables are Q, Z, X, Y and R which of the following must be true?
(1) Two unused tables separate the Harappan period and Maurya Period
(2) Two unused tables separate the Maurya period and Gupta period
(3) S is placed on Table 11
(4) Either Table 1 or Table 4 is unused

Lata stated, “My family physician Dr. Vaid informed that he would be performing a blood test on me when I visit him today. I know that I will feel pain today”. The above statement depends on which of the following assumptions?
(1) The use of a needle always causes pain in the patient
(2) In the past, Lata has experienced pain at the family doctor’s
(3) The doctor will have to try different needles to perform the test
(4) Dr. Vaid will have a hard time finding the patient’s vein

58. Mr. Fevicol said “When I went fishing the other day, every fish I caught was a Betki, and every Betki I saw I caught”. Of the following statements listed below, which one can be concluded from the observations of Mr. Fevicol?
(1) Betki was the only fish that Mr. Fevicol saw while he was fishing
(2) While Mr. Fevicol was fishing, no other fish was caught by him
(3) All of the fish that Mr. Fevicol saw he caught
(4) Mr. Fevicol did not see any other fish while he was fishing

Direction for questions 59 – 61: Answers should be based on the information given below:
In a design studio for Kulu Shawls, different colourful borders are created by using thick woolen threads. There are threads of exactly six different solid colours – Red, Yellow, Blue, Green, White and Black. Threads are used in the borders according to the following rules:
• Each border must contain at least five threads of at least three different colours.
• At most, two threads in a border can be Black.
• At most two threads in a border can be White.
• There can be at most one thread of each of the other colours in a single border.
• If one thread is Red, then one thread must be Yellow.
• If one thread is Blue, then no thread can be Green.

59. The maximum number of threads that can be used in a border is
(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 5

60. If a White thread and a Blue thread must be among the threads chosen for a particular border, any of the following pairs of threads would complete the border, EXCEPT:
(1) Black thread and a second White thread
(2) Yellow thread and second White thread
(3) Yellow thread and a Black thread
(4) Red thread and a Black thread.

61. If there is an additional requirement that Blue must be used if Yellow is used, which of the following must be true?
(1) No border contains more than five threads
(2) Red is always used if Blue is used
(3) No border contains fewer than six threads
(4) Green is never used if Red is used

62. A priest asked the parishioner: “Do you speak to the devil and follow his biddings?” The parishioner said, “yes”. The priest replied: “You must be lying. Nobody who is in league with the devil tells the truth”. Why can the priest’s behaviour be considered paradoxical?
(1) He was the one who asked the question, but he refused to accept the answer
(2) While he is questioning the parishioner about possible association with the devil, he doesn’t actually believe in the dark lord
(3) He relied upon the answer of the parishioner in order to reject his response
(4) He accused the parishioner of being league with the devil, but later changed his story.

63. Mr. Vishwakarma, the car mechanic said, “All of the two door cars that I have repaired have always had 8 cylinders, so all 2 door cars must have 8 cylinder engines”. What is the basis of author’s argument?
(1) Generalization
(2) Syllogism
(3) Deduction
(4) Ambiguity

Directions for questions 64 – 65: Answers should be based on the information given below:
Seven friends have qualified in the preliminary round of a quiz contest. From these seven, two teams must be formed – an orange team and a Blue team, each team consisting of exactly three contestants. No contestant can be selected for more than one team. Based on the scores of the preliminary round, team selection is subject to the following restrictions:
• Joginder cannot be in the same team us Kulvinder.
• Ravinder cannot be in the same team as Sukhvinder
• If Arvinder is in the Orange team, Ravinder if selected, must be on the Blue team
• If Mohinder is in the Orange team, Kulvinder must be selected for the Blue team.

64. If Mohinder is in the Orange team, which of the following, if selected, must also be on the Orange team?
(1) Arvinder
(2) Joginder
(3) Ravinder
(4) Tejinder

65. If Arvinder is selected for the Orange team and Tejinder is not selected for either team, then which of the following CANNOT be a member of the Blue team?
(1) Joginder
(2) Kulvinder
(3) Mohinder
(4) Sukhvinder

Directions for questions 66 – 68: Answers should be based on the information given below:
In the colourful town of Rang Barshe, office areas are named through colour codes. Mr. Gupta is a courier who uses a motorcycle to pick up letters from some banks to deliver to other banks. His area is restricted to certain network of streets. In the network, there are two-way streets connecting each of the following pairs of areas: Red with Orange, Red with Yellow, Red with Blue, Orange with Indigo, Blue with Indigo, and Indigo with Violet. There are also one-way streets going from Orange to Green, from Yellow to Orange, and from Green to Yellow. There are no other streets in the network and the streets do not intersects.
To make a trip involving pickups and deliveries, Courier Gupta always takes a trip that passes through fewest of the areas from Red to Violet. Gupta’s home is in Yellow area; letter can be picked up from Andhra Bank at Red area, Bharat Bank at Blue area, Canara Bank at Green area. Deliveries are given to Dena Bank at Orange area, Exim bank at Indigo area, and Federal Bank at Violet area.

66. If starting from home, Gupta is to make pickups for Federal Bank from Andhra Bank and Canara Bank (in either order). The first two intermediate areas on his route, beginning with the first must be
(1) Red and Orange
(2) Orange and Red
(3) Orange and Green
(4) Green and Orange

67. If starting from the Bharat Bank, the courier is to pick up letter at either at Andhra Bank or at Canara Bank (whichever stop makes him go through fewest of the areas) and then is to go to Federal Bank, the first two areas he reaches after Bharat Bank, beginning with the first, must be
(1) Red and Orange
(2) Red and Yellow
(3) Green and Orange
(4) Indigo and Orange

68. If the courier is to make a trip starting at the Federal Bank, next going to Canara Bank for a pick up, and then ending with the delivery at the Exim Bank, the first two intermediate points on his route, beginning with the first, can be:
(1) Yellow and Red
(2) Yellow and Green
(3) Indigo and Orange
(4) Indigo and Blue

Directions for questions 69 – 71: Answer should be based on the information given below:
A Business School publishes three issues of their research Journal in a year. The Editor decided that the upcoming three issues – Apirl, August and December – would carry articles written by seven most reputed Professors of the School. Each of the seven authors (T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z) will have at least one article published, but some may have more than one article published. The following restrictions apply to the publication of the articles:
• Each of the issues being prepared must contain at least two articles.
• Only these seven Professors’ articles can appear in the upcoming April, August and December issues
• No author may publish in each of two consecutively published issues or twice in the same issue.
• If an article by T appears in an issue, then an article by U must also appear in that issue.
• If an article by W appears in an issue, then an article by Y must appear in the immediately preceding issue.
• An article by Y cannot be published in an issue that contains an article by Z.

69. If April issue consists exclusively of articles by T and U, then August issue can consist exclusively of articles by which of the following group of authors?
(1) V and X
(2) V and Y
(3) W and Z
(4) V, Y and Z

70. If April issue consists exclusively of articles by U, V, and Z then the August issue must contain an article by which of the following authors?
(1) W
(2) X
(3) Y
(4) Z

71. If December issue consists exclusively of articles by U, V, and W, the August issue must have considered of articles by which of the following groups of authors?
(1) T and Z
(2) U and Y
(3) X and Y
(4) X and Z

Directions for questions 72 – 74: Answers should be based on the information given below:
The intelligence branch of the police was keeping an eye on four suspected lady terrorists – M. Meenakshi, Razia Rahat, Sharmila Singh, Theresa Tenzing – and their movements in and out of a building. They discovered a pattern and made the following observations.
• No suspect ever enters or leaves the building together with another suspect.
• Each of the suspects enters, and later leaves the building, only once every day.
• No suspect ever leaves the building in the same other – first, second, third and fourth – in which the entered the building.
• Both in entering the building and leaving it, Razia Rahat is always earlier than Sharmila Singh.

72. On a certain day, on which the two suspects who enter the building first are also the two suspects who leave it first, the last two suspects to enter the building could be:
(1) M. Meenakshi and Razia Rahat
(2) M. Meenakshi and Theresa Tenzing
(3) Razia Rahat and Sharmila Singh
(4) Razia Rahat and Theresa Tenzing

73. If, on a certain day, Meenakshi and Theresa enter the building second and third, respectively, and Meenakshi also leaves the building before Theresa does, the order in which the suspects leave the building, from first to fourth, must be:
(1) Meenakshi, Razia, Sharmila, Theresa
(2) Meenakshi, Razia, Theresa, Sharmila
(3) Razia, Meenakshi, Sharmila, Theresa
(4) Razia, Sharmila, Meenakshi, Theresa

74. On a day on which Razia Rahat enters the building second and Theresa Tenzing enters it third, which of the following must be true?
(1) Razia leaves the building first
(2) Meenakshi leaves the building first
(3) Meenakshi leaves the building third
(4) Theresa leaves the building second

Directions for questions 75 – 78: Answers should be based on the information given below:
Six horses – with the names “Aparajit”, “Bahadur”, “Chetak”, “Dhundumar”, “Pakshiraj”, and “Vijay” are entered in a race. The starting gate is divided into exactly seven starting positions numbered consecutively 1 through 7.Seven Jockeys – also numbered 1 through 7 – are eligible to ride in the rice. Each jockey’s number corresponds to the numbered position in the starting gate from which that jockey, if assigned to a horse, will ride. Exactly one jockey will not be assigned to any horse, and the starting gate position corresponding to that jockey’s number will remain vacant for the race. Jockeys will be assigned to horses and the horses will run from starting gate positions in accordance with the following restrictions:
• Either Aparajit or Chetak must be ridden by Jockey 1.
• Pakshiraj must be ridden by Jockey 4 or else by Jockey 5.
• Bahadur and Pakshiraj must have at least one horse separating the two of them in starting gate.
• Chetak must run from a starting gate position with a lower number than the starting gate position from which Vijay runs.

75. If the horses finish the race, from first to last, in exactly the order 6, 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1 (corresponding to the number of their jockeys), and if Bahadur is the horse that wins the race, then each of the following horses could have been among the top three finishers in the race EXCEPT
(1) Chetak
(2) Dhundumar
(3) Pakshiraj
(4) Vijay

76. If Jockey 5 is the one jockey not assigned to any horse, which of the following could be true?
(1) Aparajit is ridden by Jockey 4
(2) Vijay is ridden by Jockey 6
(3) Bahadur is ridden by Jockey 6
(4) Chetak is ridden by Jockey 7.

77. If Dhundumar is incapable of running the race and no replacement horse is found, and if the horses that do run finish the race, from first to last, in the order 1, 2, 4, 6 and 7 (corresponding to the numbers of their jockeys) which of the following must have finished last in the race?
(1) Aparajit
(2) Bahadur
(3) Chetak
(4) Pakshiraj

78. If Chetak runs from starting gate position 5 and if starting gate position 6 is vacant, which of the following must be true?
(1) Vijay starts from starting gate position 2
(2) Aparajit starts from starting gate position 2
(3) Pakshiraj starts from starting gate position 3
(4) Dhundumar starts from starting gate position 3

Directions for questions 79 – 102: Read passage – I, and answer the questions given below the passage. Answer should be based on the author’s views or inferences drawn from the given passage.
Early books on business strategy aimed to structure and codify the many documentary histories and memoirs of business leaders. They contained precious little theory or models drawn from economics or other social sciences. They do contain many good ideas but few frameworks in which to place them. There was limited guidance as to when and where anyone idea would or would not work. Just because an idea was useful in one company at one moment in time does not mean it will always work. Gradually ideas and models emerged that provided the necessary structure to the chaos of anecdotal memories. First we need to distinguish between corporate and business level strategy. At the corporate level businesses need to ask themselves fundamental questions such as ‘Which business should we be in?’ At the business level a business needs to ask itself. ‘How do we compete?’ It is at this latter level that we position our thinking. The organization has decided that it will compete in a certain market and is seeking ways to optimise what it does in pursuit of its goals, in other words what its strategy should be. How we think about business strategy has evolved and changed as new and better ideas have become more widely known and accepted and as the needs of business have changed. Business strategy has had many definitions but these are two that give a sense of what is involved irrespective of where we are in time: ‘Strategy is about matching the competencies of the organization is its environment. A strategy describes how an organization aims to meet its objectives’.
The changing environment for any business can be understood by assessing the main factors that create change in a marketplace: political (including legislative), economic, social and technological trends. If strategy is about matching your business to the opportunities and challenges of the environment then it pays to understand what that means and how the environment is changing and likely to change in the future. A company’s ability to match itself to its environment can be assessed in turn by listing its main strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats, the now familiar SWOT analysis. PEST and SWOT analyses have become the logical starting points for any business looking to appraise itself and to define or redefine its strategy. How a company matches itself to its environment is left to its management to decide. We believe that it is time to identify better ways in which any organization can identify how to match itself to the changing needs and views of the most important part of its environment, its customers. We also believe that management needs to look more inside their organizations to find the answers to the challenges presented by their environment. A third definition of strategy explains why commercial organizations should invest time and money in creating a strategy: ‘A successful strategy is one that achieves an above average profitability in its sector’. We also believe that any approach to strategy must be capable of demonstrating that it can guide a business organization to above average profitability or at least to an increase in profitability. For not-for-profit organizations the performance measures will be very different. A business school might aim merely to break even but measure itself by the number of students it educates. A charity might measure its total giving or a ratio of donations to income. A church might measure itself by the size of its congregation. Performance measures that are relevant to commercial business can be applied to any type or style of organization.
While companies still use SWOT and PEST analyses, other strategic tools have become dated as business has changed in its nature. A century ago the multinational was the exception on the corporate landscape. Most business were small and local and this is still true in many countries and in many sectors to this day. In markets where competition is fragmented and the main competitors are small, a relatively unsophisticated business plan, one that concerns itself solely with the business itself and its immediate market, is likely to be more than adequate. Gap analysis is still a relevant technique that can focus the management of such organizations into thinking about the main issues they face, specifically how to bridge the gap between their existing financial performance and where they would like the business to be in the future. If the gap is wide and if the recent performance has been poor it is likely that the company will have to reinvent itself and to find a different answer to the question ‘What business are we in?’ Used in conjunction with a PEST and SWOT analysis a firm can construct a clear sense of direction. By identifying and costing various projects that will help to fill the strategic planning gap, it can create a strategic plan. The value of gap analysis lies in its simplicity, but it has one key weakness. It ignores competition. It also lacks any model to help management decide what to do or how to appraise their ideas as to how to fill the planning gap. But first there is a question on the way strategies actually evolves. Is it via the purposive analysis implied by Gap, SWOT and PEST analyses?
There has been a lively debate as to whether ‘strategy’ is something that senior management can decide upon and impose upon an organization or whether strategies emerge from within an organization, guided by managers rather than decided by them. Many argue that specific strategies tend to emerge, rather than be created, in larger organizations because many new and different strategies are constantly being created and acted upon routinely through the interaction between the firm and its customers or even suppliers. An order might arrive from another country and before it knows it the firm is in the export business. An existing customer, impressed by what the firm has done in the past in supplying one product or service, asks it to provide another outside its normal scope of operation. It does so successfully and finds itself in a new business. This idea of a business almost lurching from one opportunity to another may appeal, but the analogy of strategy as evolution where a series of often random events occur, a tiny minority of which change the business because they produce sustained sales or profit, is not too far from reality. Indeed some have argued that you can apply this thinking outside of the firm, one business species thrives as it adapts to a changing environment while another is wiped out when its main source of nourishment declines.
In reality businesses do, indeed must, try to formalize their strategies, to take control of their own destiny. The problem is how? The best answer will probably be a combination of direction and evolution. From the top or centre will come an analysis and formal plan. This will include the financial objectives of the firm, as there is no sense in delegating those. The contribution from lower down the organization, the bottom up component can include the source of options to be analysed. The role of the planner is to select the best options so that the firm has a clear direction to follow. The worst possible situation is where the company is actively trying to pursue more than one competing strategy at the same time. It does not work. The problem with such thinking is that it leaves the role of strategy formulation somewhat in limbo. On the one hand we are saying that strategy is about having a clear understanding of how the organization is planning to meet its objectives. On the other we are arguing the value of allowing radical ideas to emerge from the customer interface, somewhere not always regarded as the place where strategy is formed. So just where do we stand on the issue of who are responsible for strategic management? What is best left to the senior team in our view are decisions about which markets to be in, whether to enter country X this year or next, whether to acquire Company Y or to divest Division A, What we labeled earlier as corporate level strategy. Our focus is on market strategy, what organizations should do to manage their way in markets they are already in and intend to stay in. For the first type of decision we concede the need for a centralized function that makes decisions. For the second type of role we will argue that managers should create a framework and set objectives and then let the organization get on with meeting those objectives.
The strategy process is about flows of ideas and instructions up and down the organization. There will be two distinct flows in any business, the financial planning flow and the strategic planning flow. They interact and often conflict. A typical financial objective might be to achieve a 24 per cent return on assets employed each year. A typical vision statement is more qualitative and more long-term, to be market leader in a specific field. Underpinning the company vision will be a strategy that gives practical form to that vision. At the same time it explains how the company expects to achieve its financial goals and objectives. All too often it is far from clear in written plans how the strategy will deliver the required financial performance. Tactics are the shorter term, day-to-day matters that will be of relevance to many employees, for example a sales target of four customer calls a day, a production plan for 50 tonnes of product. Money is required to fund the business and to meet day-to-day expenditure. Typically a financial budget is prepared for every part of an organization. Individual budgets are totaled and compared with the revenue forecasts to judge the viability of the plan.
Those reading this who have prepared budgets and forecasts know only too well that preparing them is an art as well as a science. The art comes in not leaving yourself with too little fat, in slightly over forecasting a budget and under forecasting a revenue stream. Those reading this who manage those who prepare budgets and forecasts recognize that managers ‘suffice’ rather than maximize profit, and probably have a number of ways of ensuring that both forecasts and budgets appear challenging while still being feasible. There is a danger in our experience of believing one’s own forecasts. Senior managers spend time and effort making sure that the next year’s plan looks sound because revenue and expenditure balance. But what appears on paper is no more than a wish list. If the organization is in a stable environment then a simple extrapolation from last year is adequate. In such a case the financial flow will dominate management thinking. In situations where the environment is more fluid and less predictable then rigidity creates myopia. Organizations in the service sector have to be prepared to change, often on a daily basis to respond to shifts in what their customers want or in what their competition are doing. Visionary companies often out-perform financially driven ones because there is not a reliance upon budgeting and forecasting, there is often not enough time to do such things as the business is too concerned with how it can cope with the opportunities that are there in the market and that can never be predicted. Having a rigid top down approach can stifle the very essence of organization’s ability to succeed. Senior management’s role is to set targets, let middle and junior managers decide or at least influence how to meet them. As organizations become more complex and physically larger, it becomes more impossible for one person at the top to be able to manage down’. Education standards have risen but companies can ignore the potential they recruit, trying to control what they should be letting free, lacking the framework that will guide employees to achieve without detailed manuals on what to do and how to do it.
As approach can be adopted that is not budget driven in the sense that the firm relies upon replicating what it did last year, but not so free and easy so that senior management lose all control over what is happening. The balance between the two flows in terms of the relative power they have in the organization is interesting to observe. Some companies have a good strategy. Profitability is almost taken be granted. The debate is more about how much profit to return to shareholders, how much to invest, and what the staff bonus scheme should payout this year. In other companies financial management is all-powerful. It needs to be, as the business has not discovered a position in its market that it can use to achieve above average profitability, most probably because it lacks an effective strategy. It lurches from one financial crisis to another. Many businesses survive in this way for years, but the better employees leave for better paid and more satisfying jobs elsewhere. Even among some apparently better performing organizations employee turnover can be an issue. Here financial performance has been gained at the expense of employees. Employees leave, disliking the uncaring attitude to both staff and to customers that means they care little for their employer.
Over the years a number of models have been produced largely from academic research that companies can use to improve their chances of achieving ‘above average profitability. The strategic decision-making in an organization is guided by a model, a simplified picture of what makes for success in business. So what are these models and how useful have they proven to be? By the 1980s businesses realized that they needed more sophisticated tools to help them construct valid strategies. The main problems to be faced in their markets were not so much the trends identified by their trend analyses but by the less predictable, actions of their competitors. Take the retail sector as a good example. In the 1950s there were few countries in the world where concentration levels in the retail sector were high. By the 1990s most developed nations had food retail sectors as a good example. In the 1950s there were few countries in the world where concentration levels in the retail sector were high. By the 1990s most developed nations had food retail sectors that were dominated by a small number of players. At the same time such companies owned more than one retail business and strategies were needed for each market.

79. Which of the following is a true statement?
(1) An idea found useful in one company at one time will always work in other companies
(2) An idea found useful in one company at one time may not work in other companies.
(3) An idea found irrelevant in one company at one time will work in other companies.
(4) A useful idea will always remain relevant for all companies at all times

80. According to the passage,
(1) Anecdotal memories created chaos
(2) Useful ideas emerged fairly rapidly to deal with business strategy
(3) Gradual emergence of ideas confused the business strategies
(4) Sudden emergence of ideas created confusion among the business strategies

81. According to the passage,
(1) Recent literature aims to codify documentary histories on business strategy
(2) Recent books aim to document memoirs of business leaders
(3) Many documentary histories were codified in early books on business strategy
(4) None of the above

82. According to the author of the passage,
(1) There is no difference between business and corporate level strategy
(2) We cannot differentiate business from corporate strategy
(3) Business should be based on questions raised at the corporate level
(4) Strategy is based on the questions raised at the business level

83. Which of the following is not a true statement?
(1) Early books on business strategy contained very little theory
(2) Early books on business strategy contained many models drawn from social sciences
(3) Early books on business strategy contained little or no theory derived from social sciences
(4) Early books on business strategy contain many good ideas

84. It is true that
(1) business strategy has not changed for many years
(2) not many new ideas have become widely known to influence our business strategy
(3) not many new ideas have become widely known as the needs of business have changed
(4) new ideas have changed our business strategies

85. According to the passage,
(1) there cannot be many definitions of business strategy
(2) there are only two definitions of business strategy
(3) there are many definitions of business strategy
(4) no definition of business strategy is an accurate description

86. We can understand the changing environment of a business by
(1) analysing the factors affecting the market
(2) assessing the political, economic, social and technological trends
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of the above

87. SWOT analysis is a process
(1) which tests a company’s ability to cope with the environment
(2) which helps a company to appraise itself
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of the above

88. According to the passage,
(1) customer is a part of the environment
(2) customer defines the business environment
(3) business environment shapes the customer
(4) business strategy moulds the customer

89. Which of the following is not a true statement?
(1) Commercial organizations should invest time and money in creating strategy
(2) Commercial organizations should not invest in time and money in creating strategy
(3) A successful strategy should lead to profitability
(4) Performance measures that are relevant to commercial organizations are also applicable to not- for-profit organizations

90. According to the passage SWOT analysis
(1) has become dated tool
(2) is not a tool used by companies any more
(3) is a tool still used by companies
(4) has become redundant

91. Which of the following is a true statement?
(1) A century ago most businesses were multinational
(2) A century ago most businesses were big
(3) A century ago most businesses were local
(4) Multinational businesses were common until the end of last century

92. According to the passage, Gap analysis
(1) is no more relevant
(2) bridges the gap between the present and the future
(3) identifies the difference between the present performance and the future vision
(4) None of the above

93. According to the passage,
(1) Gap analysis is a fairly complex process
(2) Gap analysis has no weakness
(3) Gap analysis has many weaknesses
(4) None of the above

94. Which of the following is not a true statement?
(1) Specific strategies often evolve
(2) Specific strategies are always created
(3) Strategies are constantly created through interaction between customers and suppliers
(4) Strategies are dictated to the customers and suppliers

95. The businesses must formalise their strategies by
(1) controlling and monitoring
(2) direction and evolution
(3) planning and analysis
(4) All of the above

96. According to the passage,
(1) Strategy demands a clear understanding of the future
(2) Strategy should encourage radical ideas to emerge from customers
(3) Organisation should be clear as to how it plans to achieve its goals
(4) All of the above

97. The author of the passage focuses on
(1) corporate strategy
(2) market strategy
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of the above

98. According to the passage, the financial planning flow
(1) and the strategic planning flow mean the same
(2) should be based on strategic planning flow
(3) and the strategic planning flow do over interact
(4) and the strategic planning flow conflict with each other

99. According to the passage
(1) organisations which perform well do not experience employee turnover
(2) employee turnover could be an issue even in organisations which perform well
(3) organisations which perform well faces employee turn over more acutely than others
(4) financial performance should be considered more important than employee turnover

100. According to the passage,
(1) in a stable environment organization should be prepared to change
(2) in a fluid environment planning is not required
(3) in a stable environment financial flow will dominate management thinking
(4) in a fluid environment rigid plans often work well

101. The passage suggests that
(1) Senior management should not set targets
(2) Senior managers should set targets
(3) Junior management should not be asked to meet the targets
(4) Middle managers cannot be asked to influence as how to meet targets

102. Which of the following is a tactic?
(1) specific production plan for a specific product
(2) a sales target for a specific day
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of the above

Directions for questions 103-115: Read passage 2, and answer the questions given below the passage. Answer should be based on the author’s views or inferences drawn from the given passage.

The view of some was that the media had built Gerald Ratner only to knock him down. Dealing well with the media is central to both reputation building and defence, but the main lesson from this example is that detail matters. One further lesson might be that the real philosophy of the company was revealed in the jokes of its leader. Jewellery is a high involvement purchase. Ratner appealed to the less well off, to whom a few pounds spent on a pair of gold earrings, was still a substantial sum. Poking fun at the product demeaned the purchase and the purchaser. One interpretation of Gerald Ratner’s humour was that he was all too cynical in his approach to business, to his customers and to his staff. The reputation of one company can affect another it is associated with. As alliances and partnerships become more common, the danger of a partner causing damage to your own reputation grows. There have been a number of examples where problems with a component have given difficulties to the company whose products contain an item clearly branded by a partner.
Ford is one of the largest motor vehicle companies in the world. By 2000 the Ford stable included other car names such as Mazda, Volvo, Jaguar. Bridgestone-Firestone was also huge in its own right as a tyre manufacturer. Serious problems were experienced with owners of certain styles of Ford vehicle fitted with certain Firestone typres. The tyres could shred in use causing the vehicle to topple. Deaths were reported from Saudi Arabia, and North and South America. Fourteen million tyres were recalled. Ford accounted for 5 percent of Firestone’s business. The recall would cost US $450 million and take some considerable time to implement. The real issue between the two companies was that of blame for the deaths and injuries associated with the tyres. The Firestone brand had suffered from a large recall in the 1970s. While the two multinationals scrapped in the media over the safety records of tyres and vehicles, both brand names risked damage. Finally in 2001, Ford and Firestone announced they were to end a business relationship that had begun when Harvey Firestone had agreed to supply tyres for Henri Ford’s model T. The reputation issues that this example highlights include that Ford, whose dealers would be primarily responsible in law to customers for product quality, presumably felt that they benefited by having a Firestone brand on the tyres it put on to its vehicles, rather than say a Ford branded tyre. Firestone would in turn presumably prefer to supply Ford with a branded tyre. The issue of who might be ultimately responsible for any personal injury claims is beyond the scope of our discussion. Needless to say, Ford blamed the tyres design while Firestone the design of the vehicle. Both reputations are likely to have suffered. Two corporate giants fight it out while those who have bought the suspect vehicle had to wait and worry before their tyres are replaced.
Intel’s marketing strategy is to appeal over the heads of the computer manufacturer and directly to the consumer. The ‘Intel inside’ sticker became as important to have on your computer as any maker’s brand name. Two million Pentium chips sold before July 1994 contained a problem in their floating point circuitry. A professor of mathematics at an American college first discovered the problem. He contacted the chip manufacture that took their time to get back to him. Frustrated, he went on the Internet to see if others had experienced the same problem or whether their chips made the same error. They had and they did. Intel first offered to replace the suspect chips but only if the user could prove that the type of calculations they did encompassed the type of error situation being complained of. They argued that very few users would ever experience the problem. It was only when IBM stopped shipping machines with the faulty chips that Intel changed their minds. As one user pointed out, IBM were a blue chip company who could not afford to have their own reputation damaged by the idea that one of their machines might make a mistake. Intel then offered to replace all chips at a total estimated cost of $306 million. CEO Andy Grove admitted. ‘I don’t think we understood the psychology of the marketplace as well as we should have. Millions of consumers who think they are entitled to judge it better than we are, and we were insensitive to that. The perfect chip takes an infinite time to develop’. IBM’s role in the Intel affair is an interesting one. At limited cost to them but at great cost to Intel they could pressure a business partner. Indeed IBM felt that they needed to pressure their business partner into a reputation defence action to protect the IBM name. By having to admit being in the wrong, Intel risked its own reputation.
Michael Porter’s five forces model was introduced as an example of a strategic model. One of the insights from the model is the importance of the relative bargaining power of suppliers and customers. This is usually assessed by the relative concentrations in both groups. Thus if there are a limited number of large customers and a large number of small suppliers the balance of power in the typical relationship will tend to favour the customer. In most businesses where the customer is a member of the public the balance of power favour the supplier. This balance can be affected by the threat of the customer to publicise any wrong doing of the supplier. Governments tend to legislate to protect consumers from rogue suppliers. Another way for consumers to exercise more influence over a large business is through pressure groups of one kind or another.

103. According to the passage
(1) It was a unanimous view that the media promoted Gerald Ratner only to pull him down
(2) Some people thought that the media promoted Gerald Ratner only to pull him down
(3) Nobody thought that the media promoted Gerald Ratner only to pull him down
(4) None of the above

104. The author of the passage believes that
(1) it is not important how you deal with the media
(2) media should not be entrusted with reputation building
(3) details do not matter as much as the PR
(4) reputation depends on how you deal with the media

105. Which of the following is not a true statement?
(1) Jewellery is a high risk business
(2) Jewellery is a high involvement purchase
(3) Ratner focused on the high end of spenders
(4) Ratner poked fun at the product

106. According to the passage, Ratner was
(1) a serious person
(2) a humorous person
(3) not at all cynical in his approach to business
(4) not at all cynical in his approach to his customers

107. Which of the following cannot be assumed from the passage
(1) Reputation of a company cannot be affected by another with which it is associated
(2) Reputation of a company can be affected by another with which it is associated
(3) A partner can damage your own image
(4) Partnerships are common these days

108. According to the passage
(1) Owners of Ford cars never experienced a serious problem
(2) Several owners of Ford cars fitted with certain tyres reportedly met with fatal accidents
(3) No accidents were reported by owners of Ford vehicles
(4) No vehicles fitted with Firestone tyres reportedly met with fatal accidents

109. According to the passage
(1) Firestone accounted for a major part of Ford’s business
(2) Firestone and Ford had nothing to do with each other
(3) A major portion of Ford vehicles were fitted with Firestone tyres
(4) Only a small number of Ford vehicles were fitted with Firestone tyres

110. Which of the following is not a true statement?
(1) Firestone had never faced a problem of recall
(2) Firestone had regular problems of recall
(3) Firestone faced a major problem of recall once earlier
(4) None of the above

111. Which of the following is a true statement?
(1) Ford and Firestone ended business relationship in 1990
(2) Ford had entered into business with Firestone ever since the first Ford car
(3) Firestone did not blame Ford at any stage
(4) Ford never blamed Firestone at any stage

112. According to the passage
(1) The dealers of Ford vehicles were against putting Firestone tyres on Ford vehicles
(2) The dealers of Firestone tyres were not in favour of putting their tyres on Ford vehicles
(3) The dealers of Ford vehicles preferred putting Firestone tyres on Ford vehicles
(4) The dealers of Ford vehicles were indifferent to the brand of tyres put on Ford vehicles

113. Which of the following is a true statement?
(1) Intel is a computer manufacturer
(2) Pentium chips are manufactured by IBM
(3) Intel is big brand name
(4) Intel competes directly with IBM

114. According to the passage
(1) Intel refused to supply chips to IBM
(2) IBM stopped buying chips from Intel
(3) IBM offered to pay damages to Intel
(4) Intel refused to replace the chips in IBM computers

115. Which of the following is a true statement?
(1) Andy Grove is the chairman of IBM
(2) Andy Grove is the chairman of Intel
(3) In the Intel episode IBM suffered a huge loss
(4) In the IBM episode Intel did not suffer much damage

Directions for questions 116-125: Read passage – 3, and answer the questions given below the passage. Answers should be based on the author’s views or inferences drawn from the given passage.

The traditional image of PR itself could do with some improvement. In Sheridan’s play The Critic written in 1871, a character named Mr. Puff describes himself as a practitioner in panegyric a professor in the art of puffing. His job involves him in promoting various businesses or individuals in the newspapers by advertisements or by placing articles. As such he represents the forerunner and a parody of both the advertising and public relations agency. He is presented as an unscrupulous rouge, capable of saying anything in his own or in his clients’ favour. He catalogues four principles of this profession: the puff direct, the puff collateral, the puff collusive and the puff oblique all of which involve some form of misrepresentation. If this lampoon of the public relations and advertising industries is somewhat cruel it still reflects a general view that persists to this day that what appears in press releases, in articles in the press, and in advertising should be treated with suspicion. The term ‘spin doctor’ has crept into the English language to describe someone with the verbal gymnastic skills to make the most negative of incident reflect well on his or her client by turning the sense of the piece.
However the media guarantee the continuation of the press release. Despite the insistence of most journalists to the contrary, the media will sometimes reproduce press releases with little or no original work by the journalist they are supplied to. Second, press mentions are by far a cheaper way to promote a business than direct advertising, ensuring that this method of marketing communications will continue to be important. An operational problem in using PR is the lack of control the business has over what actually appears in print. The journalist who is creating an original story will act as a gatekeeper between the PR office and the media. But the main issue with PR for us is whether the function is evolving into a Reputation Management role. At present, PR inside an organization is either a subset of marketing or an adjunct to a corporate function or a specialism that is outsourced. The PR manager probably has background in journalism or the media. PR is a function that is rarely seen as strategic in nature. While there may be an overarching sense of supporting the corporate image, much of PR is short-term and tactical in nature. That said there are many examples where PR can affect an organization or its products in the medium to long term.
Product endorsement in the media can be worth more than its weight in gold. A good review by a fashion writer can make or break a designer. A good review in the literary section of a Sunday newspaper can make or break a new novel. The mention of a particular wine on a cookery programme on the television can see sales rocket the following day. Jeremy Clarkson would be well known to the British public for his engaging reviews of cars on a television programme dedicated to motoring. He is also a journalist and writes for the Sunday Times, middle to upper market paper. In 2000 he reviewed a new version of Ford’s Mondeo. The Mondeo is a four-door saloon and is in a competitive sector of the market where most of the large car manufacturers have one or more models. There are two reputations at stake here, that of Ford and that of the Mondeo sub-brand, the associations with the corporate name overlaying those of the product brand of Mondeo.

116. According to the author, PR
(1) should be seen as a strategic function
(2) PR has been always seen as a strategic function
(3) PR should not be seen as a strategic function
(4) PR will always remain a strategic function

117. Which of the following is a true statement?
(1) There is no sense of supporting the corporate image
(2) Most of PR is long-term in perspective
(3) PR can never affect the products in the medium to long term
(4) PR can affect an organisation and its products

118. According to the passage, ‘puff’ is
(1) characteristic of all critics
(2) a practitioner of witchcraft
(3) an acronym for advertising
(4) a character in the play

119. According to the author of the passage, ‘puff’
(1) is the forerunner of PR agency
(2) is the brand manager
(3) represents a highly dignified image
(4) stands for honesty and integrity

120. Which of the following does the author of the passage not mean?
(1) There is some amount of misrepresentation in all press releases
(2) Advertising is treated with suspicion
(3) PR amounts to verbal gymnastic skills
(4) PR reflects the true picture of companies

121. According to the passage,
(1) The media always reproduce the actual reality
(2) The media sometimes reproduce press release which have no bearing on original material
(3) Press releases are as expensive as direct advertising to promote business
(4) None of the above

122. According to the author of the passage,
(1) Business has often no control over what appears in the media
(2) The journalist ensures that what appears in the media is approved by the business
(3) The journalist who creates a story is often employed by the business
(4) The media is an extension of the business organisation

123. The main concern of the passage is whether PR
(1) has grown to assume the role of reputation management
(2) is a subset of marketing
(3) is an adjunct to a corporate function
(4) is a function that is outsourced

124. According to the passage,
(1) Product endorsement is more than the weight of gold
(2) The worth of product endorsement is more than that of gold
(3) Product endorsement is better than a good review by a fashion writer
(4) Product endorsement in the media is a very valuable process

125. Which of the following attributes may be associated with Jeremy Clarkson?
(1) A fashion writer
(2) A film critic
(3) Sunday Times journalist
(4) None of the above

126. The value of [0.943 x 0.943 – 0.943 x 0.057 + 0.057 x 0.057 /0.943 x 0.943 x 0.943 + 0.057 x 0.057 x 0.057] is
(1) 0.886
(2) 1.1286
(3) 0.32
(4) None of these

127. What is the ratio whose terms differ by 40 and the measure of which is 2/7?
(1) 16:56
(2) 14:56
(3) 15:56
(4) 16:82

128. In covering a distance of 30 k.m. Amit takes 2 hours more than suresh . if Amit double his speed , he would take 1 hour less than Suresh . Amit’s speed is.
(1) 5 km/hour
(2) 7.5 km/hour
(3) 6 km/hour
(4) 6.25 km/hour

129. 21 mango trees, 42 apple trees and 56 orange trees have to be planted in rows such that each row contains the same number of trees of one variety only. Minimum number of rows in which the trees may be planted is:
(1) 20
(2) 17
(3) 15
(4) 4

130. If the ratio between the roots of the equation lx2 + nx + n = 0 is p : q, then the value of

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 0
(4) – 1

131. Q-131then x is equal to
(1) a + b/a
(2) a+b/b
(3) a – b/a
(4) None of these

132. Value of k for which (x – 1) is a factor of (x3 – k) is:
(1) -1
(2) 1
(3) 8
(4) -8

133. The altitude of equilateral triangle of side 2√3 cm is:
(1) √3/2 cm
(2) 1/2 cm
(3) √3/4 cm
(4) 3 cm

134. The sum of the ages of a father and son is 45 years. Five years of ago, the product of their ages was 4 times the father’s age at that time. The present ages of the father and son respectively are:
(1) 35 years, 10 years
(2) 36 years, 9 years
(3) 39 years, 6 years
(4) None of these

135. a/3 = b/4 = c/7 , than a+b+c/c =?
(1) 1/7
(2) ½
(3) 2
(4) 7

136. If log10 (x2 – 6x + 45) = 2, then the values of x are:
(1) 6, 9
(2) 9,-5
(3) 10, 5
(4) 11,-5

137. If k- 2, 2k + 1 and 6k + 3 are in G.P., the value of k is
(1) 7
(2) 0
(3) 3
(4) -2

138. A circular disc of area 0.49 n square meters rolls down a length of 1.76 km. The number of revolutions it makes is:
(1) 300
(2) 400
(3) 600
(4) 4000

139. A 4 cm. cube is cut into 1 cm. cubes. The total surface area of all the small cubes is:
(1) 96 cm2
(2) 24 cm2
(3) 384 cm2
(4) None of these

140. If log10125 + log10 8 = x, then x is equal to:
(1) – 3
(2) 3
(3) 1/3
(4) 0.064

141. A man covers a certain distance on scooter. Had he moved 3 kmph faster, he would have taken 40 minutes less. If he had moved 2 kmph slower, he would have taken 40 minutes more. The distance (in km) is:
(1) 20
(2) 36
(3) 37.5
(4) 40

142. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days; B and C in 15 days; C and A in 20 days. In how many days can A alone do it?
(1) 30
(2) 24
(3) 15 2/3
(4) None of these

143. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the river is running at 1 kmph, it takes him 75 minutes to row to a place and back. How far is the place?
(1) 2.5 km
(2) 3 km
(3) 4 km
(4) 5 km

144. The area of the largest circle that can be drawn inside a rectangle with sides 7 m by 6 m, is:
(1) 28 2/7m2
(2) 64 8/9 m2
(3) 59 2/3 m2
(4) None of these

145. The sum of all even natural numbers less than 100 is:
(1) 2450
(2) 2272
(3) 2352
(4) 2468

146. Two trains running in the same direction at 40 kmph and 22 kmph completely pass one another in 1 minute. If the length of the first train is 125 m, the length of the second train is:
(1) 125 m
(2) 150 m
(3) 175 m
(4) 200 m

147. The solution of the equations is given by Q-147
(1) x = 2, y = 1
(2) x=1,y = 1
(3) x = -1,y = -1
(4) x=1,y = 2

148. The area of a rectangle gets reduced by 9 m2 if its length is reduced by 5m and breath is increased by 3 m. If we increase the length by 3m and breath by 2 m, the area is increased by 67 m2. The length of the rectangle is:
(1) 9 m
(2) 15.6 m
(3) 17 m
(4) 18.5 m

149. A dinner party is to be fixed for a group of 100 persons. In this party, 50 persons do not prefer fish, 60 prefer chicken and 10 do not prefer either chicken or fish. The number of persons who prefer both fish and chicken is:
(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) 10

150. There are two examination halls, P and Q. If 10 students are sent from P to Q, then the number of students in each room is same. If 20 students are sent from Q to P, then the number of students in P is double of that in Q. The number of students in P and Q respectively are:
(1) 60, 40
(2) 70, 50
(3) 80, 60
(4) 100, 80

151. The average of marks obtained by 120 students was 35. If the average of passed candidates was 39 and that of failed candidates was 15, the number of candidates who passed the examination is:
(1) 100
(2) 110
(3) 120
(4) 150

152. Consider the following statements:
A. If ax = b, by = c, cz = a, then xyz = 0
B. If p = ax, q = ay, (py qx) = a2, then xyz = 1
C. If xa = yb = zc and ab+ bc + ca = 0, then xyz = 1
Of these statements:
(1) A and B correct
(2) B and C are correct
(3) Only A is correct
(4) A and C are correct

153. If 90% of A = 30% of B and B = x% of A, then the value of x is:
(1) 900
(2) 800
(3) 600
(4) 300

154. In an examination, 52% of the candidates failed in English, 42% in mathematics and 17% in both. The number of those who passed in both the subjects is:
(1) 83%
(2) 23%
(3) 64%
(4) 55.5%

155. For a sphere of radius 10 cm, what percent of the numerical value of its volume would be the numerical value of the surface area?
(1) 26.5%
(2) 24%
(3) 30%
(4) 45%

156. Q-156
(1) 0.016
(2) 0.16
(3) 1
(4) 16

157. Five bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at intervals of 6, 7, 8, 9 and 12 seconds. How many times they will toll together in one hour, excluding the one at the start?
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

158. If x, y and z are real numbers such that x < y and z < 0, then the statement which is true is

159. If a number of two digits is k times the sum of its digits, then the number formed by interchanging the digits is the sum of the digits multiplied by:
(1) 9 + k
(2) 10 – k
(3) 11 – k
(4) k-1

160. When simplified the product (2-1/3)(2-3/5)(2-5/7)……..(2-997/999) is:
(1) 5/999
(2) 1001/999
(3) 3/1001
(4) 1001/3

161. A certain job was assigned to a group of men to do in 20 days. But 12 men did not turn up for the job and the remaining men did the job in 32 days. The original number of men in the group was:
(1) 32
(2) 34
(3) 36
(4) 40

162. The ratio between the rates of walking of A and B is 2 : 3 and therefore A takes 10 minutes more than the time taken by B to reach the destination. If A had walked at double the speed, he would have covered by distance in
(1) 15 minutes
(2) 20 minutes
(3) 25 minutes
(4) 30 minutes

163. A dishonest dealer sells his goods at the cost price and still earns a profit of 25% by under weighing. What weight does he use for a kilogram?
(1) 750 gm.
(2) 800 gm.
(3) 825 gm.
(4) 850 gm.

164. Profit after selling an article for Rs. 425 is the same as loss after selling it for Rs. 355. The cost of the article is:
(1) Rs. 385
(2) Rs. 390
(3) Rs. 395
(4) Rs. 400

165. If 3x – 3x -1 = 18, then the value of xx is:
(1) 3
(2) 8
(3) 27
(4) 216

166. Q-166
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 3√2

167. If x1/3 + y1/3 + z1/3 = 0, then
(1) x + y + z = 0
(2) (x + y + z)3 = 27 xyz
(3) x + y + z = 3 xyz
(4) x3 + y3 + z3 = 0

168. The value of
(1) 1/3
(2) 9/13
(3) 1/9
(4) 2/3

169. √2,∛4 and ∜6 in ascending order are:

170. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5 : 1. On adding 5 litres of water, the ratio of milk and water becomes 5 : 2. The quantity of milk in the original mixture is:
(1) 16 litre
(2) 22.75 litres
(3) 25 litres
(4) 32.5 litres

171. S varies directly as R varies and T varies inversely as R varies. At a time R = 20, S = 40 and T = 10. If R is changed to 10, then the value of T will be:
(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 40
(4) 80

172. The value of 
(1) 1/x
(2) 1+x
(3) 1-x2
(4) 1

173. If ax = b, by = c and cz = a, then xyz equals:
(1) abc
(2) 1/abc
(3) 1
(4) None of these

174. The value of Q-174
(1) 1+1/x+5
(2) 1/x+5
(3) x+1/x+5
(4) x+5/x+1

175. A rectangular carpet has an area of 60 m2. Its diagonal and longer side together equal 5 times the shorter side. The length of the carpet is:
(1) 5m
(2) 12 m
(3) 13m
(4) 14.5 m