IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE
Solved Paper 2012
Exam Date 17-06-2012
Section I Reasoning
Directions (Q.Nos. 1-4) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
{All the numbers are two digits numbers)
Input tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn
Step I 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt
Step II 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn
Step III 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high
Step IV 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar
Step V 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise
Step VI 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall
Step VII 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise
and Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92
{All the numbers are two digits numbers)
1. Which step number is the following output?
32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink
(1) Step V
(2) Step VI
(3) Step IV
(4) Step III
(5) There is no such step
2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V?
(1)14
(2)92
(3) feet
(4) best
(5) why
3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘feet’ and ’32’ as they appear in the last step of the output?
(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
(5) Seven
4. Which of the following represents the position of ‘why’ in the fourth step?
(1) Eighth from the left
(2) Fifth from the right
(3) Sixth from the left
(4) Fifth from the left
(5) Seventh from the left
Directions (Q.Nos. 5-11) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
* A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
* B sits second to left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
* D’s daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H’s husband.
* Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H’s brother D sits to the immediate left of H’s mother. Only one person sits between H’s mother and E.
* Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.
5. What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law?
(1) Immediate left
(2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the right
(5) Fourth to the left
6. Who amongst the following is D’s daughter?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) G
(5) H
7. What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild?
(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the left
8. How many people sit between G and her uncle?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) F
(2) C
(3) E
(4) H
(5) G
10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
(1) C is the cousin of E
(2) H and H’s husband are immediate neighbours of each other
(3) No female is an immediate neighbour of C
(4) H sits third to left of her daughter
(5) B is the mother of H
11. Who sits to the immediate left of C?
(1) F’s grandmother
(2) G’s son
(3) D’s mother-in-law
(4) A
(5) G
Directions (Q. Nos. 12-18) In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(1) if only conclusion I follows
(2) if only conclusion II follows
(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
(5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
12. Statements : Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
Conclusions
I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.
13.-14 Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions :
I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.
14. Conclusions
I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.
15-16. Statements: No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions:
I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility-
16. Conclusions
I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics.
17. Statements Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics.
No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions
I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.
18. Statements All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions
I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.
Directions (Q.Nos. 19-21) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.
19. Which of the following could possibly be C’s score?
(1) 70
(2) 94
(3) 86
(4) 61
(5) 81
20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?
(1) D’s score was definitely less than 60
(2) F scored the maximum marks
(3) Only two people scored more than C
(4) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
(5) None of the above is true
21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F’s marks. Which of the following can be D’s score?
(1) 94
(2) 60
(3) 89
(4) 78
(5) 81
Directions (Q.Nos. 22-29) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
* C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
* Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
* The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
* Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
* B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
22. Which of the following is true regarding A?
(1) The person from UCO Bank faces A
(2) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A
(3) A faces the person who sits second to right of R
(4) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(5) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
23. Who is seated between R and the person from PNB?
(1) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(2) P
(3) Q
(4) The person from Syndicate bank
(5) S
24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
(1) D and the person from PNB
(2) The person from Indian Bank and UCO Bank
(3) The person from Dena Bank and P
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank and D
(5) C, Q
25. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra?
(1) The person from Indian Bank
(2) P
(3) R
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank
(5) The person from Canara Bank
26. P is related to Dena Bank in the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. To who amongst the following is D related to, following the same pattern?
(1) Syndicate Bank
(2) Canara Bank
(3) Bank of Maharashtra
(4) Indian Bank
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce
27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Canara Bank
(2) R
(3) Syndicate Bank
(4) Q
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce
28. Who amongst the following is from Syndicate Bank?
(1) C
(2) R
(3) P
(4) D
(5) A
29. C is from which of the following banks?
(1) Dena Bank
(2) Oriental Bank of Commerce
(3) UCO Bank
(4) Syndicate Bank
(5) Canara Bank
Directions (Q.Nos. 30-34) Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and
Give answer
(1) if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
(2) if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
(3) if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
(4) if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question
(5) if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
30. Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V each lives on a different floor of a six storey building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the topmost floor?
I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live, P lives on an even numbered floor.
II. T does not live on an even numbered floor. Q lives on an even numbered floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor.
III. S lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R’s floor.
31. There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is ‘ANSWER’ the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only?
I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E.
II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S.
III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W.
32. Point D is in which direction with respect to Point B?
I. Point A is to the West of point B. Point C is to the North of point B. Point D is to the South of point C.
II. Point G is to the South of point D. Point G is 4 m from point B. Point D is 9 m from point B.
III. Point A is to the West of point B. Point B is exactly midway between points A and E. point F is to the South of point E. Point D is to the West of point F.
33. How is ‘one’ coded in the code language?
I. ‘one of its kind’ is coded as ‘zo pi ko fe’ and ‘in kind and cash’ is coded as ‘ga to ru ko’
II. ‘its point for origin’ is coded as ‘ba le fe mi’ and ‘make a point clear’ is coded as ‘yu si mi de’
III. ‘make money and cash’ is coded as ‘to mi ru hy’ and ‘money of various kind’ is coded as ‘qu ko zo hy’
34. Are all the four friends viz. A, B, C and D, who are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre?
I. B sits second to right of D. D faces the centre. C sits to immediate right of both B and D.
II. A sits to immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. C sits to immediate right of D.
III. D is an immediate neighbour of both A and C. B sits to the immediate left of A. C sits to the immediate right of B.
Direction (Q.No 35) Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows.
35. Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the organic-farming area of their farms would be heavily fined.
Which of the following statements is an assumption implicit in the given statement?
(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted).
(1) Chemical fertilizers harm the crop.
(2) A farm’s area for organic and chemical farming is different.
(3) Farmers who do not use chemical fertilizers in the chemical farming area would be penalized as well.
(4) All farmers undertake both these kinds of farming (Chemical as-well-as organic) in their farms.
(5) Organic fertilizers are banned in the area for chemical farming.
Direction (Q.No. 36) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
36. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)
(1) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future.
(2) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger ones in a super market set-up.
(3) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a super market is higher than that of small grocery stores.
(4) Super markets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller ones.
(5) Smaller brands have always had more tie-ups with super markets as compared to small grocery stores.
Directions (Q. Nos. 37-40) These questions are based on the information given above and the sentences labelled A, B, C, D, E and F as given below.
A. A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local grocery stores than from the super markets.
B. As the super markets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.
C. Super markets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution.
D. Super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.
E. Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much lower as compared to the super markets.
F. Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.
37. Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, D, E and F can be assumed from the facts/information given in the statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both B and C
(4) Both D and E
(5) Only F
38. Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, E and F represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the super markets from the perspective of a smaller brand?
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) Only E
(4) Only F
(5) Both B and C
39. Which of the statements A, B, C, D and E mentioned above represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to super markets by the smaller brands?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only D
(4) Both A and D
(5) Both C and E
40. Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, E and F mentioned above would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to super markets) may not necessarily be correct?
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) Only E
(4) Only F
(5) Both B and E
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series/sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series/sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Section II Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
51. 4003 x 77 – 21015 = ? x 116
(1) 2477
(2) 2478
(3) 2467
(4) 2476
(5) None of these
52. [(5√7 +√7) x (4√7 + 8√7)] – (19×19) = ?
(1) 143
(2) 72√7
(3)134
(4) 70√7
(5) None of these
53. (4444 / 40) + (645 / 25) + (3991 / 26) = ?
(1) 280.4
(2) 290.4
(3) 295.4
(4) 285.4
(5) None of these
54.√33124 x√2601 – (83)2 = (?)2 + (37)2
(1)37
(2) 33
(3) 34
(4) 28
(5) None of these
55. 5 17/37 x4 51/52 x 11 1/7+ 2 3/4 = ?
(1) 303.75
(2) 305.75
(3) 303 ¾
(4) 305 1/4
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note You are not expected to calculate the exact value).
56. 8787 + 343 x √50 = ?
(1) 250
(2) 140
(3) 180
(4) 100
(5) 280
57. √54821 x (303 + 8) = (?)2
(1)48
(2)38
(3)28
(4)18
(5) 58
58. 5/8 of 4011.33 + 7/10 of 3411.22 = ?
(1) 4810
(2) 4980
(3) 4890
(4) 4930
(5) 4850
59. 23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?
(1) 6460
(2) 6420
(3) 6320
(4) 6630
(5) 6360
60. 335.01 x 244.99 + 55 = ?
(1)1490
(2) 1550
(3) 1420
(4) 1590
(5) 1400
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
61. 5531 5506 5425 5304 5135 4910 4621
(1) 5531
(2) 5425
(3) 4621
(4) 5135
(5) 5506
62. 6 7 9 13 26 37 69
(1) 7
(2) 26
(3) 69
(4) 37
(5) 9
63. 1 3 10 36 152 760 4632
(1) 3
(2) 36
(3) 4632
(4) 760
(5) 152
64. 4 3 9 34 96 219 435
(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 34
(4) 435
(5) 219
65. 157.5 45 15 6 3 2 1
(1)1
(2) 2
(3)6
(4) 157.5
(5) 45
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below.
Time taken to travel (in hours) by six vehicles on two different days
Distance covered (in kilometers) by six vehicles on each day
66. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days?
(1) Vehicle A
(2) Vehicle C
(3) Vehicle F
(4) Vehicle B
(5) None of these
67. What was the difference between the speed of vehicle A on day 1 and the speed of vehicle C on the same day?
(1)7 km/h
(2) 12 km/h
(3) 11 km/h
(4) 8 km/h
(5) None of these
68. What was the speed of vehicle C on day 2 in terms of meters per second?
(1) 15.3
(2) 12.8
(3) 11.5
(4) 13.8
(5) None of these
69. The distance travelled by vehicle F on day 2 was approximately what per cent of the distance travelled by it on day 1?
(1) 80
(2) 65
(3) 85
(4) 95
(5) 90
70. What is the respective ratio between the speeds of vehicle D and vehicle E on day 2?
(1) 15:13
(2) 17:13
(3) 13:11
(4) 17:14
(5) None of these
71. An article was purchased for ₹ 78350. Its price was marked up by 30%. It was sold at a discount of 20% on the marked up price. What was the profit per cent on the cost price?
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 3
(5) 6
72. When X is subtracted from the numbers 9,15 and 27, the remainders are in continued proportion. What is the value of X?
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5
(5) None of these
73. What is the difference between the simple and compound interest on 7300 at the rate of 6% per annum in 2 yr?
(1) ₹ 29.37
(2) ₹ 26.28
(3) ₹ 31.41
(4) ₹ 23.22
(5) ₹ 21.34
74. Sum of three consecutive numbers is 2262. What is 41% of the highest number?
(1) 301.51
(2) 303.14
(3) 308.73
(4) 306.35
(5) 309.55
75. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘THERAPY’ be arranged so that the vowels never come together?
(1) 720
(2) 1440
(3) 5040
(4) 3600
(5) 4800
Directions (Q.Nos. 76-80) Study the following pie-chart and table carefully and answer the questions given below.
Percentagewise distribution of the number of mobile phones sold by a shopkeeper during six months
Total number of mobile phones sold = 45000
The respective ratio between the number of mobile phones sold of company A and company B during six months
Month Ratio
July 8:7
August 4:5
September 3:2
October 7:5
November 7:8
December 7:9
76. What is the respective ratio between the number of mobile phones sold of company B during July and those sold during December of the same company?
(1) 119:145
(2) 116:135
(3) 119:135
(4) 119:130
(5) None of these
77. If 35% of the mobile phones sold by company A during November were sold at a discount, how many mobile phones of company A during that month were sold without a discount?
(1) 882
(2) 1635
(3) 1638
(4)885
(5) None of these
78. If the shopkeeper earned a profit of ₹ 433 on each mobile phone sold of company B during October, what was his total profit earned on the mobile phones of that company during the same month?
(1) ₹649900
(2) ₹ 645900
(3) ₹ 649400
(4) ₹ 649500
(5) None of these
79. The number of mobile phones sold of company A during July is approximately what per cent of the number of mobile phones sold of company A during December?
(1) 110
(2) 140
(3) 150
(4) 105
(5) 130
80. What is the total number of mobile phones sold of company B during August and September together?
(1) 10000
(2) 15000
(3) 10500
(4)9500
(5) None of these
Directions (Q.Nos. 81-85) Study the following information and answer the questions that follow.
The premises of a bank are to be renovated. The renovation is in terms of flooring. Certain areas are to be floored either with marble or wood. All rooms/halls and pantry are rectangular. The area to be renovated comprises of a hall for customer transaction measuring 23 m by 29 m, branch manager’s room measuring 13 m by 17 m, a pantry measuring 14 m by 13 m, a record keeping cum server room measuring 21 m by 13 m and locker area measuring 29 m by 21 m. The total area of the bank is 2000 sq m. The cost of wooden flooring is ₹ 170 per sq m and the cost of marble flooring is ₹ 190 per sq m. The locker area, record keeping cum server room and pantry are to be floored with marble. The branch manager’s room and the hall for customer transaction are to be floored with wood. No other area is to be renovated in terms of flooring.
81. What is the respective ratio of the total cost of wooden flooring to the total cost of marble flooring?
(1) 1879:2527
(2) 1887:2386
(3) 1887:2527
(4) 1829:2527
(5) 1887:2351
82. If the four walls and ceiling of the branch managers room (The height of the room is 12 m) are to be painted at the cost of ₹ 190 per sq m, how much will be the total cost of renovation of the branch manager’s room including the cost of flooring?
(1) ₹ 136800
(2) ₹ 216660
(3) ₹ 178790
(4) ₹ 211940
(5) None of these
83. If the remaining area of the bank is to be carpeted at the rate of ₹ 110 per sq m, how much will be the increment in the total cost of renovation of bank premises?
(1) ₹ 5820
(2) ₹ 4848
(3) ₹ 3689
(4) ₹ 6890
(5) None of these
84. What is the percentage area of the bank that is not to be renovated?
(1) 2.2
(2) 2.4
(3) 4.2
(4) 4.4
(5) None of these
85. What is the total cost of renovation of the hall for customer transaction and the locker area?
(1) ₹ 229100
(2) ₹ 230206
(3) ₹ 216920
(4) ₹ 242440
(5) None of these
86. A certain amount was to be distributed among A, B and C in the ratio 2:3:4 respectively, but was erroneously distributed in the ratio 7:2:5 respectively. As a result of this, B got ₹ 40 less. What is the amount?
(1) ₹ 210
(2) ₹ 270
(3) ₹ 230
(4) ₹ 280
(5) None of these
87. Rachita enters a shop to buy ice-creams, cookies and pastries. She has to buy at least 9 units of each. She buys more cookies than ice-creams and more pastries than cookies. She picks up a total of 32 items. How many cookies does she buy?
(1) Either 12 or 13
(2) Either 11 or 12
(3) Either 10 or 11
(4) Either 9 or 11
(5) Either 9 or 10
88. The fare of a bus is ₹ X for the first five km and ₹ 13 per km thereafter. If a passenger pays ₹ 2402 for a journey of 187 km, what is the value of X?
(1) ₹ 29
(2) ₹ 39
(3) ₹ 36
(4) ₹ 31
(5) None of these
89. The product of three consecutive even numbers is 4032. The product of the first and the third number is 252. What is five times the second number?
(1) 80
(2) 100
(3) 60
(4) 70
(5) 90
90. The sum of the ages of 4 members of a family 5 yr ago was 94 yr. Today, when the daughter has been married off and replaced by a daughter-in-law, the sum of their ages is 92. Assuming that there has been no other change in the family structure and all the people are alive, what is the difference in the age of the daughter and the daughter-in-law?
(1) 22 yr
(2) 11 yr
(3) 25 yr
(4) 19 yr
(5) 15 yr
91. A bag contains 13 white and 7 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that they are of the same colour?
(1) 41/190
(2) 21/190
(3) 59/190
(4) 99/190
(5) 77/190
92. Akash scored 73 marks in subject A. He scored 56% marks in subject B and X marks in subject C. Maximum marks in each subject were 150. The overall percentage marks obtained by Akash in all the three subjects together were 54%. How many marks did he score in subject C?
(1) 84
(2) 86
(3) 79
(4) 73
(5) None of these
93. The area of a square is 1444 sq m. The breadth of a rectangle is l/4th the side of the square and the length of the rectangle is thrice the breadth. What is the difference between the area of the square and the area of the rectangle?
(1) 1152.38 sq m
(2) 1169.33 sq m
(3) 1181.21 sq m
(4) 1173.25 sq m
(5) None of these
94. ₹ 73689 are divided between A and B in the ratio 4 : 7. What is the difference between thrice the share of A and twice the share of B?
(1) ₹ 36699
(2) ₹ 46893
(3) ₹ 20097
(4) ₹ 26796
(5) ₹ 13398
95. A and B together can complete a task in 20 days. B and C together can complete the same task in 30 days. A and C together can complete the same task in 40 days. What is the respective ratio of the number of days taken by A when completing the same task alone to the number of days taken by C when completing the same task alone?
(1) 2:5
(2) 2:7
(3) 3 : 7
(4) 1 : 5
(5) 3 : 5
Directions (Q.Nos. 96-100) Study the following information and answer the questions that follow.
The graph given below represents the production (in tonne) and sales (in tonne) of company A from 2006-2011.
The table given below represents the respective ratio of the production (in tonne) of Company A to the production (in tonne) of Company B, and the respective ratio of the sales (in tonne) of Company A to the sales (in tonne) of Company B.
96. What is the approximate percentage increase in the production of Company A (in tonne) from the year 2009 to the production of Company A (in tonne) in the year 2010?
(1) 18
(2) 38
(3) 23
(4) 27
(5) 32
97. The sales of Company A in the year 2009 was approximately what per cent of the production of Company A in the same year?
(1) 65
(2) 73
(3) 79
(4) 83
(5) 69
98. What is the average production of Company B (in tonne) from the year 2006 to the year 2011?
(1) 574
(2) 649
(3) 675
(4) 593
(5) 618
99. What is the respective ratio of the total production (in tonne) of Company A to the total sales (in tonne) of Company A?
(1) 81:64
(2) 64:55
(3) 71:81
(4) 71:55
(5) 81 : 55
100. What is the respective ratio of production of Company B (in tonne) in the year 2006 to production of Company B (in tonne) in the year 2008?
(1) 2:5
(2) 4:5
(3) 3:4
(4) 3:5
(5) 1:4
Section III General Awareness
101. A money deposited at a bank that cannot be withdrawn for a preset fixed period of time is known as a
(1) Term Deposit
(2) Saving Bank Deposit
(3) Current Deposit
(4) Checking Account
(5) No Frills Account
102. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges messages between banks and financial institutions is known as
(1) CHAPS
(2) SWIFT
(3) NEFT
(4) SFMS
(5) CHIPS
103. Which of the following Ministries along with Planning Commission of India has decided to set up a Corpus Fund of ₹ 500 crore, so that Tribals in Naxal-hit areas can be provided proper means of livelihood?
(1) Ministry of Rural Development
(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(4) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(5) Ministry of Finance
104. Which of the following was the issue over which India decided to vote against Sri Lanka in the meeting of one of the UN governed bodies/ agencies?
(1) Violations of human rights in Sri Lanka
(2) Allowing China to establish a military base in Indian Ocean
(3) Issue of subsidy on agricultural products in the meeting of the WTO
(4) Allowing part of Sri Lanka to become an independent country governed by LTTE
(5) Sri Lanka’s claim to become a permanent member of UN Security Council
105. The term ‘Smart Money’ refers to
(1) Foreign Currency
(2) Internet Banking
(3) US Dollars
(4) Travellers’ cheques
(5) Credit Cards
106. Which one of the following is not a ‘Money Market Instrument’?
(1) Treasury Bills
(2) Commercial Paper
(3) Certificate of Deposit
(4) Equity Shares
(5) None of these
107. Which one of the following is a retail banking product?
(1) Home loans
(2) Working capital finance
(3) Corporate term loans
(4) Infrastructure financing
(5) Export credit
108. Which of the following statements is true about political situation in Mali, where a military coup burst out recently?
(1) General elections were due there in March/April, 2012 but did not take place
(2) The country was under the control of US army since last 18 months
(3) Army of the country was not happy as Amadou Toure was made President without elections for the next five years
(4) Coup broke out in Mali when Amadou Toure, the Military Chief got seriously injured in a bomb blast
(5) NATO and its associates had planned a coup there
109. In the summit of which of the following organizations/group of nations it was decided that all members should enforce Budget Discipline?
(1) G-8
(2) OPEC
(3) European Union
(4) SAARC
(5) G-20
110. As per newspaper reports, India is planning to use ‘SEU’ as fuel in its 700 MW nuclear reactors being developed in new plants. What is full form of ‘SEU’ as used here?
(1) Safe Electrical Units
(2) Small Electrical Units
(3) Slightly Enriched Uranium
(4) Sufficiently Enriched Units
(5) Safely Enriched Uranium
111. Technological Advancement in the recent times has given a new dimension to banks, mainly to which one of the following aspects?
(1) New Age Financial Derivatives
(2) Service Delivery Mechanism
(3) Any Banking
(4) Any Type Banking
(5) Multilevel Marketing
112. When there is a difference between all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India, both capital and revenue, it is called
(1) Revenue Deficit
(2) Budgetary Deficit
(3) Zero Budgeting
(4) Trade Gap
(5) Balance of Payment Problem
113. Which of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India?
(1) Fiscal Policy Functions
(2) Exchange Control Functions
(3) Issuance, Exchange and Destruction of Currency Notes
(4) Monetary Authority Functions
(5) Supervisory and Control Functions
114. Which of the following is not required for opening a bank account?
(1) Identity Proof
(2) Address Proof
(3) Recent Photographs
(4) Domicile Certificate
(5) None of the above
115. The Golden Jubilee of Afro-Asian Rural Development Organization was organized in which of the following places in March 2012?
(1) Dhaka
(2) Tokyo
(3) Cairo
(4) Kuala Lampur
(5) New Delhi
116. What is the maximum deposit amount insured by DICGC?
(1) ₹ 200000 per depositor per bank
(2) ₹ 200000 per depositor across all banks
(3) ₹ 100000 per depositor per bank
(4) ₹ 100000 per depositor across all banks
(5) None of the above
117. The present Foreign Trade Policy of India will continue till
(1) December 2012
(2) March 2013
(3) March 2014
(4) June 2013
(5) December 2014
118. With reference to a cheque which of the following is the ‘drawee bank’?
(1) The bank that collects the cheque
(2) The payee’s bank
(3) The endorsee’s bank
(4) The endorser’s bank
(5) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn
119. In which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, can funds be moved from one bank to another and where the transaction is settled instantly without being bunched with any other transaction?
(1) RTGS
(2) NEFT
(3) TT
(4) EFT
(5) MT
120. What was the reason owing to which Enrica Lexie, an Italian ship was detained by the port authorities in Kerala and was brought to Cochin port for inspection and search?
(1) It was carrying objectionable material
(2) it was involved in sea piracy
(3) It was detained as the two crew members killed two Indian fishermen
(4) The ship started sailing without making payments of iron ore it loaded
(5) It was detained as it was dumping nuclear waste in deep sea
121. Which of the following agencies/ organizations recently gave ‘go-ahead’ verdict to India’s one of the most controversial project of inter linking rivers? (some of the rivers are international rivers)
(1) UN Food and Agriculture Organization
(2) World Meteorological Organization
(3) International Court of Justice
(4) Central Water Commission
(5) Supreme Court of India
122. Who among the following was the captain of the Australian Team which played 4 Test matches against India in January 2012 and won all of them?
(1) Ricky Ponting
(2) Michael Clarke
(3) Nathan Lyon
(4) Stuart Clark
(5) Andrew Symonds
123. The committee on review of National Small Saving Fund (NSSF) was headed by
(1) Dr. C Rangarajan
(2) Mr. U K Sinha
(3) Dr. Y V Reddy
(4) Mrs. Shyamala Gopinath
(5) Dr. Usha Thorat
124. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the business of
(1) all scheduled commercial banks excluding RRBs
(2) all scheduled commercial banks including RRBs
(3) only public sector banks
(4) all banking companies
(5) all scheduled banks except private banks
125. The 5th Asian Indoor Athletics Championship was organized in February 2012 in
(1) Bangladesh
(2) India
(3) Qatar
(4) China
(5) South Korea
126. Nationalization of banks aimed at all of the following except
(1) Provision of adequate credit for agriculture SME & exports
(2) removal of control by a few capitalists
(3) provision of credit to big industries only
(4) access of banking to masses
(5) encouragement of a new class of entrepreneurs
127. Who among the following was the Chief Guest at the three day Pravasi Bharatiya Divas function held in January 2012?
(1) Kamla Parsaa Bissessar
(2) Ram Baran Yadav
(3) Lakshmi Mittal
(4) Salman Rushdie
(5) Benjamin Netanyahu
128. Which of the following banks is headed by a woman CEO?
(1) Bank of Baroda
(2) HDFC Bank
(3) Central Bank of India
(4) Punjab National Bank
(5) ICICI Bank
129. As per revised RBI Guidelines, provision on secured portion of loan accounts classified as doubtful assets for more than one year and upto 3 (three) years is to be made at the rate of
(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 40%
(4) 25%
(5) 30%
130. As per the provisions in the Food Security Bill, 2011, per month how much food grain should be given to each person of the target group?
(1) 5 kg
(2) 7 kg
(3) 9 kg
(4) 10 kg
(5) 20 kg
131. Which of the following acts in vogue in India is against the thinking of raising school fee as per demand of the market forces?
(1) Prevention of Corruption Act
(2) Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act
(3) Sharda Act
(4) Right to Education Act
(5) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
132. Which of the following states has launched ‘Panch Parmeshwar Yojana’ under which panchayats are allowed to use the fund for developing infrastructure and basic amenities in villages?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Gujarat
(4) Madhya Pradesh
(5) Tamil Nadu
133. Base rate is the rate below which no bank can allow their lending to anyone. Who sets up this ‘Base Rate’ for Banks?
(1) Individual Banks’ Board
(2) Ministry of Commerce
(3) Ministry of Finance
(4) RBI
(5) Interest Rate Commission of India
134. National Table Tennis Championship was organized in, January 2012 in
(1) Mumbai
(2) Delhi
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Lucknow
(5) Jaipur
135. Who among the following is the author, of the book ‘Nirbasan’?
(1) Mahashweta Devi
(2) Taslima Nasreen
(3) Sunil Gangopadhyay
(4) Vikram Seth
(5) Kiran Desai
136. What is a ‘Debit Card’?
(1) It is a card issued by a Rating Agency
(2) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment even in the absence of any balance in the account
(3) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment if there is balance in the account
(4) It is a card which carries prepaid balance
(5) It is a card which can be used for making STD calls
137. Who among the following Indian Lawn Tennis player won a Doubles of Australian Open 2012?
(1) Mahesh Bhupati
(2) Kamlesh Mehta
(3) Leander Paes
(4) Sania Mirza
(5) Achanta Sarath Kamal
138. ‘Akula-irClass’K-152 Nerpa’was inducted in Indian Navy recently. These are
(1) aircrafts
(2) radar system
(3) submarines missiles
(4) warship
(5) submarines
139. Which of the following awards was conferred upon Late Mario De Miranda (Posthumously) in January 2012?
(1) Padma Vibhushan
(2) Bharat Ratna
(3) Kalidas Samman
(4) Saraswati Samman
(5) Padmashri
140. Bad advances of a Bank are called
(1) Bad debt
(2) Book debt
(3) Non Performing Asset
(4) Out of order accounts
(5) Overdrawn accounts
141. Axis Bank is a
(1) Public Sector Bank
(2) Private Sector Bank
(3) Co-operative Bank
(4) Foreign Bank
(5) Gramin Bank
142. By increasing repo rate, the economy may observe the following effects
(1) rate of interest on loans and advances will be costlier
(2) industrial output would be affected to an extent
(3) banks will increase rate of interest on deposits
(4) industry houses may borrow money from foreign countries
(5) All of the above
143. Increased interest rates, as is existing in the economy at present will
(1) lead to higher GDP growth
(2) lead to lower GDP growth
(3) mean higher cost of raw materials
(4) mean lower cost of raw materials
(5) mean higher wage bill
144. Which of the following schemes is launched to provide pension to people in unorganized sectors in India?
(1) Swabhiman
(2) Jeevan Dhara
(3) Jeevan Kalyan
(4) ASHA
(5) Swavalamban
145. The 10th Basic Ministerial Meeting on climate change was organized in February 2012 in
(1) Tokyo
(2) Beijing
(3) Manila
(4) Moscow
(5) New Delhi
146. Finance Ministry has asked the Reserve Bank of India to allow common ATM’s that will be owned and managed by non-banking entities hoping to cut transaction costs for banks. Such ATM’s are known as
(1) Black Label ATM’s
(2) Off site ATM’s
(3) Onsite ATM’s or red ATM’s
(4) Third Party ATM’s
(5) White Label ATM’s
147. Which of the following schemes of the Government of India has provided electricity to 99000 villages and total 1.7 crore households up till now?
(1) Kutir Jyoti
(2) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(3) Bharat Nirman
(4) PURA
(5) SEWA
148. Ranbir Kapoor was awarded Best Actor Award in 57th Film Fare Award function for his performance in
(1) No One Killed Jessica
(2) Stanley Ka Dabba
(3) 7 Khoon Maaf
(4) Rockstar
(5) Zindagi Na Milegi Dobara
149. An ECS transaction gets bounced and you are unable to recover your money from your customer. Under which Act criminal action can be initiated?
(1) Indian Penal Code
(2) Negotiable Instruments Act
(3) Criminal Procedure Code
(4) Payment and Settlements Act
(5) Indian Contract Act
150. Mr. Rajendra had filed a complaint with Banking Ombudsman but is not satisfied with the decision. What is the next option before him for getting his matter resolved?
(1) Write to the CMD of the Bank
(2) File an appeal before the Finance Minister
(3) File an appeal before the Banking OmbudHints and Solutionssman again
(4) File an appeal before the Dy. Governor RBI
(5) Simply close the matter as going to court involves time and money
Section IV Computer Knowledge
151. Allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited from another location.
(1) General-purpose applications
(2) Microsoft Outlook
(3) Web-hosted technology
(4) Office Live
(5) None of the above
152. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the printed page?
(1) Vertical justifying
(2) Vertical adjusting
(3) Dual centering
(4) Horizontal centering
(5) Vertical centering
153. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet?
(1) Chat
(2) Instant messaging
(3) Instanotes
(4) Electronic mail
(5) None of these
154. What is the overall term for creating editing, formatting, storing, retrieving and printing a text document?
(1) Word processing
(2) Spreadsheet design
(3) Web design
(4) Database management
(5) Presentation generation
155. Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of both _______ data, including full-motion video, high-speed Internet access, and video conferencing.
(1) video data and information
(2) voice and non-voice
(3) music and video
(4) video and audio
(5) None of the above
156. _______ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN packets to every port on the server using fake IP addresses.
(1) Cybergaming crime
(2) Memory shaving
(3) Syn flloding
(4) Software piracy
(5) None of the above
157. Which of these is a point-and-draw device?
(1) Mouse
(2) Scanner
(3) Printer
(4) CD-ROM
(5) Keyboard
158. The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the
(1) cell location
(2) cell position
(3) cell address
(4) cell coordinates
(5) cell contents
159. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a
(1) procedural language
(2) structures
(3) natural language
(4) command language
(5) programming language
160. A detailed written description of the programming cycle and the program, along with the test results and a printout of the program is called
(1) documentation
(2) output
(3) reporting
(4) spec sheets
(5) directory
161. Forms that are used to organize business data into rows and columns are called
(1) transaction sheets
(2) registers
(3) business forms
(4) sheet-spreads
(5) spreadsheets
162. In Power Point, the Header & Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group?
(1) Illustrations group
(2) Object group
(3) Text group
(4) Tables group
(5) None of these
163. A(n) ________ is a set of programs designed to manage the resources of a computer, including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory and coordinating tasks between input and output devices.
(1) application suite
(2) compiler
(3) input/output system
(4) interface
(5) operating system (OS)
164. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include
(1) photo images charts, and graphs
(2) graphs and clip art
(3) clip art and audio clips
(4) full-motion video
(5) content templates
165. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organized in rows and column is called a
(1) spreadsheet
(2) word processing document
(3) presentation mechanism
(4) database record manager
(5) EDI creator
166. In the absence of parentheses, the order of operation is
(1) exponentiation, addition or subtraction, multiplication or division
(2) addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation
(3) multiplication or division, exponentiation, addition or subtraction
(4) exponentiation, multiplication or division, addition or subtraction
(5) addition or subtraction, exponentiation, multiplication or division
167. To find the Paste Special option, you use the Clipboard group on the ______ tab of Power Point.
(1) Design
(2) Slide Show
(3) Page Layout
(4) Insert
(5) Home
168. A(n) _______ program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way.
(1) interpreter
(2) high-level
(3) compiler
(4) COBOL
(5) executable
169. Usually downloaded into folders that hold temporary Internet files, _______ are written to your computer’s hard disk by some of the Web sites you visit.
(1) anonymous files
(2) behaviour files
(3) banner ads
(4) large files
(5) cookies
170. What is the easiest way to change the phrase, revenues, profits, gross margin, to read revenues, profits, and gross margin?
(1) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(2) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(3) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(4) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(5) None of the above
171. A program, either talk or music, that is made available in digital format for automatic download over the Internet is called a
(1) wiki
(2) broadcast
(3) vodcast
(4) blog
(5) podcast
172. Which Power Point view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides?
(1) Slide Sorter
(2) Slide Show
(3) Slide Master
(4) Notes Page
(5) Slide Design
173. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called?
(1) Conductors
(2) Buses
(3) Connectors
(4) Consecutives
(5) None of these
174. What is the name given to those applications that combine text, sound, graphics, motion video, and/ or animation?
(1) Motionware
(2) Anigraphics
(3) Videoscapes
(4) Multimedia
(5) Maxomedia
175. A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless communication for notebook users is called a
(1) USB wireless network adapter
(2) wireless switch
(3) wireless hub
(4) router
(5) None of the above
176. A(n) _______ language reflects the way people think mathematically.
(1) cross-platform programming
(2) 3GL business programming
(3) event-driven programming
(4) functional
(5) None of the above
177. When entering text within a document, the Enter key is normally pressed at the end of every
(1) line
(2) sentence
(3) paragraph
(4) word
(5) file
178. When a real time telephone call between people is made over the Internet using computers, it is called
(1) a chat session
(2) an e-mail
(3) an instant message
(4) Internet telephony
(5) None of these
179. Which of the following is the first step in sizing a window?
(1) Point to the title bar
(2) Pull down the View menu to display the toolbar
(3) Point to any corner or border
(4) Pull down the View menu and change to large icons
(5) None of the above
180. Which of the following software could assist someone who cannot use their hands for computer input?
(1) Video conferencing
(2) Speech recognition
(3) Audio digitizer
(4) Synthesizer
(5) None of these
181. _______ a document means the file is transferred from another computer to your computer.
(1) Uploading
(2) Really Simple Syndication (RSS)
(3) Accessing
(4) Downloading
(5) Upgrading
182. Which computer memory is used for storing programs and data currently being processed by the CPU?
(1) Mass memory
(2) Internal memory
(3) Non-volatile memory
(4) PROM
(5) None of these
183. Computers that control processes accept data in a continuous
(1) data traffic pattern
(2) data highway
(3) infinite loop
(4) feedback loop
(5) slot
184. What refers to a set of characters of a particular design?
(1) Keyface
(2) Formation
(3) Calligraph
(4) Stencil
(5) Typeface
185. _________ is used by public and private enterprises to publish and share financial information with each other and industry analysts across all computer platforms and the Internet.
(1) Extensible Markup Language (EML)
(2) Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL)
(3) Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
(4) Sales Force Automation (SFA) software
(5) None of the above
186. Which part of the computer is used for calculating and comparing?
(1)ALU
(2) Control unit
(3) Disk unit
(4) Modem
(5) None of these
187. The method of Internet access that requires a phone line, but offers faster access speeds than dial-up is the _______ connection.
(1) cable access
(2) satellite access
(3) fiber-optic service
(4) Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
(5) modem
188. ________ software creates a mirror image of the entire hard disk, including the operating system, applications, files, and data.
(1) Operating system
(2) Backup software
(3) Utility programs
(4) Driver imaging
(5) None of these
189. What is a URL?
(1) A computer software program
(2) A type of programming object
(3) The address of a document or ‘page’ on the World Wide Web
(4) An acronym for Unlimited Resources for Learning
(5) A piece of hardware
190. What is the significance of a faded (dimmed) command in a pull-down menu?
(1) The command is not currently accessible
(2) A dialog box appears if the command is selected
(3) A Help window appears if the command is selected
(4) There are no equivalent keystrokes for the particular command
(5) None of the above
191. Your business has contracted with another company to have them host and run an application for your company over the Internet. The company providing this service to your business is called an
(1) Internet service provider
(2) Internet access provider
(3) Application service provider
(4) Application access provider
(5) Outsource agency
192. A(n) _______ allows you to access your e-mail from anywhere.
(1) forum
(2) webmail interface
(3) message board
(4) weblog
(5) None of these
193. Which of the following would you find on Linkedln?
(1) Games
(2) Connections
(3) Chat
(4) Applications
(5) None of these
194. _______ is a technique that is used to send more than one call over a single line.
(1) Digital transmission
(2) Infrared transmission
(3) Digitizing
(4) Streaming
(5) Multiplexing
195. The Search Companion can
(1) locate all files containing a specified phrase
(2) restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(3) locate all files containing a specified phrase and restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(4) cannot locate all files containing a specified phrase or restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(5) None of the above
196. Which of the following cannot be part of an e-mail address?
(1) Period (.)
(2) At sign (@)
(3) Space ()
(4) Underscore (_)
(5) None of the above
197. Which of the following must be contained in a URL?
(1) A protocol identifier
(2) The letters, www.
(3) The unique registered domain name
(4) www. and the unique registered domain name
(5) A protocol identifier, www. and the unique registered domain name
198. Which of the following information systems focuses on making manufacturing processes more efficient and of higher quality?
(1) Computer-aided manufacturing
(2) Computer-integrated manufacturing
(3) Computer-aided software engineering
(4) Computer-aided system engineering
(5) None of the above
199. A mistake in an algorithm that causes incorrect results is called a
(1) logical error
(2) syntax error
(3) procedural error
(4) compiler error
(5) machine error
200. A device for changing the connection on a connector to a different configuration is
(1) a converter
(2) a component
(3) an attachment
(4) an adapter
(5) voltmeter
Section V English Language
Directions (Q.Nos. 201-208) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
When times are hard, doomsayers are aplenty. The problem is that if you listen to them too carefully, you tend to overlook the most obvious signs of change. 2011 was a bad year. Can 2012 be any worse? Doomsday forecasts are the easiest to make these days. So, let’s try a contrarian’s forecast instead.
Let’s start with the global economy. We have soon a steady flow of good news from the US. The employment situation seems to be improving rapidly and consumer sentiment, reflected in retail expenditures on discretionary items like electronics and clothes, has picked up. If these trends sustain, the US might post better growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5-1.8% being forecast currently.
Japan is likely to pull out of a recession in 2012, as post-earthquake reconstruction efforts gather momentum and the fiscal stimulus announced in 2011 begins to pay off. The consensus estimate for growth in Japan is a respectable 2% for 2012.
The “hard-landing” scenario for China remains and will remain a myth. Growth might decelerate further from the 9% that it expected to clock in 2011, but is unlikely to drop below 8-8.5 % in 2012.
Europe is certainly in a spot of trouble. It is perhaps already in recession and for 2012, it is likely to post mildly negative growth. The risk of implosion has dwindled over the last few months -peripheral economies like Greece, Italy and Spain have new governments in place and have made progress towards genuine economic reform.
Even with some of these positive factors in place, we have to accept the fact that global growth in 2012 will be tepid. But there is a flipside to this. Softer growth means lower demand for commodities and this is likely to drive a correction in commodity prices. Lower commodity inflation will enable emerging market and central banks to reverse their monetary stance. China, for instance, has already reversed its stance and has pared its reserve ratio twice. The RBI also seems poised for a reversal in its rate cycle as headline inflation seems well on its way to its target of 7% for March, 2012.
That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend in commodities. Rising geopolitical tensions, particularly the continuing face-off between Iran and the US, might lead to a spurt in prices. It might make sense for our oil companies to hedge this risk instead of buying oil in the spot market.
As inflation fears abate and emerging market and central banks begin to cut rates, two things could happen. Lower commodity inflation would mean lower interest rates and better credit availability. This could set a floor to growth and slowly reverse the business cycle within these economies. Second, as the fear of untamed, runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global investor’s comfort levels with their markets will increase. Which of the emerging markets will outperform and who will get left behind? In an environment in which global growth is likely to be weak, economies like India that have a powerful domestic consumption, should lead; those dependent on exports should, prima facie, fall behind. Specifically for India, a fall in the exchange rate could not have come at a better time. It will help Indian exporters gain market share even if global trade remains depressed. More importantly, it could lead to massive import substitution that favours domestic producers.
Let’s now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is important not to confuse a short-run cyclical dip with a permanent de-rating of its long-term structural potential. The arithmetic is simple. Our growth rate can be in the range of 7-10% depending on policy action. 10%, if we get everything right, 7 % if we get it all-wrong. Which policies and reforms are critical to taking us to our 10% potential? In judging this, let’s again be careful. Let’s not go by the laundry list of reforms that FIIs like to wave: increase in foreign equity limits in foreign shareholding, greater voting rights for institutional shareholders in banks, FDI in retail, etc. These can have an impact only at the margin. We need not bend over backwards to appease the FIIs through these reforms – they will invest in our markets when momentum picks up and will be the first to exit when the momentum flags, reforms or not.
The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually raise our sustainable long-term growth rate. These have to come in areas like better targeting of subsidies, making projects in infrastructure viable so that they draw capital, raising the productivity of agriculture improving healthcare and education, bringing the parallel economy under the tax net, implementing fundamental reforms in taxation like GST and the direct tax code and finally easing the myriad rules and regulations that make doing business in India such a nightmare. A number of these things do not require new legislation and can be done through executive order.
201. Which of the following is not true according to the passage?
(1) China’s economic growth may decline in the year 2012, as compared to the year 2011
(2) The European Economy is not doing very well
(3) Greece is on the verge of bringing about economic reforms
(4) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive growth and thus pull out of recession
(5) All of the above are true
202. Which of the following will possibly be a result of softer growth estimated for the year 2012?
(A) Prices of oil will not increase.
(B) Credit availability would be lesser.
(C) Commodity inflation would be lesser.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) Only (B)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) Only (C)
(5) All of these
203. Which of the following can be said about the present status of the US Economy?
(1) There is not much improvement in the economic scenario of the country from the year 2011
(2) The growth in the economy of the country, in the year 2012, would definitely be lesser than 1.8%
(3) The expenditure on clothes and electronic commodities, by consumers, is lesser than that in the year 2011
(4) There is a chance that in 2012, the economy would do better than what has been forecast
(5) The pace of change in the employment scenario of the country is very slow
204. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
(1) The Economic Disorder
(2) Indian Economy Versus the European Economy
(3) Global Trade
(4) The Current Economic Scenario
(5) Characteristics of the Indian Economy
205. According to the author, which of the following would characterise Indian growth scenario in 2012?
(A) Domestic producers will take a hit because of depressed global trade scenario
(B) On account of its high domestic consumption, India will lead
(C) Indian exporters will have a hard time in gaining market share
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) Only (A)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All of these
206. Why does the author not recommend taking up the reforms suggested by FIIs?
(1) These will bring about only minor growth
(2) The reforms suggested will have no effect on the economy of our country, whereas will benefit the FIIs significantly
(3) The previous such recommendations had backfired
(4) These reforms will be the sole reason for our country’s economic downfall
(5) The reforms suggested by them are not to be trusted as they will not bring about any positive growth in India
207. Which of the following is true as per the scenario presented in the passage?
(1) The highest growth rate that India can expect is 7%
(2) The fall in the exchange rate will prove beneficial to India
(3) Increased FDI in retail as suggested by FIIs would benefit India tremendously
(4) The reforms suggested by the author require new legislation in India
(5) None of The Above is true
208. According to the author, which of the following reform/s is/are needed to ensure long term growth in India?
(A) Improving healthcare and educational facilities.
(B) Bringing about reforms in taxation.
(C) Improving agricultural productivity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) Only (B)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and(C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All of these
Directions (Q.Nos. 209-212) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
209. Draw
(1) Entice
(2) Push
(3) Decoy
(4) Attract
(5) Persuade
210. Clock
(1) Watch
(2) Achieve
(3) Time
(4) Second
(5) Regulate
211. Abate
(1) Rise
(2) Gear
(3) Hurl
(4) Lessen
(5) Retreat
212. Emerging
(1) Raising
(2) Developing
(3) Noticeable
(4) Conspicuous
(5) Uproaring
Directions (Q.Nos. 213-215) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
213. Myrida
(1) Trivial
(2) Difficult
(3) Few
(4) Effortless
(5) Countless
214. Tepid
(1) Moderate
(2) High
(3) Warm
(4) Irregular
(5) Little
215. Myth
(1) Reality
(2) Belief
(3) Contrast
(4) Idealism
(5) Falsehood
Directions (Q.Nos. 216-220) Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
A. If China is the world’s factory, India has become the world’s outsourcing centre-keeping in line with this image.
B. But, India’s future depends crucially on its ability to compete fully in the creative economy-not just in tech and software, but across design and entrepreneurship; arts, culture and entertainment; and the knowledge-based professions of medicine, finance and law.
C. While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors, India must address several challenges to increase its international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a sweeping transformation.
D. This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving from an industrial economy to a creative economy that generates wealth by harnessing intellectual labour, intangible goods and human creative capabilities.
E. Its software industry is the world’s second-largest, its tech outsourcing accounts for more than half of the $ 300 billion global industry, according to a technology expert.
F. If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication, India is rapidly becoming an economic ‘rock star’.
216. Which of the following should be the Sixth (Last) sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
217. Which of the following should be the Third sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
218. Which of the following should be the Fifth sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) F
(5) E
219. Which of the following should be the First sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) B
(3) C
(4) A
(5) E
220. Which of the following should be the Second sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
Directions (Q. Nos. 221-225) The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D, E and F as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick two correct answers, either of which will, make the sentence meaningfully complete.
221. _______before the clock struck 8 on Saturday night, India Gate was swamped with people wearing black T-shirts and holding candles.
(A) Minutes
(B) Time
(C) Later
(D) Quickly
(E) Since
(F) Seconds
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(1) (B) and (E)
(2) (1) and (C)
(3) (A) and (F)
(4) (B) and (D)
(5) (C) and (E)
222. The states should take steps to _______ the process of teachers’ appointments as the centre has already sanctioned six lakh posts.
(A) fasten
(B) move
(C) hasten
(D)speed
(E) early
(F) quicken
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(1) (D) and (F)
(2) (A) and (C)
(3) (C) and (F)
(4) (D) and (E)
(5) (B) and (D)
223. A senior citizen’s son ________ threatened her every day and physically harmed her, forcing her to transfer her property to him.
(A) superficially
(B) mistakenly
(C) allegedly
(D) miserably
(E) doubtfully
(F) purportedly
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(1) (C) and (F)
(2) (A) and (E)
(3) (C) and (E)
(4) (D) and (F)
(5) (A) and (C)
224. Medical teachers said that the management had continued to remain ________ to their cause leading to the stretching of their strike.
(A) unmoved
(B) lethargic
(C) unconcerned
(D) apathetic
(E) indifferent
(F) bored
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(1) (B) and (C)
(2) (C) and (F)
(3) (A) and (E)
(4) (A) and (D)
(5) (D) and (E)
225. The parents had approached the High Court to _______ the government order after their children, who passed UKG, were denied admission by a school.
(A) void
(B) quash
(C) annul
(D) stay
(E) lift
(F) post
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(1) (A) and (D)
(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (E)
(4) (E) and (F)
(5) (C) and (D)
Directions (Q. Nos. 226-235) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
226. The Government has asked individuals (1)/ with income of over ₹ 10 lakh to (2)/ electronic file tax returns for the year 2011-12, (3)/something which was optional till last year. (4)/ No error (5)
227. The power tariff had already (1)/ been increased twice in (2)/ the last 15 months and the Electricity Board had also (3)/ levied additional monthly charges to consumers. (4)/ No error (5)
228. Despite of curfew (1)/ in some areas, minor (2)/ communal incidents were reported (3)/ from different areas of the walled city. (4)/ No error (5)
229. This comes (1)/ at a time (2)/ when fund allocation (3)/ is been doubled. (4)/ No error (5)
230. As the prison will get (1)/ an official telephone facility soon, the prisoners (2)/ won’t have to make calls in discreet manner (3)/ through smuggled mobile phones. (4)/ No error (5)
231. The area was plunged into (1)/ darkness mid a wave of (2)/ cheering and shouting (3)/ slogans like ‘Save The Earth. (4)/ No error (5)
232. The poll contestants approached (1) / the commission complaining that the hoardings (2)/ violated the code of conduct (3)/ and influenced public perception. (4)/ No error (5)
233. The country has (1)/ adequate laws but problems (2)/ arise when these are not (3)/ implemented in letter and spirit. (4)/ No error (5)
234. The management feels that (1)/ the employees of the organisation are (2)/ non-productive, and do not want (3)/ to work hard (4)/ No error (5)
235. As far the issue of land encroachment (1)/ in villages is concerned, people will (2)/ have to make a start from their villages by (3)/ sensitising and educating the villagers this issue. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (Q. Nos 236-240) Which of the phrases (1), (2) , (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
236. US secretary of state made it clear that time running out for diplomacy over Iran’s nuclear programme and said that talks aimed at preventing Tehran from acquiring a nuclear weapon would resume in April.
(1) runs out
(2) was running out
(3) ran out
(4) run
(5) No correction required
237. While the war of the generals rage on, somewhere in small town India, wonderful things are happening, quietly and minus fanfare.
(1) rage
(2) raging
(3) rages on
(4) raged on
(5) No correction required
238. According to WWF, the small Island nation of Samoa was the first in switch off its lights for Earth Hour.
(1) first to switch off
(2) the first to switch off
(3) the first of switch off
(4) first in switch off
(5) No correction required
239. The campaign is significant because not just the youths are directly appealing to the world but because their efforts challenge the chimera of normalcy in the area.
(1) not just because
(2) just not because
(3) not just
(4) because just
(5) No correction required
240. The doctor’s association has threatened to go on indefinite strike support of their teachers.
(1) on supporting to
(2) to supporting
(3) for support
(4) in support of
(5) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos 241-250) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Greenhouse gases are only (241) of the story when it comes to global warming. Changes to one part of the climate system can (242) additional changes to the way the planet absorbs or reflects energy. These secondary changes are (243) climate feedbacks, and they could more than double the amount of warming caused by carbon dioxide alone. The primary feedbacks are (244) to snow and ice, water vapour, clouds, and the carbon cycle. Perhaps the most well (245) feedback comes from melting snow and ice in the Northern Hemisphere. Warming temperatures are already (246) a growing percentage of Arctic sea ice, exposing dark ocean water during the (247) sunlight of summer. Snow cover on land is also (248) in many areas. In the (249) of snow and ice, these areas go from having bright, sunlight-reflecting surfaces that cool the planet to having dark, sunlight-absorbing surfaces that (250) more energy into the Earth system and cause more warming.
241. (1) whole
(2) part
(3) material
(4) issue
(5) most
242. (1) raise
(2) brings
(3) refer
(4) stop
(5) cause
243. (1) sensed
(2) called
(3) nothing
(4) but
(5) term
244. (1) due
(2) results
(3) reason
(4) those
(5) because
245. (1) done
(2) known
(3) ruled
(4) bestowed
(5) said
246. (1) mastering
(2) sending
(3) melting
(4) calming
(5) increasing
247. (1) make-shift
(2) ceasing
(3) troubled
(4) perpetual
(5) absent
248. (1) dwindling
(2) manufactured
(3) descending
(4) generating
(5) supplied
249. (1) progress
(2) reduced
(3) existence
(4) midst
(5) absence
250. (1) repel
(2) waft
(3) monitor
(4) bring
(5) access
Answers
1. (5)
2. (4)
3. (2)
4. (3)
5. (4)
6. (3)
7. (1)
8. (3)
9. (2)
10. (5)
11. (1)
12. (2)
13. (2)
14. (1)
15. (1)
16. (1)
17. (5)
18. (4)
19. (1)
20. (5)
21. (3)
22. (2)
23. (5)
24. (4)
25. (1)
26. (4)
27. (4)
28. (3)
29. (5)
30. (5)
31. (1)
32. (2)
33. (5)
34. (4)
35. (2)
36. (3)
37. (4)
38. (3)
39. (3)
40. (5)
41. (1)
42. (2)
43. (4)
44. (2)
45. (1)
46. (4)
47. (5)
48. (5)
49. (5)
50. (3)
51. (4)
52. (1)
53. (2)
54. (5)
55. (2)
56. (3)
57. (2)
58. (3)
59. (5)
60. (1)
61. (1)
62. (2)
63. (4)
64. (4)
65. (1)
66. (4)
67. (3)
68. (5)
69. (5)
70. (2)
71. (1)
72. (2)
73. (2)
74. (5)
75. (4)
76. (3)
77. (3)
78. (4)
79. (5)
80. (1)
81. (3)
82. (5)
83. (5)
84. (2)
85. (1)
86. (1)
87. (3)
88. (3)
89. (1)
90. (1)
91. (4)
92. (2)
93. (4)
94. (5)
95. (4)
96. (4)
97. (2)
98. (3)
99. (5)
100. (3)
101. (1)
102. (4)
103. (1)
104. (1)
105. (5)
106. (4)
107. (1)
108. (3)
109. (3)
110. (3)
111. (2)
112. (1)
113. (1)
114. (4)
115. (5)
116. (4)
117. (3)
118. (5)
119. (1)
120. (3)
121. (5)
122. (2)
123. (4)
124. (4)
125. (4)
126. (3)
127. (1)
128. (5)
129. (5)
130. (2)
131. (4)
132. (4)
133. (4)
134. (4)
135. (2)
136. (3)
137. (3)
138. (5)
139. (1)
140. (3)
141. (2)
142. (1)
143. (3)
144. (5)
145. (5)
146. (5)
147. (3)
148. (4)
149. (4)
150. (4)
151. (2)
152. (1)
153. (3)
154. (1)
155. (2)
156. (1)
157. (1)
158. (3)
159. (5)
160. (1)
161. (5)
162. (3)
163. (5)
164. (3)
165. (1)
166. (4)
167. (5)
168. (5)
169. (5)
170. (1)
171. (4)
172. (1)
173. (2)
174. (4)
175. (1)
176. (4)
177. (2)
178. (4)
179. (1)
180. (2)
181. (2)
182. (2)
183. (3)
184. (3)
185. (2)
186. (1)
187. (5)
188. (2)
189. (3)
190. (4)
191. (5)
192. (2)
193. (2)
194. (5)
195. (1)
196. (3)
197. (4)
198. (1)
199. (2)
200. (4)
201. (5)
202. (4)
203. (4)
204. (4)
205. (1)
206. (1)
207. (2)
208. (5)
209. (4)
210. (2)
211. (4)
212. (2)
213. (3)
214. (3)
215. (1)
216. (4)
217. (5)
218. (3)
219. (4)
220. (5)
221. (3)
222. (3)
223. (1)
224. (5)
225. (2)
226. (3)
227. (4)
228. (1)
229. (4)
230. (5)
231. (2)
232. (4)
233. (5)
234. (3)
235. (1)
236. (2)
237. (3)
238. (2)
239. (1)
240. (4)
241. (2)
242. (5)
243. (2)
244. (1)
245. (2)
246. (3)
247. (4)
248. (1)
249. (5)
250. (5)
Are you interested in getting the best coaching for IBPS PO?
Join our hugely successful Online/Postal Course for cracking IBPS PO 2022
To find out more click below!