IIFT 2007 Question Paper
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SECTION – A
1. Which of the following teams secured the runner-up position in India‟s National Football League 2006- 07?
A. East Bengal Club
B. Mahindra United
C. JCT, Phagwara
D. Dempo SC
2. Which one of the following is the correct combination?
A. 1-ii, 3-i, 3-iii, 5-iv
B. 5-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 5-iii
C. 3-i, 5-ii, 2-iii, 4-iv
D. 2-i, 4-ii, 5-iii, 1-iv
3. Which of the following combination for Sahitya Academy Awards given in English literature and the Awardees is correct?
A. 1-i, 2-ii, 1-iii, 5-iv
B. 2-i, 1-ii, 3-iii, 2-iv
C. 4-i, 5-ii, 2-iii, 4-iv
D. 5-i, 3-ii, 4-iii, 1-iv
4. Which of the following film personality had received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for lifetime contribution to Indian Cinema in the year 2005?
A. Shyam Benegal
B. Mirnal Sen
C. Yash Chopra
D. Adoor Gopalakrishnan
5. Which of the combination of the Arjuna award winners are correct?
A. 5-i, 1-ii, 2-iii
B. 4-i, 3-ii, 1-iii
C. 2-i, 6-ii, 3-iii
D. 3-i, 4-ii, 5-iii
6. Which of the following chess player became India‟s second Grandmaster in world chess after Viswanathan Anand?
A. Krishnan Sasikiran
B. Pravin Thipsay
C. Dibyendu Barua
D. Abhijit Kunte
7. In the recent WTA Bank of the West Classic tennis tournament in Stanford, USA Sania Mirza won the Women‟s Doubles Title pairing up with ________.
A. Vania King
B. Shahar Peer
C. Liezel Huber
D. Bethanie Mattek
8. Match the following:
A. i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-e, v-c
B. i-d, ii-e, iii-b, iv-a, v-c
C. i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b, v-e
D. i-b, ii-c, iii-e, iv-d, v-a
9. Which of the following combination is correct?
A. Andaman Express: Chennai to Jammu Tawi
B. Gitanjali Express: Mumbai to Jammu Tawi
C. Hirakud Express: Puri to Amritsar
D. Navyug Express: Mangalore to Howrah
10. Which one of the following is not correct about Palagummi Sainath?
A. Development journalist
B. Expert on famine and hunger
C. Was a student of Delhi University
D. Grand son of former president V.V. Giri
11. Which of the following countries with their capital and currency is not correct?
12. Which of the following state –river match is correct?
13. What is common to Steve Martin and Peter Sellers?
A. Both of them have featured in the title role of Inspector Blake
B. Both of them have featured in the title role of Inspector Lynley
C. Both of them have featured in the title role of Inspector Jacques Clouseau
D. Both of them have featured in the title role of Inspector Migraet
14. From which country did India receive the highest FDI inflow during 2006-07?
A. United States of America
B. United Kingdom
15. The CEO of Arcelor at the time of its acquisition by the Ispat group was _________.
A. John M Cassaday
B. David Lev
C. Guy Dolle
D. Antonio Murta
16. Match the following:
A. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
B. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
C. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
D. a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
17. Match the right combination of the numbered boxes from the options below
A. A-Bhairavi, B-Ahir Bhairav, C-Bhairav, D- Yaman, E-Jayjaiwanti, F Chandrakauns, G- Malkauns
B. A-Bhairavi, B-Ahir Bhairav, C-Bhairav, D- Malkauns, E-Chandrakauns, F-Jayjaiwanti, G- Yaman
C. A- Bhairav, B-Ahir Bhairav, C-Bhairavi, D-Malkauns, E- Yaman, F-Jayjaiwanti, G-Chandrakauns
D. A-Ahir Bhairav, B-Bhairavi, C- Bhairav, D- Malkauns, E-Chandrakauns, F-Jayjaiwanti, G- Yaman
18. Match the following:
A. i-b-D, ii-d-A, iii-a-C, iv-c-B B. i-b-
B. ii-a-A, iii-d-C, iv-c-D
C. i-c-B, ii-d-A, iii-a-C, iv-b-D
D. i-c-D, ii-d-A, iii-a-C, iv-b-B
19. Match the following:
A. i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
B. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
C. i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
D. i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
20. With which of the following country, India currently does not have a Preferential Trade Agreement?
A. Sri Lanka
21. Match the following:
A. i-a-D, ii-b-B, iii-c-C, iv-d-A
B. i-d-C, ii-c-B, iii-a-A, iv-b-D
C. i-a-C, ii-c-B, iii-b-D, iv-d-A
D. i-b-A, ii-a-C iii-d-D, iv-c-B
22. Match the correct combination in the following:
A. i-a-E, ii-b-C, iii-c-D, iv-d-A, v-e-B
B. i-a-D, ii-b-A, iii-c-B, iv-d-C, v-e-E
C. i-a-A, ii-b-C, iii-c-E, iv-d-D, v-e-B
D. i-a-D, ii-b-E, iii-c-C, iv-d-A, v-e-B
23. State wise largest producers of following crops (in quantity) are given in descending order. Mark which is not correct combination?
24. Match the correct combination in the following:
A. i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-e, v-d
B. i-d, ii-e, iii-a, iv-c, v-b
C. i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-e, v-c
D. i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d, v-e
25. Match the correct combination in the following:
A. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
B. i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
C. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
D. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-b
26. Match the following:
A. i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b, v-e
B. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e
C. i-c, ii-d, iii-e, iv-b, v-a
D. i-e, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c, v-a
27. Who were the founders of the company Hewlett Packard (HP)?
A. Dave Hewlett and Bill Packard
B. Bill Hewlett and Dave Packard
C. Jack Hewlett and Edwards Packard
D. Edwards Hewlett and Jack Packard
28. Who won the „Asia Business Leader of the Year‟ award at the CNBC Asia Business Leaders Awards in 2006?
A. Rahul Bajaj
B. Ratan Tata
C. Anand Mahindra
D. Vijay Mallya
29. Which of the following Indian ports is a private port?
A. Bedi Bunder
SECTION – B (PART- I)
30. Mr. Bedi‟s family members went on a picnic. There were two grandfathers and four fathers and two grandmothers and four mothers in the group. There was at least one grandson or a granddaughter present in this group. There were two husband-wife pairs in this group. The single grandfather (whose wife was not present) had two grandsons and a son present in the party. The single grandmother (whose husband was not present) had two granddaughters present. A grandfather or a grandmother present with their spouses did not have any grandson or granddaughter present.
What was the minimum number of people present in this picnic group?
Directions for Questions 31-33:
i. Five girls- Seema, Reema, Neeta, Mona and Veena have total five tickets of movie theatres- Priya, Chanakya, M2K, PVR Saket, Satyam where movies – Gangster, Khiladi, Hero, Saalaam Namaste and Iqbal are currently playing. Each girl has one movie ticket of one of the five theatres.
ii. Movie Gangster is running in Priya theatre whose ticket is not with Veena and Seema.
iii. Mona has ticket of Iqbal movie.
iv. Neeta has ticket for the M2K theatre. Veena has the ticket of Satyam theatre where Khiladi is not running.
v. In PVR Saket theatre Saalaam Namaste is running.
31. Which is the correct combination of the Theatre – Girl – Movie?
A. M2K – Neeta – Hero
B. Priya – Mona – Gangster
C. Satyam – Veena – Iqbal
D. PVR Saket – Seema – Saalaam Namaste
32. Which movie is running at Chanakya?
D. Data inadequate
33. Who is having the ticket of the movie Hero?
Directions for Questions 34-36:
Director of a drama group has to assign different roles to two artistes – Paramjeet and Kamaljeet to play in a drama depending on four different symbols – @ for father, $ for wife, # for brother and * for daughter. There were four combinations decided by the director showing following results. Answer the following questions on the basis of results I, II, III, IV
I. Paramjeet @ Kamaljeet stands for Paramjeet is father of Kamaljeet
II. Paramjeet $ Kamaljeet implies Paramjeet is the wife of Kamaljeet
III. Paramjeet # Kamaljeet stands for Paramjeet is brother of Kamaljeet
IV. Paramjeet * Kamaljeet stands for Paramjeet is daughter of Kamaljeet
34. If Daljeet # Chiranjeet $ Baljeet which of the following statements is true?
A. Daljeet is the brother of Baljeet
B. Daljeet is the father-in-law of Baljeet
C. Daljeet is the father of Baljeet
D. Daljeet is the brother-in-law of Baljeet
35. If Manjeet * Chiranjeet @ Daljeet @ Baljeet, which of the following is not true?
A. Manjeet is the mother of Baljeet
B. Chiranjeet is the grandfather of Baljeet
C. Manjeet and Daljeet are siblings
D. Manjeet is the aunt of Baljeet
36. If Abhijeet # Chiranjeet * Baljeet, which of the following is not true?
A. Baljeet is the parent of Abhijeet
B. Abhijeet and Chiranjeet are siblings
C. Abhijeet is the son of Baljeet
D. Baljeet is the mother-in-law of Chiranjeet
Directions for Questions 37-40:
Each question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
A. All universities appoint experienced teachers
B. Kashi Vidyapeeth appoints experienced teachers
C. Kashi Vidyapeeth is a university
D. Some universities employ experienced teachers
E. Kashi Vidyapeeth only appoints experienced teachers.
A. Migration of people augments housing problem in urban areas.
B. Increase in housing problem in urban areas is detrimental to economic growth.
C. Migration of people is detrimental to economic growth.
D. Some migration does not cause increase in urban housing problem.
E. Some migration is not detrimental to economic growth.
A. Some drivers are drug addicted.
B. All drug addicted drivers should be terminated.
C. Driver Balbeer should be terminated.
D. Driver Balbeer is drug addicted.
E. Some drivers should he terminated.
A. No officer is a teacher.
B. Mr. Rangachary is not a teacher.
C. Mr. Rangachary is an officer.
D. Dr. Nandi is not an officer.
E. Dr. Nandi is a teacher.
Directions for Questions 41-42:
Answer the questions based on following information.
In an institute there are five identical rooms having different items in it. Every identical looking room has a name indicating its contents. The details of the contents and the name of each room are as given below.
One day somebody in the institute changed the name plate of every room such that no room contains the name correctly explaining its contents.
41. If supervisor of the institute opened a room named Biswachakra and found that one item was a bag. Which of the following would definitely be correct?
A. the other item will be a bag
B. the other item will not be a bag
C. the other room named Bagbahadur will contain a bag
D. the other item is a computer
42. If it is known that room named Purnachandra does not contain either any printer or any computer, the room named Pashupatti does not contain any printer and room named Chandrachud contains one computer and one bag, which of the following will definitely be true if only one of the remaining rooms is opened?
A. It will have at least one computer and printer
B. It will have two printers
C. It will have at least one computer
D. lt will have at least one printer
Directions for Questions 43-46:
Answer the questions based on the following information
Four persons (l) Mohit, (2) Monohar, (3) Prasant and (4) Dinesh each had some initial money with them. They all were playing bridge in a way that the loser doubles the money of each of the other three persons from his share. They played four rounds and each person lost one round in the order 1,2, 3 and 4 as mentioned above, At the end of the fourth round each person had Rs. 32000/-
43. What was the amount with Mohit to start with?
A. Rs. 60000
B. Rs. 34000
C. Rs. 66000
D. Rs. 28000
44. What was the amount with Monohar at the end of first round?
A. Rs. 68000
B. Rs. 72000
C. Rs. 64000
D. Rs. 80000
45. Who has the lowest amount at any round of play throughout the tournament?
46. What was the amount with Prasant at the end of the second round?
47. The VC (Vice-Chancellor) of a university has to select four professors, out of eight professors for a committee. The VC decided to select these four professors in such a manner that each selected professor has a habit common with at least one of the other three professors selected. The selected professors must also share at least one of the non-common habits of any of the other three professors selected.
Professor Arora likes surfing and smoking but hates gambling
Professor Bhalla likes smoking and drinking but hates surfing
Professor Chadha likes gambling but hates smoking
Professor Dhyani likes movie but hates drinking.
Professor Eswar likes drinking but hates smoking and movie
Professor Fazil likes surfing but hates smoking and movie
Professor Goyal likes gambling and movie, but hates surfing
Professor Hooda likes smoking and gambling but hates movie
Who are the four professors selected by the VC for the committee?
A. Prof. Chadha, Prof. Dhyani, Prof. Eswar, Prof. Goyal
B. Prof. Arora, Prof. Bhalla, Prof. Eswar, Prof. Fazil
C. Prof. Bhalla, Prof. Chadha, Prof. Goyal, Prof. Hooda
D. Prof. Dhyani, Prof. Eswar, Prof. Fazil, Prof Hooda
Directions for Questions 48-51:
While selecting candidates for positions of engineers, a software firm followed criteria as given below. A candidate must
i. be an engineering graduate with at least 60% marks at degree and 80% marks at higher secondary level.
ii. have at least one year’s experience of working
iii. be ready to sign a bond of three years
iv. must not be more than 28 years of age on 1.2.2007
However, if a candidate fulfils all the criteria excepta.
at (i) above but has obtained 50% marks at degree and 70% at higher secondary respectively and has at least three years experience of working, the case may be referred to the director of the firm.
b. at (ii) above, but is willing to pay an amount of 1 lakh if required to leave, the case may be referred to the president of the firm
c. at (ii) above but is a computer engineer, the case may be referred to DGM.
Based on the above criteria and the information given in each of the following cases, you have to take the decision on employing a candidate. You are not to assume anything and in the absence of adequate information, your answer will be not to be selected. The case is given to you as on 1.2.2007. The options available for you are provided in A, B. C and D.
48. Amar is a mechanical engineer with 65% marks at degree and 88% marks at HSC. He completed his engineering degree in 2003 at the age of 22 years and immediately started working in an engineering firm. He is keenly interested in going to USA and is not ready to sign a bond. However, he does not mind paying an amount of Rs. 1 lakh
A. if the case is to be selected
B. if the case is not to be selected
C. if the case is to be referred to Director
D. if the case is to be referred to President
49. Rajkishore, a computer engineer, has just completed graduation in July 2006, at the age of 23 years
obtaining 72% marks. He had obtained 92% marks in HSC. He is willing to sign a bond with the company.
He was joined a software company as trainee in August 2006 and working there till date
A. if the case is to be selected
B. if the case is not to be selected
C. if the case is to be referred to Director
D. if the case is to be referred to President
50. Madhuri is an electrical engineer and working as an assistant engineer for past two years. She had secured 85% and 69% marks at HSC and degree respectively. She has just completed 25 years of age.
A. if the case is to be selected
B. if the case is not to be selected
C. if the case is to be referred to Director
D. if the case is to be referred to President
51. Kamla is an engineering graduate with 66% marks at degree and 90% at HSC. She has joined engineering firm 2 years ago at the age of 24 years. She is ready to sign the bond.
A. if the case is to be selected
B. if the case is not to be selected
C. if the case is to be referred to Director
D. if the case is to be referred to President
Directions for Questions 52-54:
Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
There was an effort to study the relative importance that beneficiaries of five states assigned to five different development programme implemented by their governments. The programmes were Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY), Indira Awas Yozna (IAY), Mid-Day Meal (MDM), Rural Health Mission (RHM), National Rural
Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREG). The level of dissimilarity between two states is the maximum difference in the rank allotted by the two states to any five programmes. The following table indicates the rank order of the five programmes for each state.
52. Which of the following states is least dissimilar to Orissa?
53. Which of the following states is most dissimilar to Orissa?
54. Three of the following four pairs of states have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which is the odd one out?
A. Kerala & Bihar
B. Bihar & Karnataka
C. Rajasthan & Kerala
D. Karnataka & Rajasthan
SECTION – B (PART – II)
The questions in this group are based on the content of the passage. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis what is stated or implied in the passage.
Line From the very beginning TCL (Tata Chemicals Ltd.) has successfully grown by meeting consumer requirements in a mutually beneficial way. To determine its benchmark, it uses its own „Customer
Requirements Determination Process (CRDP)‟ where in it explores present and future customer requirements to enable them to
(5) incorporate those in their business offerings. This process starts with listening to end-users by exploring various customer listening information sources. This information captures various expectations of customers. Next step starts with identification of segments and matching of segment wise expectations. Outcome of this exercise gives enough guidelines about new business scopes and grey areas of current (10) business practices. After validation of customer expectations through cross checking, TCL matches its internal resources and skill sets with external opportunities and threats to address attractive business avenues. Launch of Tata Kisan Sansar was an outcome of that to offer all sort of end-to-end agri solutions to farmers.
Agriculture till today contributes a lot for the development of Indian economy with (15) an employment share of around 69 percent of the work force and with a contribution of near about 24 percent of the GDP of the country. Indian agriculture sector has its importance in economic growth but value addition in this sector in terms of earning capacity is decreasing because of greater income streams from industry and services sectors. The continuous expanding of the gap in per (20) capita income between the agricultural and non-agricultural sectors has huge economic and social implications and it is almost necessary to empower the farmers financially by enriching the source of income. In this backdrop, one of the motivations for TCL to start „Tata Kisan Sansar (TKS)’ was to ensure business by empowering agti-product producers. Again TCL felt that due to its business nature of (25) manufacturing and marketing commodities, it developed an image of a purely product centric organization. TCL’s internal research substantiated its feeling and it recognized a paradigm shift towards a customer centric organization.
TCL first started ‘Tata Kisan Kendra’ in 1988, exclusive franchised retail outlets of Tata with the objective of providing ‘one-stop agri input shop’ to the farmers. With the (30) marketing function being transferred from Rallis to Tata Chemicals. TCL used the Tata Kisan Kendras (TKKs) more extensively to market their products. It was understood by the company that the range of offerings under the TKKs offered an attractive basket of benefits to the fanners. The business model of the TKKs was based on offering a complete set of inputs to the farmer. Along with this, it also offered (35) extension services and technology inputs to help farmers plan their crops. At that time it dealt more with offering fertilizers and other inputs from those centers. Over the time it realized that the job is half done because requirements of a farmer is multi-layered. To offer a more holistic services it changed “Tata Kisan
Kendra” as „Tata Kisan Sansar‟ and repositioned it as „one-stop farmers solution shop‟ by offering entire (40) range of agri services including quality agri input products. Objective was to empower farmers by providing them information about better agronomic practices, facilitating farm credit and providing quality agri inputs from a single source.
55. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the statement in bold (Agriculture…income)?
A. The emergence of TKS is only because of the rising gap between the income from the agricultural and non-agricultural sources.
B. The farmers income can be enriched through TKS.
C. The alternate sector growth can only be curtailed through emphasis on TKS.
D. TKS can enhance agriculture’s GDP contribution.
56. As a business manager, what was not a major motivation behind using „CRDP‟ programme of TCL?
A. Ensuring sustainable competitive advantage by knowing customers in a better manner.
B. For segmenting the market into heterogeneous group of customers to serve better.
C. For estimating of gap analysis of what customer expects and TCL delivers.
D. Formulate business offerings and identification of new business scopes.
57. What would have been a wrong decision as a manager in the context of “CRDP‟ programme of TCL?
A. Using external agencies to cross check validity of information.
B. Using information to offer readymade solution for different initiatives of TCL.
C. Identify external opportunities to explore in a strategically profitable manner.
D. Projecting TCL as more customer centric organization.
58. For long term sustainability of TKS as a concept a manager should not?
A. Project TKS as a corporate social responsibility initiative of TCL.
B. Enrich offerings of TKS with value added facilities and services.
C. Position itself as a commodity retailing centre of TCL.
D. Focus on return on investment of TKS initiative.
59. Transition from TKK to TKS was logical for TCL because:
A. Conceptually there was a mismatch between skill sets of TCL and TKK.
B. TKK lost its acceptability as it became older as a concept and could not leverage first mover advantages.
C. Emerging needs sets outmoded existing value proposition of TKK.
D. Changing demographics of farmers forced TCL to add new spark in its offer.
Indian car rental market may be segmented under four broad categories.
First, the most popular segment is of a fuel conscious and mileage hungry consumer who prefers a chauffer driven car. To extract maximum benefit from hired car, consumer representing this segment wants to check credibility of car rental agency and chauffer in terms of
(5) mileage per liter of fuel that he has paid for. Consumer of this segment is very price sensitive and wants maximum value for money even if he may rent an economy car like a Tata Indica or a top end luxury limousine. This segment is dominated by unorganized players. Branded players are lagging behind to lure this segment because of their stringent service condition in comparison to unorganized players. In
(10) Indian market, organized car rental industry is crawling for the last couple of years to position itself as a most sought after option to meet segment requirements. Hertz India is also practicing the same. To position itself perfectly in the mind of the targeted segment, it has gone for multiple strategic routes to win over different segments. The major external influencing factors for the consumer in this segment may
(15) be the firm‟s marketing efforts to establish itself as a service provider with value for money.
Due to their association with renowned airlines and hotels, Hertz, to a lot of people means faith. This may help Hertz to create an impression in the mind of this segment that they will definitely not be cheated and get their value, even if it means spending a little extra. Further, it is trying to educate this segment about
(20) benefits of self-driven car as a medium of hassle-free journey by projecting a premium value for money image and with a fleet mix of compact and luxury cars (such as Ikon, Accent and Esteem).
Second, a sizable amount of people are there who usually use their own compact or three box mid size car but prefer to enjoy the riding thrill of SUV (Sports Utility
(25) Vehicles) like Ford Endeavor/Honda CRV/GM Chevrolet or a Luxury car like a Mercedes/Camry for a shorter time span. Upcoming new generations or urban executives of large corporate in India with a high disposable income and proactive to enjoy all new things in life and to make it more adventurous and eventful represent this segment. To them, renting a self-drive car and driving off to a place of their choice in a
(30) Mercedes/SUV gives them an experience similar to that of a foreign holiday. Under this same self-drive segment, another type of consumers are frequent international travelers (including foreign tourists) who prefer their privacy and independence and wish to choose their own routes/car model at the time of exploring destinations. They love their freedom & space in life where-ever they
(35) travel without any barrier like being driven by a chauffer. Equipped with their internationally accepted credit cards, an international driving permit or license, they prefer advance car rental bookings by logging on the car rental company’s website and thereafter just picking up the keys of their booked car once they enter a new country/city. They are adventurous, driving enthusiast, belonging to the upper-middle
(40) class, have brand loyalty about their car rental agency. In this self-driven segment, Hertz India is trying to position itself as a contemporary service provider by offering both economy cars and SUVs (Scorpio and Tata Safari). To win over occasional self-drivers of SUV type cars and frequent travelers, Hertz uses slogans like “Break free” or “Drive the world‟s # 1” regularly in travel magazines to portrait the quality of its cars,
(45) and the range it offers. Third segment consists of institutional consumers, mainly hotels in big cities and air service providers.
Institutional consumers prefer quality and service assurance to offer maximum possible service to their customers. In India, all big car rental agencies have contract with star hotels to offer rental service to them. In this segment, Hertz has contract with star hotels to offer rental service to them. In this segment, Hertz has
(50) prominent clienteles like Taj Group of Hotels, Marriott and Jet Airways. Further, they have contract with hotels like Shangrila in Delhi, and Renaissance and JW Mariott in Mumbai to provide all car rental requirements of them. Their other clients are Carlson Wagonlit, BTI Sita, Thomas Cook and online travel sites like Makemytrip, Indiatimes and Travelguru. According to their deal with Jet Airways, it allows Jet
(55) Privilege members to earn „miles‟ every time they use Hertz car rental service. For every Rs. 1000/- spent on Hertz rentals, a Jet privilege member earns 100 JP Miles and special discounts are given to platinum, gold and silver card holders.
In recent past „fleet management‟ is coming up as a possible fourth target segment for car rental companies in
India. Worldwide cars are not purchased but only leased and
(60) this trend is getting its root in Indian market als. It means the management of a fleet of vehicles, using certain tools, to improve operational efficiency and effectiveness. To win over consumers of this segment, services should be professional and a fleet management company should address all the issues a company might deal with pertaining to managing its fleet. In India, LeasePlan Fleet Management
(65) India (LPFM), the wholly-owned subsidiary of LeasePlan Corporation, Netherlands is pioneer in this field. Orix Auto and Business Solutions, is also present in this segment, Hertz is focusing more on car rentals than on fleet management. Though it provides chauffeur-driven cars to many companies like
IBM, Sony, KPMG, Compaq, there is a huge scope in this segment for future growth. This segment demands
(70) customized service in terms of vehicle acquisition, fuel management, vehicle financing and maintenance, resale of the cars at the end of the contract period etc.
60. The primary purpose of this passage is to:
A. Illustrate how Hertz could plan for the Indian market and maximize profits
B. Illustrate buying behavior of unorganized sectors offering car rental services
C. Illustrate segment opportunities for a new entrant in car rental business
D. Illustrate consumer awareness and views about options available in car-rental business in India
61. „Self-Drive‟ concept may be a lucrative option to a manager to lure Indian consumers because:
A. Collectivist culture motivates Indian consumers to opt for self drive
B. Indian roads encourage consumers to experience joy of long drive
C. Indians may enjoy driving comfort of SUV as they don‟t have capacity to own it
D. A sizeable number of Indian consumers aspire to enjoy new things in life
62. As a business manager of a car-rental company, you may popularize „self-drive‟ concept to international travellers because:
A. They know Indian roads and want to explore new places by their own
B. They dislike concept of chauffeur as Indian chauffeurs are not very professional
C. Individualistic culture discourages them to travel in group
D. They can easily book their cars through website of car rental agencies
63. As a business manager of a globally recognised „car-rental‟ agency if you like to tap institutional consumers of India, you should not:
A. Bank on your globally recognized „brand name‟ to ensure sale
B. Make a list of your global clientele to impress your prospective customer
C. Consider offerings of your competitors to formulate your value proposition
D. Accept service assurance not as a major influencer behind buying decision
64. As a business manager you think „fleet management‟ a profitable segment for organized sector to explore in India because:
A. Companies want to associate with „brand name‟ and unorganized players are lacking here
B. There is a huge scope as competition is low in this field
C. Everywhere in India logistics services are outsourced and companies are focusing on their core business
D. This business demands gamut of customized services and organized professionals may only offer those
65. If you are to tap „first‟ segment of „car rental‟ business as a manager of a branded company, you should not:
A. Advertise your brand name to communicate with consumers
B. Compare your service conditions vis-a-vis your competitors to influence consumers
C. Match price of your service with your competitors from organized sector
D. Create unique value proposition to position you away from your competition
SECTION – C (PART – I)
66. The value of
67. Mr. Jeevan wanted to give some amount of money to his two children, so that although today they may not be using it, in the future the money would be of use to them. He divides a sum of Rs.18,750/- between his two sons of age 10 years and 13 years respectively in such a way that each would receive the same amount at 3% p.a. compound interest when he attains the age of 30 years. What would be the original share of the younger son?
69. There are 2 men, 3 women and 1 child in Pradeep‟s family and 1 man, 1 woman and 2 children in Prabhat‟s family. The recommended calorie requirement is- Men: 2400, Women: 1900, Children: 1800 and for proteins is: Men: 55gm, Woman: 45 gm, Children: 33gm. Calculate the total requirement of calories and proteins for each of the two families.
70. x1, x2, x3…x50 are fifty real numbers such that xr < xr=l for r = 1, 2, 3…49. Five, numbers out of these are picked up at random. The probability that the five numbers have x20 as the middle is:
D. None of these
71. Suppose q is the number of workers employed by Ltd. for one of its projects. The average cost of
production c is given by c = 1/3 𝑞2 + 5/2 𝑞 − 150 + 75/𝑞 . In the interest of the company, it should employ __________workers.
D. None of these
B. 3 1/10
C. 3 1/10
D. none of these
73. Pawan retires at the age of 60 years and his employer gives him a pension of Rs.3600/- a year paid in half yearly installments for the rest of his life. Assuming life expectancy in India is 70 years and interest is 6% per annum payable half yearly, determine the present value of the pension. [Given,(103)-20 = 0.55362]
A. 26, 728.50
B. 27, 782.80
C. 26, 744.40
D. 26, 782.80
74. The value of the expression 7777 + 7777 × 7777 × (5 ÷ 77) × (11 ÷ 35) is:
D. none of these
75. For constructing the working class consumer price index number of a particular town, the following weights corresponding to different group of items were assigned:
Food-55, Fuel-15, Clothing-10, Rent-8 and Miscellaneous-12
It is known that the rise in food prices is double that of fuel and the rise in miscellaneous group prices is double that of rent In October 2006, the increased D.A. by a factory of that town by 182% fully compensated for the rise in prices of food and rent but did not compensate for anything else. Another factory of the same locality increased D.A. by 46.5%, which compensated for the rise in fuel and miscellaneous groups.
Which is the correct combination of the rise in prices of food, fuel, rent and miscellaneous groups?
A. 320.14, 159.57, 95.64, 166.82
B. 317.14, 158.57, 94.64, 189.28
C. 311.14, 159.57, 90.64, 198.28
D. 321.14, 162.57, 84.46, 175.38
76. IBM-Daksh observes that it gets a call at an interval of every 10 minutes from Seattle, at every 12 minutes from Arizona, at the interval of 20 minutes from New York and after every 25 minutes it gets the call from Network. If in the early morning at 5:00 a.m. it has received the calls simultaneously from all the four destinations, then at which time it will receive the calls at a time from all places on the same day?
A. 10:00 a.m.
B. 3:00 a.m.
C. 5:00 p.m.
D. both (a) and (b)
77. LG Electronics finds that it can sell x television per week at Rs. P each where 𝑝 = 2( 100 − 𝑥/4) . The cost of production of x television per week is Rs. (120𝑥 + 𝑥2/2) . Find it‟s maximum profit per week.
Directions for questions 78-79:
Space Institute, which is involved in training and helping students prepare for Management Institute Entrance Exams, was established on January 1, 2004 with 3, 4, 5 and 6 faculty members in the Logical Reasoning (LR), Data Interpretation (DI), English Language and Quantitative Analysis (QA) areas respectively, to start with. No faculty member retired or joined the institute recruited faculty members in each of the four areas. All these new faculty members who joined the institute subsequently over the years were 25 years old at the time of joining the institute. All of them joined the institute on April 1. During these four years, one of the faculty members retired at the age of 60. The following table gives the area-wise average age (in terms of number of completed years) of faculty members as on April1 of 2004, 2005, 2006 and 2007.
78. In which year did the new faculty member join the as the faculty of Engllish?
79. Professor Sharma and Professor Verma, two faculty members in the LR area, who have been with the Institute since its inspection, share a birthday, which falls on 30th November. One was born in 1951 and the other in 1954. On April 1, 2009 what would be the age of the third faculty member, who has been in the same area since inception?
Directions for question 80-81:
TT School of Management is a management institute involved in teaching, training and research. Currently it has 37 faculty members. They are involved in three jobs: teaching, training and research. Each faculty member working with TT School of Management has to be involved in atleast one of the three jobs mentioned above:
• A maximum number of faculty members are involved in training. Among them, a number of faculty members are having additional involvement in the research.
• The number of faculty members in research alone is double the number of faculty members involved in all three jobs.
• 17 faculty members are involved in teaching.
• The number of faculty members involved in teaching alone is less than the number of faculty members involved in the teaching are also involved in at least one more job.
After some time, the faculty members who were involved in all the three tasks were asked to withdraw from one task. As a result, one of the faculty members each opted out of teaching and research, while remaining ones involved in all the three tasks opted out of training. Which one of the following statements, then necessarily follows:
A. The least number of faculty members is now involved in teaching.
B. More faculty members are now associated with training as compared to research.
C. More faculty members are now involved in teaching as compared to research.
D. None of the above.
81. Based on the information given above, the minimum number of faculty members involved in both training and teaching, but not in research is:
82. Gujarat Fisheries processes two kinds of prawns, P1 and P2, before exporting. The profit margin is Rs.20/kg on the P1 variety and Rs.30/kg on the P2 variety. The prawn must be processed and dried on dryer A and on dryer B. The processing time per kg of prawn on the two dryers is as follows:
The total time available for using Dryer A is 700 hours and on Dryer B is 1250 hours. Among the following production plans, which of the following combination meets the machine availability constraints and maximizes the profit?
A. P1 75 kg, P2 80 kg
B. P1 100 kg, P2 60 kg
C. P1 50 kg, P2 100 kg
D. P1 60 kg, P2 90 kg
D. None of these
84. If α, β, γ and δ be four angles of a cyclic quadrilateral, then the value of cosα + cosβ + cosγ + cosδ is:
D. None of these
85. The following data represent the age of husband (y) and wife (x) for 10 couples:
i. What is the predicted age of husband when age of wife is 23?
ii. What is the predicted age of wife when age of husband is 35?
A. 35.735 and 29.389
B. 31.76 and 31.334
C. 37.223 and 29.389
D. None of these
86. At the end of the year 2002, Rajoria Institute of Management (RIM) had conducted 108 Management Development Programmes (MDP). Henceforth, every year the institute added p% of the MDP topics at the beginning of the year and discarded q% of the outdated MDP topics at the end of the year, where p > 0 and q > O. If RIM scheduled 108 MDP programmes at the end of the year 2006, which one ofihe following is true?
A. p = q
D. ? =
87. The digging work of the DMRC on the Adchini-Andheriamore stretch requires Twenty-four men to complete the work in sixteen days. As a part of the task if DMRC were to hire Thirty-two women, they can complete the same work in twenty-four days. Sixteen men and sixteen women started working and worked for twelve days. Due to time bound schedule the work had to be completed in remaining 2 days, for which how many more men are to be employed?
88. Sumit works as a state contractor for PWD and supplies bitumen mix for road construction. He has two varieties of bitumen, one at Rs.42per kg and the other at RS.25 per kg. How many kg of first variety must Sumit mix with 25 kg of second variety, so that he may, on selling the mixture at 40 kg, gain 25% on the outlay?
D. None of these
89. The Ghaziabad-Hapur-Meerut EMU and the Meerut-Hapur-Ghaziabad EMU start at the same time from Ghaziabad and Meerut and proceed towards each other at 16km/hr and 21km/hr, respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has traveled 60 km more than the other. The distance between two stations is:
A. 445 km
B. 444 km
C. 440 km
D. 450 km
90. Ashok a master adulterator cum grosser sells haldi powder (turmeric powder), which contains five percent saw dust. What quantity of pure haldi should be added to two kilos of haldi (containing five percent saw dust) so that the proportion of saw dust becomes four percent?
A. 1 kg.
B. 2 kgs
C. 0.5 kg.
D. None of these
SECTION – C (PART – II)
91. The third highest average annual export growth over the entire period (1999-2005) has been experienced by:
92. Which of the following statement is not true?
A. During 1999-2000, Myanmar registered the highest annual export growth
B. India witnessed second highest annual export growth rate during 2003-04.
C. Cambodia registered third highest annual export growth rate during 2001-02.
D. The change in Thailand‟s export growth rate from 2000-01 to 2001-02 was more than 10 percent.
93. Which of the following statement is not false?
A. South Korea registered the third lowest export growth rate during the year 2000-01.
B. The sum of the export growth of India and Vietnam during 2001-02 is lower than the export growth rate of China during that particular year.
C. Myanmar witnessed maximum number of years of positive export growth rate during the entire period.
D. The difference between the export growth rate of China and Japan during 2004-05 was lower than the export growth rate of Vietnam during that particular year.
94. If we calculate the difference between the highest and the lowest average annual growth rate experienced by the countries between 1999-00 and 2004-05, _________ would get the second rank among all countries.
A. South Korea
95. If we calculate the difference between the highest and the lowest average annual export growth rate experienced by the countries year-wise, the difference would be minimum during _________.
96. Which of the following statement is false?
A. Average annual levels of SO2 emission for Pondichery over 1998-2003 is approximately 51.40 μg/m3.
B. Average annual levels of SO2 emission for Anpara over 1997-2003 is approximately 48.24 μg/m3.
C. Average annual levels of SO2 emission for Madras over 1999-2003 is approximately 25.02 μg/m3.
D. Average annual levels of SO2 emission for Yamuna Nagar during 1997-2003 is approximately23.74 μg/m3.
97. If the highest average level of SO2 emission among the given cities is noted year-wise, then their difference would be maximum for the following pair of years:
A. 1998 and 2003.
B. 1997 and 2001.
C. 1997 and 2003.
D. 1998 and 2002.
98. Which of the following statement is true?
A. Bangalore in 2003 registered the lowest level of SO2 emission in relation to the given dataset.
B. The difference between the average annual level of SO2 emission during 1997-2003 for Pondichery and Gajroula is lower than the corresponding average annual level for Mysore.
C. The average annual level of SO2 emission during 1997-2000 for Faridabad is higher than the average annual level for the city for the entire period (1997-2003).
D. The sum of the average annual level of SO2 emission during 1997-2003 for Bombay and Calcutta is lower than the corresponding average annual level for Anpara.
99. If the SO2 emission level change for the given cities is noted year-wise, the difference would be maximum for which of the following option?
A. Cochin and Pondichery during 1999-2000.
B. Calcutta and Nagda during 1998-1999.
C. Madras and Anpara during 2001-2002.
D. Nagda and Pondichery during 1997-98.
100. Which of the following statement is true?
A. While for Anpara, the SO2 annual emission level declined consistently during 2000-2001 and 2002-2003, the same increased consistently for Yamuna Nagar between 1998-99 and 2001-02.
B. During 2002-2003, the SO2 annual emission level declined for maximum number of cities.
C. The absolute decline in annual SO2 emission level in for Bombay during 1997-1998 was lower than the corresponding figure for Faridabad during 2000-2001.
D. The number of cities which experienced a decline in their annual SO2 emission level during 1999- 2000 was more than the corresponding figure during 1998-1999.
101. Which of the following statement is not false?
A. Between 2003-04 and 2004-05, the average no. of workers per factory increased for industries B and C, but decreased for A.
B. The percentage change in no. of workers between 2003-04 and 2004-05 is higher in industry A than industry E.
C. The average no. of workers per factory between industries D and E jointly increased by more than corresponding figure for B.
D. The average no. of workers per factory for factory C decreased between 2003-04 and 2004-05 by 6.
102. Which of the following statement is true?
A. The increase in invested capital per worker for industries B and D over the period is jointly higher than the same for E.
B. The invested capital per worker has remained second highest for industry D both between 2003- 04 and 2004-05.
C. The working capital per worker has been highest for industry B during 2003-04 but not the lowest during 2004-05.
D. The working capital to worker ratio has declined by more than 50 percent in case of industry A over the period, but by less than 50 percent for industry B.
103. Which of the following statement is false?
A. Working capital to invested capital ratio has been second highest for industry E during 2004-05.
B. Industry C is the only industry for which the net value added to total input ratio has increased between 2003-04 and 2004-05.
C. If average wage rate is defined by total wage bill divided by number of workers, then for a total number of three industries, average wage rate declined between 2003-04 and 2004-05.
D. Net value added to total input ratio has been highest for industry B during 2004-05.
104. If gross fixed capital formation is defined as net fixed capital formation plus depreciation, then which of the following Statement is true?
A. Gross fixed capital formation has been third highest for industry C during 2004-05.
B. Gross fixed capital formation is the lowest for industry E during 2003-04.
C. The increase in gross fixed capital formation between 2003-04 and 2004-05 for industry D is higher than the sum total of the same for industries C and E.
D. The increase in average depreciation per factory between 2003-04 and 2004-05 has been second highest for industry D.
105. Which of the following Statement is false?
A. Average profit per factory is second highest for industry A during 2003-04 but lowest during 2004-05.
B. Average profit earned per unit of input cost incurred is second highest for industry A and C between 2003-04 and 2004-05.
C. The average profit to the number of workers ratio is second highest for industry D both between 2003-04 and 2004-05.
D. The increase in average expenditure on input per factory between 2003-04 and 2004-05 has been highest for industry D.
106. If the region-wise increase in the export growth rate of the three industries during 2003-04 is noted, __________ would be ranked second.
A. Intra-North American iron and steel export.
B. Intra-Europe iron and steel export.
C. Intra-Asia chemicals export.
D. None of the above.
107. If the region-wise decline in the export growth rate of the three industries during 2004-05 is noted, __________ would be ranked second.
A. Intra-Europe automotive parts export.
B. Intra-Europe iron and steel export.
C. Intra-Asia chemicals export.
D. Europe to Asia chemicals export.
108. The difference between the highest and the lowest average export growth rate during 2005 among all three industries and regions is:
A. 40 percent.
B. 33 percent.
C. 29 percent.
D. None of the above.
109. If the region-wise average export growth rates of the three industries are analyzed, __________ would be ranked second.
A. Intra-Asia average export of chemicals during 2003-05.
B. Intra-Europe average export of iron and steel during 2004-05.
C. Intra-Asia average export of automotive part during 2003-05.
D. Intra-North America average export of iron and steel during 2003-05.
110. During 2003-04, which pair of developed and developing countries registered the highest growth rate in their number of FDI outflow projects?
A. France, India
B. France, Singapore
C. Japan, Singapore
D. UK, India
111. An analysis of the annual FDI projects inflow growth rate reveals that the second largest decline has occurred for _________ during ________.
A. India, 2004-05.
B. Russian Federation, 2003-04.
C. China, 2004-05.
D. Germany, 2004-05.
112. The absolute difference between Singapore‟s highest growth rate in number of FDI projects inflow in a single year during 2002-05 and UK‟s highest growth rate in FDI projects outflow in a single year during the same period is:
A. 19.28 percent.
B. 15.28 percent.
C. 21.26 percent.
D. None of the above.
113. Which of the following statement is true?
A. The growth rate of FDI projects inflow in UK was lower than the same in Japan during 2002-03.
B. The average FDI projects inflow growth rate in Germany between 2002-03 and 2004-05 has been higher than its average FDI projects outflow growth rate over the same period.
C. The growth rate in FDI projects outflow from the US during 2002-03 has been higher than the corresponding figure for France.
D. The growth rate in FDI projects inflow to the UK during 2003-04 has been lower than the corresponding figure for Japan.
114. Which of the following statement is false?
A. The growth rate of FDI projects outflow from the developed countries during 2004-05 has been lower than the same for the world as a whole.
B. The growth rate of FDI projects inflow to Singapore during 2003-04 has been higher than the same for South Korea during 2004-05.
C. The average growth rate of FDI projects inflow from developing countries between 2002-03 and 2004-05 has been higher than their corresponding figure for FDI projects outflow.
D. The growth rate of FDI projects inflow to Singapore during 2004-05 has been more negative as compared to the corresponding figure for Russian Federation during 2003-04.
115. Which of the following statement is true?
A. The average growth fate of FDI projects outflow from India between 2002-03 and 2004-05 has been higher than it‟s corresponding figure for FDI project inflow.
B. The average growth rate of FDI project outflow from Germany between 2002-03 and 2004-05 has been lower than the average growth rate of FDI project inflow to South Korea over the same period.
C. The average absolute FDI project outflow from the UK during 2002-05 has been higher than the average absolute FDI project inflow to India over the same period.
D. Germany is the only country which did not experience a decline in FDI project outflow during 2002-05.
116. Which of the following statement is false?
A. The average FOI project outflow from South Korea expressed as a percentage of the total FDI project outflow from the developing countries during 2002-05 was higher than the average FDI project inflow to the UK expressed as a percentage of the FDI project inflow to the developed countries during the same period.
B. The FD1 project outflow from the US expressed as a percentage of the total FDI project outflow from the developed countries in 2002 was higher than the FDI project inflow to China expressed as a percentage of the FDI project inflow to the developing countries in 2004.
C. The average FDI project outflow from Germany expressed as a percentage of the total FDI project outflow from the developed countries during 2002-05 is higher than the average FDI project inflow to Russian Federation expressed as a percentage of the FDI Project inflow to the developing countries during the same period.
D. The FDI project outflow from India expressed as a percentage of the total FDI project outflow from the developing countries in 2004 is lower than the FDI project inflow to the US expressed as a percentage of the FDI project inflow to the developed Countries in 2003.
SECTION – D (PART – I)
Directions for Questions 117-128:
Read the three passages carefully and answer the questions given at the end of each passage:
Passage – 1
The trouble started on May 4, 2004, only days after Google‟s celebrated coming out party. Geico, the giant automobile insurer, filed a lawsuit against the search engine for trademark infringement. The insurer claimed that Google‟s advertising system unlawfully profited from trademarks that Geico owned. Since all of Google‟s revenue and growth was from advertising, the disclosure of the lawsuit appeared ominous. “We are, and may be in the future, subject to intellectual property rights claims, which are costly to defend, could require us to pay damages, and could limit our ability to use certain technologies,” Google disclosed in a public filing outlining potential risks. Abroad, where Google had promising growth prospects, similar court challenges also arose. “A court in France held us liable for allowing advertisers to select certain trademarked terms as keywords,” the company declared. “We have appealed this decision. We were also subject to two lawsuits in Germany on similar matters.”
To make matters worse, it turned out that prior to its IPO filing, Google had eased its trademark policy in the U.S., allowing companies to place ads even if they were pegged to terms trademarked and owned by others. That was a significant shift, and one. Google warned could increase the risk of lawsuits against the company. It was also a practice that Yahoo, its search engine rival, did not permit. Google claimed it made the policy change to serve users, but some financial analysis said it appeared designed to pump profits before the IPO.
And there was more. Competition from Yahoo and Microsoft posed a greater challenge to Google following the disclosure about its mammoth profitability. With so much money at stake, the intensity of the competition would heat up. Such competition might be good for computer users searching the Internet, but
Google said it posed additional risk for potential shareholders, “If Microsoft or Yahoo are successful in providing similar or better Web search results compared to ours or leverage their platforms to make their Web search services easier to access than ours, we could experience a significant decline in user traffic,” the company disclosed. In addition, Google warned that its momentum seemed unsustainable due to competition and “the inevitable decline in growth rates as our revenues increase to a higher level.”
Then there was the question of Google‟s exclusive reliance on advertising, and one particular type of advertising, for all of its revenue. That was potentially quite problematic. If Yahoo or Microsoft gained ground on search, users could flock to their Web sites, and advertisers could follow. “The reduction in spending by; or loss of, advertisers could seriously harm our business,” the company disclosed in its SEC filing.
In the beginning, the firm earned all of its money from ads triggered by searches on Google.com. But now, most of its growth and half of its sales were coming primarily from the growing network of Web sites that displayed ads Google provided. This self-reinforcing network had a major stake in Google’s successful future.
It gave the search engine, operating in the manner of a television network providing ads and programming to network affiliates, a sustainable competitive advantage. But there was a dark side there too, because of the substantial revenue from a handful of Google partners, notably America Online and the search engine Ask Jeeves. If at any point they left Google and cut a deal with Microsoft or Yahoo, the lost revenue would be immense and difficult to replace. “If one or more of these key relationships is terminated or not renewed, and is not replaced with a comparable relationship, our business would be adversely affected,” the company stated.
Google’s small, nonintrusive text ads were a big hit. But like major television and cable networks, which were hurt by innovations that enabled users to tune out commercials, the company faced the risk that users could simply turn ads off if new technologies emerged.
Going public also posed a potentially grave risk to Google’s culture. Life at the Googleplex was informal. Larry and Sergey knew many people by their first names and still signed off on many hires. With rapid growth and an initial public offering, more traditional management and systems would have to be implemented. No more off-the-shelf software to track revenue on the cheap. Now it was time for audits by major accounting firms. As Google’s head count and sales increased, keeping it running without destroying its culture was CEO Eric Schmidt’s biggest worry.
Google, the noun that became a verb, had built a franchise and a strong brand name with global recognition based entirely on word of mouth. Nothing like it had been done before on this scale. The Internet certainly helped. But Google’s profitability would erode if the company were forced to begin spending the customary sums of money on advertising and marketing to maintain the strength of its brand awareness. Marketing guru
Peter Sealey said privately that the advice he gave Google to study consumer perception of the Google brand was rejected by the company and that they were unwilling to spend money on marketing.
117. Which of the following statement is true?
A. Google’s growing popularity has been a threat to other players operating in that market segment like Yahoo and Ask Jeeves, as Google eroded their market share.
B. According to Google its decision to considerably relax its industrial design policy in the US was geared to satisfy its clients.
C. One of the major challenges for Peter Sealey has been to expand the Google Empire while keeping its existing internal work culture intact.
D. Google’s business potential is likely to be threatened seriously if the capacity, accessibility and quality of the Web search offered by its competitors like Microsoft or Yahoo becomes superior than the same offered by it.
118. Which of the following Statement is false?
A. Google has been potentially vulnerable to external competition owing to its exclusive reliance on advertising for resource generation.
B. By writing the “the noun that became a verb”, the author indicates the growing popularity of the search engine.
C. “Non-intrusive” in the current passage refers to the advertisement format that does not directly hamper or distract the flow of operation of the person working in the computer.
D. The legal dispute between Google and the automobile giant Geico during May 2004 centered on the advertising system and the trademark policy adopted by the latter.
119. What conclusion can you form about „Altavista’ from the passage?
A. It has been a partner of Google.
B. It has been a Competitor of Google.
C. It cannot be concluded from the passage.
D. It was a partner of Google initially, but later emerged as a major competitor.
120. Which of the following sentence is false?
A. Google has not been keen to undertake any major analysis on the popular impression about the Google brand.
B. Google’s resolution to provide the search engine and programming to collaborators like America
Online ensured significant revenue for both sides involved.
C. Google’s perceived concern over Intellectual Property issues in the passage has been quoted from a confidential company report.
D. With increase in the volume of Google’s total annual revenue, it was anticipated by the management that the annual growth rate of their business may decline.
Around the turn of the century; an interesting trend was slowly becoming prominent in retailing across the globe. Department stores were slowly becoming less and less popular with customers. Large department stores offered a wide range of product categories – from apparel, luggage, toys, crockery, to home furnishing – as well as owned and managed the stock of products they sold inside the store and from their warehouses.
Industry analysts stared questioning whether this could still be the ideal retail model, and whether the changing retail environment marked the end of large department stores as we knew them.
On one side there were the stores that focussed on a particular category – electronics, toys, women’s wear or home appliances. Over the years, these had evolved into giant superstores and had become very popular with customers who went shopping for a particular product. On the other hand, there were discounters, hypermarkets and wholesale clubs that served the bargain-hunting customer very well. Department stores were squeezed in between and the new age shoppers found their ambience to be formal and boring.
To keep pace with these trends, some department stores were steadily reinventing themselves. The most prominent among them was UK based Selfridges chain. In 2003, Selfridges launched a new store in Birmingham, England that completely reinvented the idea of the department store. Brands competed with each other within the store bur there was no hierarchy of goods: watches competed with perfume, and luggage with fashion. In addition the store organised various shows, stunts and performances through the day and called it, ‘shopping entertainment.’ Similar stores had come up in various parts of Southeast Asia, Japan and Europe. For customers, these new-age department stores seemed like a mall, just that they didn’t have the walls that separate the different stores within a mail.
While this trend was becoming more and more apparent abroad, within India too, certain consumer patterns were emerging. Our experience showed that a customer visiting a mall typically walks into four or five stores. That includes a large store and a few smaller brand showrooms. After that fatigue sets in and he or she is unwilling to walk into any more stores at the mall. So we asked ourselves, what would happen if we removed the walls between the different stores in a mall? In that case, a customer would be exposed to multiple brands at the same time, without the necessity of walking in and out of different stores. And along with shopping we could also provide her with other entertainment options. Within the company itself there was a renewed confidence and an urge to play a larger role in shaping the modern retailing space in India. We had completed more than six years in retailing. With Big Bazaar we had tried and tested our skills at offering a wide range of categories while Pantaloons was firmly positioned in the lifestyle segment. We could now create shopping and entertainment landmarks in the cities in which we had already established a strong presence.
These three insights – the metamorphosis of department stores into developed markets; customer fatigue at the existing shopping malls in India; and the need to create destination malls in Indian cities – formed the genesis of the next format we started working on, Central. The objective was to create a retail format that was much larger and totally different from what India had seen till then. It would offer everything – from multiple brands for shopping, to restaurants, coffee shops, entertainment options and gaming zones – all under one roof. If we were able to deliver on these two fronts, we could attract customers from every part of the city and make it the city’s prime shopping destination.
There were a couple of other issues that the Central model addressed quite well. Pantaloons outlets had limited space. We were positioning it as a fashion destination and the business model was based on selling mostly brands that we owned, or what are called private labels. However, with its increasing popularity; we were being approached by multiple foreign and Indian brands to stock these at Pantaloons. Central, being far bigger in size allowed us to open up a lot of space for other brands. However, unlike in any other mall, these brands didn’t pay us rent. Instead the brands paid us a certain percentage of their sales in the mall as commission. Based on the performance of these brands, we could decide on which to keep and which to discard.
The first Central mall was launched in Bangalore in May 2004. Measuring 1,20,000 square feet, it was spread over six floors and housed over three hundred brands in categories like apparel, footwear, accessories, home furnishing, music and books. In addition we had coffee shops, food courts, a Food Bazaar, restaurants, pubs and discotheques. A customer could also book tickets for movies and concerts, book travel tickets and make bill payments.
What has primarily made Central the ‘destination mall’ for Bangalore is its location. It is located in the heart of the city, at M.G. Road, where once Hotel Victoria stood. Moreover, we added a lot of features to further establish it as the focal point of the city. The Central Square located outside the mall building has been made available for art exhibitions, cultural performances, shows and product launches. And in 2005, the vintage car rally was flagged off from the Central flag-point, which has since become the epicentre for many such events. Thus, Central captured in all its glory what we wanted a destination mall to be, and lived up to its tagline of „Shop, Eat, and Celebrate.’
Soon after the launch of Bangalore Central, we opened the second Central in Hyderabad in November 2004. Once again it was located at the heart of the city on the Punjagutta Cross Road. Here, the roads connecting the city centre with Secunderabad, Jubilee Hills and the old part of the city; converge. It was more than double the size of Bangalore Central. Apart from over hundreds of brands to shop, it had food courts, restaurants, as well as a five-screen multiplex managed by PVR Cinemas. Much like the one in Bangalore, Hyderabad Central didn’t take much time to become the nerve centre of the city. With an annual retail turnover of around Rs 200 crore it is presently among the largest retail destinations in the country.
121. Which of the following statement is true?
A. The Central mall in Hyderabad in 2004 occupies more than 2,40,000 square meter in area and currently considered as one of the largest retail destinations in the country with a generated annual retail turnover of around Rs.200 crore.
B. It has been observed during the last decade that the hypermarkets are slowing, failing to retain consumers in competition with the department stores.
C. The market analysis convinced the company referred in the text that the time is ripe to introduce now shopping and entertainment landmarks in cities, where they already enjoy some market presence.
D. While the consumers were able to look for a certain category of products at length in the specialty stores, wholesale clubs allowed them to purchase a number of products at a cheap and negotiable rate.
122. Which of the following statement is false?
A. The recent consumer response towards department stores led to the quest for a new business Model which may replace it in the coming days.
B. Since inauguration the Central Square outside the mall in Hyderabad has been used for various purposes so far including, art exhibitions, cultural shows, product launches etc.
C. When the company mentioned in the passage decided to capitalize on the emerging changes in consumer mindset on the retail sales, they already had an experience of nearly six years of operating in this market segment.
D. The changing structural framework of the new type of malls became very popular in various European and Southeast Asian countries, owing to their boundary-less arrangement of products, coupled with shopping entertainment options.
123. Which of the following terms has not been mentioned in the above passage?
A. Department Stores
C. Wholesale Clubs
D. Super-speciality stores
124. Which of the following statement is true?
A. The firm discussed here allowed various foreign and Indian garment companies to display their products in their show room on the condition that they will pay them either some rent, or a predecided percentage of their sales as commission.
B. Before going for the Central venture, the firm already had the experience of offering a wide range of product categories through Big Bazaar and in specialized segments through Pantaloons.
C. The Central mall in Bangalore provided importance to both goods and services for business development; it displayed around two hundred brands in categories like garments, footwear, music, books etc. On one hand, and ensured eating and entertainment options, ticket-booking for movies and concerts, travel services and bill payments within its premises on the other.
D. The reasons behind the losing out of the specialty stores had been multifarious, covering the traditional and unexciting environment, steep price competition from other rivals, inflexibility in operation etc.
125. Which of the following statement is false?
A. In tune with the changing time, the new store created in Birmingham allowed brand competition within the store without explicit hierarchy of products, and organized various events to ensure lively amusement for the shoppers.
B. Since visiting different stores even within a mega shopping complex gets monotonous once the initial excitement is over, the exposure to multiple brands simultaneously with removal of the walls has been a consumer-friendly move.
C. The idea behind setting up a mega retail network was to make it city’s unique shopping location by ensuring exposure to multiple brands on one hand, and by making it an excellent hang-out option through setting up of entertainment and nourishment options on the other.
D. The market analysis by the company described in the passage revealed that a representative buyer to a shopping centre goes to at the most four or five stores, selecting large or small showrooms randomly.
In the early I 950s, a plague clouded the American landscape. A mysterious virus stalked the nation’s youth like a silent, invisible killer. For generations, it had been devouring young lives. But in the previous three decades the number of its victims had increased dramatically. Those it did not kill, it left hopelessly paralyzed and deformed. Newspaper artists sometimes depicted the disease as a dragon. Its common name was infantile paralysis, or poliomyelitis, or simply polio.
Polio struck every summer, turning strong bodies into crumpled ones, leaving in its wake withered limbs in steel braces and straps. It was simply expected when the children returned to school each fall that a friend or classmate would have been lost to polio over the summer. Everyone knew a victim – if not in their own family, it was the boy down the street or one on the next street. By the early 1950s, some 50,000 cases per year were being reported, and 1952 alone saw 59,000 new cases.
But in April of 1955 a miracle occurred. It came in the form of an announcement that a vaccine had been discovered that could actually prevent polio. With completion of a series of research field tests, the news media hailed it as the most dramatic breakthrough in the history of medical research.
The hero of the day; the man who slew the polio dragon, was a shy young doctor named Jonas Salk.
Stories of his heroic effort to perfect his vaccine filled the newspapers. In the months prior to final development of the vaccine, Salk had pushed himself to the limits of human endurance. Realizing he was close to a breakthrough, he worked seven days a week, often up to 20 or 30 hours at a time without sleep. He often skipped meals. The public lionized him for his efforts. But that was not the case among those in the scientific community. Behind the scenes, unknown to the public, Salk was being vilified by his peers. At one point some leading scientists even tried to stop distribution of his life-saving vaccine.
Salk’s fellow scientists in biological research considered him an outsider intruding into their domain.
In fact in order to acquire funds for his research, Salk had to go outside normal channels. When he did so, scientists accused him of being a publicity hound. The research establishment was especially jealous of Salk’s relationship with Basil O’Connor, the man who supplied much of his funding. As president of the National Foundation for Infantile Paralysis, O’Connor held the purse strings to millions in research dollars. And he believed in Salk.
Basil O’Connor knew firsthand the devastating effects of the disease. His daughter had been stricken with polio. And when O’Connor was a young man, Franklin Roosevelt had been his best friend and law partner, long before becoming president of the United States. O‟Connor had seen polio turn an athletic young Roosevelt into a man unable to stand without leg braces and walking sticks. In Jonas Salk, O’Connor found someone who shared his outright hatred for the disease.
Viewed in retrospect, one might understand the opposition of biological research scientists to Salk’s methods. He made many transgressions against traditional research. For one thing, the very efficacy of his vaccine toppled one of the most universally accepted (though erroneous) tenets of orthodox virology – the notion that an active virus could not be checked by its own dead viral bodies. That was precisely the path Salk chose to develop his vaccine.
For decades traditional biologists had been waging what they considered a deliberate, correct, gentleman’s fight against polio with efforts focused on treatment rather than prevention. By contrast, Salk fought the dragon like a man possessed, seeking a final cure. He had grown up on the fringes of poverty and developed an attitude more humanist than scientific, a man unwilling to abide senseless rules in the face of a crisis. He flailed against the disease like a punch-drunk street fighter – and he landed a knockout blow. Finally, his success proved the greatest transgression of all against his fellow scientists. By the 1950s, researching polio was a very big business, and overnight, Salk made further efforts redundant. It was unheard of that an outsider, working independently; could accomplish what the nation’s top scientists with their great laboratories and countless millions of dollars, could not. They expressed their bitterness in rather petty ways, even refusing to accept Salk into the National Academy of Science. The reason? Salk, they contended, was not really a scientist – only a technician.
The public never knew the depths of his colleagues‟ resentment. It was almost a decade after his discovery before Salk himself would even discuss it. “The worst tragedy that could have befallen me was my success,” he told an interviewer. “l knew right away that I was through, that I would be cast out.”
But he was not through. With the polio dragon defeated, he launched a campaign to raise funds to construct the Salk Institute for Biological Studies at Torrey Pines, California. He worked there, surrounded by bright, young scientists until his death at age eighty. Salk later became obsessed with finding a cure for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes AIDS. Almost until the day he died, he was trying to catch lightning in a test tube one last time. Perhaps a man is allotted only one miracle in his lifetime.
Today, research scientists work in the laboratories Jonas Salk built, searching for new weapons in the fight against dragons that defy destruction: cancer, AIDS, Alzheimer’s, cerebral palsy, multiple sclerosis, and Parkinson’s. Among those scientists at Torrey Pines, waging gentlemanly wars against the microscopic enemies of man, perhaps a new maverick will emerge – a stubborn street fighter who will defeat the odds and capture the lightning that eluded Jonas Salk.
126. Which of the following statement is true?
A. For a long time the efforts made by traditional biologists in the battle against polio had been a combination of finding cure for the polio patients as well as preventing the newer occurrences.
B. Within three years from the menace of polio reaching a new peak, the antidote for the deadly disease was discovered by a relatively lesser known person.
C. Basil O’Connor had been a good friend of Theodore Roosevelt and his law Partner.
D. The scientists at Salk Institute for Biological Studies are currently doing research to invent medicines to ensure permanent cures for diseases like AIDS, cerebral palsy, multiple stenosis etc.
127. Which of the following statement is false?
A. A major proportion of the funds required for the research by Dr. Salk came from National Foundation for Infantile Paralysis; whose president Basil O’Connor ensured the requisite amount for him.
B. The extent of the resentment of the colleagues’ of Dr. Salk over his achievement was known to the people almost thirty years after the invention of the vaccine against the disease.
C. The top scientists of the country did not favour the entry of Dr. Salk into National Academy of Science on the ground of his lack of professional qualification with respect to medical and biological science.
D. The driving reason behind the success of Dr. Salk was the fact that he did not accept the framework developed by traditional virology research as foolproof, which was a key factor behind his success.
128. Match the Following:
A. ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
B. i-c, iii-c, iv-a
C. i-d, ii-a, iii-b
D. ii-a, iii-c, iv-b
SECTION- D (PART- II)
129. Mark the sentence which used the Italic word incorrectly:
A. When Ram started enquiring about the conditions of his business, the childlike directness of his approach left Shyam baffled.
B. After the huge loss in the new venture, Amol realized that he had been childish in his trust and confidence.
C. The childlike gullibility of Bimal has always annoyed Kamal.
D. When the boss demanded an explanation from Amit for not submitting the project report in time, he burst into a childish fit of temper.
130. Mark the correct sentence in the following:
A. Remember, when we tried to sort out the difference over the new project with Mr. Singh, he spoke to you and I as if we were babies?
B. Was it them who informed you about the music concert yesterday?
C. The picture on the wall, which was taken years back, doesn’t look a little like I.
D. Was it she you were talking about during the discussion last week?
Directions for question 131-134:
Select the right pair of words to fill in the blanks.
131. The bell, hung on the door by means of a curved ribbon of steel, was to circumvent. It was hopelessly cracked; but of an evening, at the slightest provocation, it clattered behind the customer with virulence.
A. impossible, melodious
B. effortless, loud
C. difficult, impudent
D. daunting, harmonious
132. A question caused him to stutter to the point of suffocation. When startled by anything perplexing he used to squint .
A. courteous, palpably
B. brusque, horribly
C. considerate, genially
D. civil, frightfully
133. Vanity and pride are things, though the words are often used . A person may be proud without being vain. Pride relates more to our of ourselves, vanity to what we would have others think of us.
A. same, differently, analysis
B. analogous, similarly, evaluation
C. different, synonymously, opinion
D. dissimilar, carelessly, view
134. During the heated discussion, the Leader of the group refuted all the claims brought by his opponents. Later everybody acknowledged that he survived by most luck.
A. ingeniously, incredible
B. ingeniously, incredulous
C. ingenuously, incredible
D. ingenuously, incredulous
Directions for question 135-136:
The following four pairs may have synonymous or antonymous or part-whole relationships or no relationship at all with the pair provided in the question. Select the pair of words which has the closest relationship with the numbered pair.
135. COMMUNICATION: MESSAGE::
A. Humour: Delight
B. Expression: Words
C. Clarification: Doubt
D. Emission: Cosmic
136. ACTIVATE: DETONATE::
A. Deaden: Defuse
B. Quicken: Mutilate
C. Connect: Detach
D. Inform: Deform
Directions for question 137:
The following four pairs may have synonymous or antonymous or part-whole relationships or no relationship at all with the pair provided in the question. Select the pair of words which has no relationship with the numbered pair.
137. PLENTlTUDE : ABUNDANCE
A. Augury: Divination
B. Indurate: Consolidate
C. Perspicacity: Transparency
D. Mulet: Muzzle
Directions for question 138-141:
Select the words from the options below that have the farthest meaning to the given word:
Direction for Questions 142-144:
Mark the wrongly spelt word mentioned among the following options:
Direction for Questions 145-146:
Mark the correct sentence in the following:
A. Pele, whom many people consider is the greatest footballer of all times, represented Brazil in four World Cups.
B. When the news about the decline in the quarterly sales of the product broke out, it was difficult to say who the Company would hold responsible for this disaster.
C. When the tension with the business partners increased, Mr. Singh decided to visit them personally and talk to whomever is willing to sort the discord.
D. Who do you think was supposed to meet Mr. Brown from the news bureau, the well-known author, during his week-long visit to Delhi?
A. Returning home from the dinner, we were annoyed to find that the porch light is broke again.
B. If you keep on losing your composure on minor issues, that isn’t going to get you nowhere.
C. In the meeting, Mr. Mehta informed the executives that they have to fulfill the target regardless of the stringency of the deadline.
D. The call for the assembly was very disappointing, as we haven‟t hardly initiated our discussion on a new venture outside the main conference bloc.
Directions for Questions 147-148:
Mark the option in the following, which contains a grammatically wrong sentence:
A. A marvelous stillness pervaded the world, and the stars, together with the serenity of their rays, seemed to shed upon the earth the assurance of everlasting security.
B. We plowed along bravely for a week or more, and without any conflict of jurisdiction among the captains worth mentioning.
C. The tulips, concerning whose cultivation Rosa was taught all the mysteries of the art, formed the principal topic of the conversation; but, interesting as the subject was, people cannot always talking about tulips.
D. She gazed at me as never man‟s face was scanned yet.
A. Here, a broad, deep, circumvallatory trench, hewn from the solid rock, was defended by a wall of great strength erected upon its inner edge.
B. I might well say now, indeed, that the latter end of job was better than the beginning.
C. I really had not yet been able to make up my mind whether I liked Uriah or detested him; and I was very doubtful about it still, as I stood looking him in the face on the street.
D. The Prior had his own reasons, however, for persevering in the course of temperance which he had adopted.
Directions for Questions 149-150:
Mark the correct option, which puts the parts of the sentence in right order:
I. but she gained courage as she went on
II. she was a little nervous about it just at first
III. and opened their eyes and mouths so very wide
IV. the two creatures got so close to her, one on each side
A. IV, III, II, I
B. II, IV, III, I
C. II, I, IV, III
D. Nome of the above
I. it would perhaps be possible for him to be of some use to this brave girl
II. he said to himself, vaguely at first, that
III. without neglecting anything of what was due to his important mission
IV. and this idea pleased him
A. II, III, I, IV
B. III, II, I, IV
C. I, III, II, IV
D. Nome of the above