# IIFT 2010 Question Paper

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Section I
1. Find the sum of the following series:
(1) 3e – 1
(2) 3(e – 1)
(3) 3(e + 1)
(4) 3e + 1

2. How many positive integers ‘n’ can we form using the digits 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 6, 7 if we want ‘n’ to exceed 6,000,000?
(1) 320
(2) 360
(3) 540
(4) 720

3. A Techno company has 14 machines of equal efficiency in its factory. The annual manufacturing costs are Rs. 42,000 and establishment charges are Rs. 12,000. The annual output of the company is Rs. 70,000. The annual output and manufacturing costs are directly proportional to the no. of machines. The share holders get 12.5% profit, which is directly proportional to the annual output of the company. If 7.14% machines remain closed throughout the year, then the percentage decrease in the amount of profit of the share holders would be:
(1) 12%
(2) 12.5%
(3) 13.0%
(4) None of these

4. Sun Life Insurance Company issues standard, preferred, and ultra-preferred policies. Among the company’s policy holders of a certain age, 50% are standard with a probability of 0.01 of dying in the next year, 30% are preferred with a probability 0.008 of dying in the next year, and 20% are ultra-preferred with a probability of 0. 007 of dying in the next year. If a policy holder of that age dies in the next year, what is the probability of the deceased being a preferred policy holder?
(1) 0.1591
(2) 0.2727
(3) 0.375
(4) None of these

5. A metro train from Mehrauli to Gurgoan has capacity to board 900 people. The fare charged (in RS.) is defined by the function where ‘X is the number of the people per trip. How many people per trip will make the marginal revenue equal to zero?
(1) 1728
(2) 576
(3) 484
(4) 364

6. If each α, ẞ, γ is a positive acute angle such that sin(α +ẞ -γ) = 1/ √2, cosec (ẞ+ γ- α) = 2/√3 and tan (γ +α- ẞ) = 1/√3. What are the values of α, ẞ, γ?
(1) (37 ½, 52 ½, 45)
(2) (37, 53, 45)
(3) (45, 37 ½ , 52 ½ )
(4) (34 ½ , 55 ½ , 45)

7. Shyam, Gopal and Madhur are three partners in a business. Their capitals are respectively Rs 4000, Rs 8000 and Rs 6000. Shyam gets 20% of total profit for managing the business. The remaining profit is divided among the three in the ratio of their capitals. At the end of the year, the profit of Shyam is Rs 2200 less than the sum of the profit of Gopal and Madhur. How much profit, Madhur will get?
(1) Rs.1600
(2) Rs.2400
(3) Rs.3000
(4) Rs.5000

8. In how many ways can four letters of the word ‘SERIES’ be arranged?
(1) 24
(2) 42
(3) 84
(4) 102

9. The area of a triangle is 6, two of its vertices are (1, 1) and (4, -1), the third vertex lies on y = x + 5. Find the third vertex.
(1) (2/5, 27/5)
(2) (-3/5, 22/5)
(3) (3/5, 28/3)
(4) None of these

10. A small confectioner bought a certain number of pastries flavored pineapple, mango and black- forest from the bakery, giving for each pastry as many rupees as there were pastry of that kind; altogether he bought 23 pastries and spent Rs.211; find the number of each kind of pastry that he bought, if mango pastry are cheaper than pineapple pastry and dearer than black-forest pastry.
(1) (10, 9, 4)
(2) (11, 9, 3)
(3) (10, 8, 5)
(4) (11, 8, 4)

11. Find the root of the quadratic equation

12. Three Professors Dr. Gupta, Dr. Sharma and Dr. Singh are evaluating answer scripts of a subject. Dr. Gupta is 40% more efficient than Dr. Sharma, who is 20% more efficient than Dr. Singh. Dr. Gupta takes 10 days less than Dr. Sharma to complete the evaluation work. Dr. Gupta starts the evaluation work and works for 10 days and then Dr. Sharma takes over. Dr. Sharma evaluates for next 15 days and then stops. In how many days, Dr. Singh can complete the remaining evaluation work.
(1) 7.2 days
(2) 9.5 days
(3) 11.5 days
(4) None of these

13. If [x] is the greater integer less than or equal to ‘x’, then find the value of the following series [√1] + [√5] + [√3] + [√4] + ….. + [√361] (1) 4389
(2) 4839
(3) 3498
(4) 3489

14. What is the value of
(1) -5/3
(2) 2
(3) 5/3
(4) 1

15. Three pipes A, B and C are connected to a tank. These pipes can fill the tank separately in 5 hours, 10 hours and 15 hours respectively. When all the three pipes were opened simultaneously, it was observed that pipes A and B were supplying water at 3/4th of their normal rates for the first hour after which they supplied water at the normal rate. Pipe C supplied water at 2/3rd of its normal rate for first 2 hours, after which it supplied at its normal rate. In how much time, tank would be filled.
(1) 1.05 Hours
(2) 2.05 Hours
(3) 3.05 Hours
(4) None of these

16. The minimum value of 3sinx + 3cosx is
(1) 2
(2) 2(3-1/√2)
(3) 31-1/√2
(4) None of these

17. In a B-School there are three levels of faculty positions i.e. Professor, Associate Professor and Assistant Professor. It is found that the sum of the ages of all faculty present is 2160, their average age is 36; the average age of the Professor and Associate Professor is 39; of the Associate Professor and Assistant Professor is 32 8/11; of the Professor and Assistant Professor is 36 2/3, Had each Professor been 1 year older, each Associate Professor 6 years older, and each Assistant Professor 7 years older, then their average age would increase by 5 years. What will be the number of faculty at each level and their average ages?
(1) (16, 24, 20 : 45, 35, 30 years)
(2) (18, 24, 20 : 42, 38, 30 years)
(3) (16, 20, 24 : 50, 30, 30 years)
(4) None of these

18. log5 2 is
(1) An integer
(2) A rational number
(3) A prime number
(4) An irrational number

19. In a square of side 2 meters, isosceles triangles of equal area are cut from the corners to form a regular octagon. Find the perimeter and area of the regular octagon.
(1) 16/2+ √2 ; 4(1+√2)/ 3 +2√2
(2) 8/2+√2; 2(1 +√2)/3 + 2√2
(3) 16/1+√2; 3(1+√2)/ 3 +2√2
(4) None of these

20. The smallest perfect square that is divisible by 7!
(1) 44100
(2) 176400
(3) 705600
(4) 19600

21. A survey shows that 61%, 46% and 29% of the people watched “3 idiots”, “Rajneeti” and “Avatar” respectively. 25% people watched exactly two of the three movies and 3% watched none. What percentage of people watched all the three movies?
(1) 39%
(2) 11%
(3) 14%
(4) 7%

22. In a triangle ABC the length of side BC is 295. If the length of side AB is a perfect square, then the length of side AC is a power of 2, and the length of side AC is twice the length of side AB. Determine the perimeter of the triangle.
(1) 343
(2) 487
(3) 1063
(4) None of these

23. In a Green view apartment, the houses of a row are numbered consecutively from 1 to 49. Assuming that there is a value of ‘X such that the sum of the numbers of the houses preceding the house numbered ‘X is equal to the sum of the numbers of the houses following it. Then what will be the value of ‘x’?
(1) 21
(2) 30
(3) 35
(4) 42

24. To start a new enterprise, Mr. Yogesh has borrowed a total of Rs. 60,000 from two money lenders with the interest being compounded annually, to be repaid at the end of two years. Mr. Yogesh repaid Rs.38, 800 more to the first money lender compared to the second money lender at the end of two years. The first money lender charged an interest rate, which was 10% more than what was charged by the second money lender. If Mr. Yogesh had instead borrowed Rs. 30,000 from each at their respective initial rates for two years, he would have paid Rs.7, 500 more to the first money lender compared to the second. Then money borrowed by Mr. Yogesh from first money lender is?
(1) 20,000
(2) 35,000
(3) 40,000
(4) 42,000

(1) 113
(2) 119
(3) 125
(4) 132

26. Mukesh, Suresh and Dinesh travel from Delhi to Mathura to attend Janmasthmi Utsav. They have a bike which can carry only two riders at a time as per traffic rules. Bike can be driven only by Mukesh. Mathura is 300Km from Delhi. All of them can walk at 15Km/Hrs. All of them start their journey from Delhi simultaneously and are required to reach Mathura at the same time. If the speed of bike is 60Km/Hrs then what is the shortest possible time in which all three can reach Mathura at the same time.
(1) 8 2/7 hrs
(2) 9 2/7 hrs
(3) 10 hrs
(4) None of these

27. In a rocket shape firecracker, explosive powder is to be filled up inside the metallic enclosure. The metallic enclosure is made up of a cylindrical base and conical top with the base of radius 8 centimeter. The ratio of height of cylinder and cone is 5:3. A cylindrical hole is drilled through the metal solid with height one third the height of the metal solid. What should be the radius of the hole, so that volume of the hole (in which gun powder is to be filled up) is half of the volume of metal solid after drilling?
(1) 4V3 cm
(2) 4.0 cm
(3) 3.0 cm
(4) None of these

28. A small and medium enterprise imports two components A and B from Taiwan and China respectively and assembles them with other components to form a toy. Component A contributes to 10% of production cost. Component B contributes to 20% of the production cost. Usually the company sells this toy at 20% above the production cost. Due to increase in the raw material and labour cost in both the countries, component A became 20% costlier and component B became 40% costlier. Owing to these reasons the company increased its selling price by 15%. Considering that cost of other components does not change, what will be the profit percentage, if the toy is sold at the new price?
(1) 15.5%
(2) 25.5%
(3) 35.5%
(4) 40%

29.What is the value of c2 in the given figure, where the radius of the circle is ‘a’ unit.

(1) c2 = a2 + b2 – 2ab cos θ
(2) c2 = a2 + b2 – 2ab sin θ
(3) c2 = a2 – b2 + 2ab cos θ
(4) None of these

30. How many subsets of {1, 2, 3 … 11} contain at least one even integer?
(1) 1900
(2) 1964
(3) 1984
(4) 2048

Section II

Directions for questions 31 to 35. Read the following information and choose the right alternative in the questions that follow.
During the cultural week of an institute six competitions were conducted. The cultural week was inaugurated in the morning of 19th October, Wednesday and continued till 26th October. In the span of 8 days six competitions namely debate, folk dance, fash-p, street play, rock band, and group song, were organized along with various other cultural programs. The information available from the institute is:
i. Only one competition was held in a day
ii. Rock band competition was not conducted on the closing day.
iii. Fash-p was conducted on the day prior to debate competition
iv. Group song competition was conducted neither on Wednesday nor on Saturday
v. None of the competition was conducted on Thursday and Sunday
vi. Street Play competition was held on Monday
vii. There was gap of two days between debate competition and group song competition

31. The cultural week started with which competition?
(1) Fash-p competition
(2) Debate competition
(3) Street play competition
(4) Rock band competition

32. How many days gap is there between rock band competition and group song competition?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

33. Which pair of competition was conducted on Wednesday?
(1) Rock band competition and debate competition
(2) Debate competition and fash-p competition
(3) Rock band competition and Folk dance competition
(4) None of these

34. Which competition exactly precedes the street play competition?
(1) Rock band competition
(2) Group song competition
(3) Debate competition
(4) Fash-p competition

35. Fash-p competition follows which competition?
(1) Debate competition
(2) Street play competition
(3) Rock band competition
(4) None of these

Directions 36 to 38: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow the information.
A parking lot can accommodate only six cars. The six cars are parked in two rows in such a way that the front of the three cars parked in one row is facing the other three cars in the other row.
i. Alto is not parked in the beginning of any row
ii. Esteem is second to the right of i10
iii. Punto, who is the neighbor of Alto is parked diagonally opposite to i10
iv. Swift is parked in front of Alto
v. SX4 is parked to the immediate right of Alto

36. If SX4 and Esteem exchange their positions mutually then car (s) adjacent to Esteem is (are)?
(1) i10 and Swift
(2) Only Swift
(3) Only Alto
(4) Alto and Punto

37. If Alto changes position with i10 and Punto changes position with SX4 and Swift shifts one position to the right to accommodate Beatle then the car (s) parked adjacent to Beatle is (are)?
(1) Punto only
(2) i10 and SX4
(3) Punto and Alto
(4) Alto and Swift

38. In the original parking scheme four new cars enter the parking lot such that Wagon-R is second to the right of i10 and Zen is second to the left of SX4. Jazz is parked second to the left to Wagon-R and Beat is parked to the right of Alto then the cars that moved out are?
(1) Esteem and Swift
(2) Punto and Alto
(3) i10 and Alto
(4) Punto and SX4

Directions 39 to 43: Read the information given below and answer the next five questions that follow :
i. Six friends Rahul, Kabeer, Anup, Raghu, Amit and Alok were engineering graduates. All six of them were placed in six different companies and were posted in six different locations, namely Tisco- Jamshedpur, Telco-Pune, Wipro-Bangalore, HCL- Noida, Mecon-Ranchi and Usha Martin-Kolkata. Each of them has their personal e-mail id’s with different email providers i.e., Gmail, Indiatimes, Rediffmail, Yahoo, Hotmail, Sancharnet, though not necessarily in the same order.
ii. The one having e-mail account with Sancharnet works in Noida and the one having an e-mail account with Indiatimes works for Tisco.
iii. Amit does not stay in Bangalore and does not work for Mecon, the one who works for Mecon has an e-mail id with Gmail.
iv. Rahul has an e-mail id with Rediffmail and works at Pune.
v. Alok does not work for Mecon and the one who works for Wipro does not have an e-mail account with Yahoo.
vi. Kabeer is posted in Kolkata, and does not have an account with Hotmail.
vii. Neither Alok nor Raghu work in Noida.
viii. The one who is posted in Ranchi has an e-mail id which is not an account of Rediffmail or Hotmail.
ix. Anup is posted in Jamshedpur.

39. The man who works in Wipro has a e-mail account with?
(1) Sancharnet
(2) Yahoo
(3) Rediffmail
(4) None of these

40. Which of the following e-mail-place of posting- person combination is correct?
(1) Kabeer-Kolkata-Rediffmail
(2) Alok-Bangalore-Indiatimes
(3) Amit-Noida-Yahoo
(4) Raghu-Ranchi-Gmail

41. Which of the following is true?
(1) Amit is posted at Ranchi
(2) Raghu is posted at Jamshedpur
(3) Kabeer has an e-mail id with Yahoo
(4) Rahul has an e-mail id with Indiatimes

42. Which of the following sequences of location represent Alok, Kabeer, Anup, Rahul, Raghu, and Amit in the same order?
(1) Bangalore, Noida, Pune, Jamshedpur, Ranchi, Kolkata
(2) Bangalore, Kolkata, Jamshedpur, Pune, Noida, Ranchi
(3) Kolkata, Bangalore, Jamshedpur, Pune, Noida, Ranchi
(4) None of these

43. People who have e-mail account with Indiatimes, Sancharnet and Yahoo work for which companies, in the same sequence as the e-mail accounts mentioned?
(1) Usha Martin, HCL, Wipro
(2) Tisco, Wipro, Usha Martin
(3) HCL, Tisco, Wipro
(4) Tisco, HCL, Usha Martin

44. How many ‘zeroes’ are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by a nine but not immediately followed by seven?
7090070890702030045703907
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

45. A Retail chain has seven branches in a city namely R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7 and a central distribution center (DC). The nearest branch to the DC is R6 which is in the south of DC and is 9 Km away from DC. R2 is 17 Km away from DC in the west. The branch R1 is 11 Km away R2 further in the west. The branch R3 is 11 Km in the north east of R1. R4 is 13 Km from R3 in the east. R5 is 11 Km in the north east of the distribution center. In the north east of R6 is R7 and distance between them is 15 Km. The distance between R1 and R6, R2 and R6, R6 and R5 is 23 Km, 19 Km, 13 Km respectively. R3 is 14 Km away from the DC in the north west direction, while R2 is also 14 Km away from R4 in the north east direction of R2. A truck carrying some goods starts from the distribution center and has to cover at least four stores in a single trip. There is an essential good that has to be delivered in the store R7, but the delivery at R7 has to be done in the end, so what is the shortest distance the truck would travel?
(1) 55
(2) 56
(3) 63
(4) 66

Directions for question 46 to 48: Following graph represents the cost per square feet of four retailers from the financial year 2004 to 2012. The expected cost per square feet for year 2010, 2011 and 2012 are forecasted figures.

46. Which retailer shows the sharpest decline in cost per square feet and in which year?
(1) Westside, 2005
(2) Pantaloon, 2008
(3) S. Stop, 2009
(4) Vishal, 2010

47. Which retailer has shown the maximum increase in its cost per square feet and in which year?
(1) S. Stop, 2006
(2) S. Stop, 2007
(3) Pantaloon, 2006
(4) Vishal, 2006

48. What is the average rate of change in the cost per square feet of the retail sector, if the sector is represented by the above four retailers in the period FY07 to FY10E?
(1) -8.12
(2) -10.86
(3) -6.73
(4) None of these

Directions 49 to 52: The table below represents the information collected by TRAI about the Service Area wise Access of (Wireless + Wire line) subscribers in India. On the basis of the information provided in the table answer the questions that follow.

49. Which service area has observed maximum rate of change from Dec 2009 to March 2010 (in percentage)?
(1) U.P. (E)
(2) Bihar
(3) Orissa
(4) Haryana

50. As a result of a decisions to allow only two or three telecom operator in a particular service area, TRAI allocates R-Com and Vodafone to operate only in the east of India and Idea and Airtel operate only in south. R-Com has got 28% subscribers in the east while Vodafone has 72% subscribers; similarly Idea has 48% subscribers in the south while Airtel has 52% subscribers. How many subscribers do these four players have in 2010?
(1) R-Com-28.03, Vodafone-73.22, Idea-86.22, Airtel-89.5
(2) R-Com-30.03, Vodafone-72.82, Idea-85.02, Airtel-80.04
(3) R-Com-28.03, Vodafone-76.24, Idea-84.01, Airtel-85.67
(4) R-Com-30.03, Vodafone-77.22, Idea-82.99, Airtel-89.91

51. Due to operability issues early in 2010 Madhya Pradesh and entire UP was added to the eastern telecom circle. The telecom operators in Madhya Pradesh and entire UP namely R-Com, Vodafone and Idea had 28%, 40% and 32% subscribers respectively. What is the percentage of subscribers that each player has in the newly formed eastern circle in March 2010?
(1) R-Com-30.01%, Vodafone-55.72%, Idea- 14.27%
(2) R-Com-32.01%, Vodafone-53.72%, Idea- 14.27%
(3) R-Com-28%, Vodafone-55.72%, Idea-16.27%
(4) None of these

52. The all India rate of change in number of subscribers from December 2009 to March 2010 is?
(1) 10.7%
(2) 10.5%
(3) 11.8%
(4) 12.4%

Directions for questions 53 to 57: In order to quantify the intangibles and incentives to the multi brand dealers (dealers who stock multiple goods as well as competing brands) and the associated channel members, a Company(X) formulates a point score card, which is called as brand building points. This brand building point is added to the sales target achieved points for redemption. The sales target achieved point is allotted as per the table 3 of this question. The sum of brand building point and sales achieved points is the total point that can be redeemed by the dealer against certain goods, as shown in the second table.
The detail of the system is shown in the tables below:

53. Maheshwari & Co has Company X signage along with other brand signage in the main entrance of the store, the exterior walls of the store have the painting of only company X, the side wall in the interior has the painting of Company X. The POP display of Company X is above the eye level with other brands while the stacking of goods of Company X is in the back row of the shelves. The brand building points when combined with the sales achieved points amounts to the total points that a dealer can accumulate in a quarter. The number of Tupperware Sets that Maheshwari & Co can redeem after the quarter (July to September) is?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

54. Bhowmik Brothers has only other brands signage in the front of the store, and company X painting on the side wall in the exterior of the store, Company X painting on the side wall in the interior of the store, no POP display of any Company and the goods of Company X is stacked in the front row with other brands. What is the total point Bhowmik Brothers need to accumulate to make them eligible for minimum redemption?
(1) 27
(2) 37
(3) 38
(4) 33

55. The Brand building points of Saha H/W is 85, and Mr. Saha the proprietor of the store wants to redeem a Kanjivaram Saree the next quarter by carrying forward the points accumulated this quarter to the next quarter. The sales target of Saha H/W is 25,000 units in the next quarter. It is assumed the brand building points for the next quarter is also going to be 85. How many extra units Saha H/W has to sell in order to get the Kanjivaram Saree?
(1) 14688
(2) 12569
(3) 13658
(4) 15698

56. Malling Enterprise exhausted all its points while redeeming three Nike Caps and an Umbrella, what is its brand building points?
(1) 75
(2) 85
(3) 95
(4) 90

57. If Srikrishna Trader has 80 brand building points then the goods that it can redeem are _______ ?
(1) Tupperware set, Kanjivaram
(2) Umbrella and Tupperware set
(3) Tupperware set, Nike Cap
(4) Nike Cap and T-Shirt

Directions for questions 58 to 61 : Study the following graph and answer the questions that follow

58. If the world energy council formulates a norm for high emission countries to reduce their emission each year by 12.5% for the next two years then what would be the ratio of CO2 emission to per capita income of US, China and Japan after two years. The per capita income of China, Japan and US is expected to increase every year by 4%, 3% and 2% respectively.
(1) 3.5, 3.8, 4.1
(2) 3.4, 3.5, 3.9
(3) 2.9, 3.1, 3.4
(4) None

59. If US and China, decide to buy carbon credits, from Spain and Ukraine to make up for their high emissions, then in how many years US, and China would be able to bring down its ratio of CO2 emission (million ton) to per capita income to world standard benchmark of 0.75. (per capita income of the given countries remain same, 0.5 CO2 emissions [million ton] is compensated by purchase of 1.25 units of carbon credit, and a country can buy carbon credit units in three lots of 15, 20 and 30 units in a single year.)
(1) 3.8 years
(2) 38 years
(3) 30 years
(4) None

60. France, South Africa, Australia, Ukraine and Poland form an energy consortium which declares CO2 emission of 350 million ton per annum as standard benchmark. The energy consortium decides to sell their carbon emission savings against the standard benchmark to high carbon emission countries. It is expected that the per capita income of each country of the energy consortium increases by 2%, 2.5% and 3.5% p.a. for the next three years respectively. The ratio of CO2 emission to per capita income of the each energy consortium country reduces by 50% and remains constant for the next three years. By selling 0.5 CO2 emissions [million ton] the energy consortium earns 1.25 carbon credits, then determine the total carbon credits earned by energy consortium in three years.
(1) 3560
(2) 4506
(3) 5060
(4) None

61. Select the wrong statement in reference to the position of India vis-a-vis other countries in the graph in terms of the ratio of CO2 emission to per capita income (increasing order).
(1) India stands at 5th position if 50 is added to the given per capita income figures of each country.
(2) India stands at 5th position at the given CO2 emission level and per capita income of each country.
(3) India stands at 5th position if 200 million ton CO2 emission is deducted from the given CO2 emission figures of each country.
(4) India stands at 5th position if 200 million ton CO2 emission is deducted from the given CO2 emission figures of each country and 50 is added to the given per capita income of each country.

Direction for question 62: Refer to the following pie chart and answer the question that follows. The chart shows the number of units produced in degrees, by Company X in different States of India for the quarter July-Sep 2010.

62. By how many units does the number of units produced in Bihar exceed the number of units produced in Madhya Pradesh, if the total production in the quarter is 72, 000 units?
(1) 2300 units
(2) 2520 units
(3) 3516 units
(4) 2860 units

Directions for questions 63 to 65: The following graph shows population data (males and females), educated people data (males and females) and number of male in the population for a given period of 1995 to 2010. All data is in million.
From the information given in the graph answer the questions that follow

63. In which year the percentage increase in the number of females over the previous year is highest?
(1) 1996
(2) 1999
(3) 2004
(4) 2005

64. In 2002 if the ratio of number of educated male to professionally educated female was 5:4. If the number of educated males increased by 25% in 2003. What is the percentage change in number of uneducated females in 2003?
(1) +25%
(2) +30%
(3) +34%
(4) +56%

65. In year 2005 total population living in urban area is equal to sixty eight percent of educated population. The ratio of number of people living in urban area to people living in rural area is 43:12 in 2010. What is the ratio of the rural population in 2005 to that in 2010?
(1) 0.8
(2) 0.47
(3) 2.05
(4) None

Section III (Part 1)

Directions for questions 66 to 80: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given at the end of each passage.
Passage – 1
Fisher also tried to move Kodak’s traditional retail photo-processing systems into digital world and in this regard installed tens of thousands of image magic kiosks. These kiosks came just as numerous companies introduced inexpensive, high-quality photo printers that people could use at home, which, in fact, is where customers preferred to view their images and fiddle with them. Fisher also tried to insert Kodak as an intermediary in the process of sharing images electronically. He formed partnerships that let customers receive electronic versions of their photos by e-mail and gave them access to kiosks that let them manipulate and reproduce old photographs. You don’t need Kodak to upload photos to your computer and e-mail them. Fisher also formed a partnership with AOL called “You’ve Got Pictures.” Customers would have their film developed and posted online, where friends and family could view them. Customers would pay AOL \$7 for this privilege, on top of the \$9 paid for photo processing. However sites like Snapfish were allowing pictures to be posted online free. Fisher promised early on, that Kodak’s digital-photography business would be profitable by 1997. lt wasn’t. ln 1997 Philippe Kahn lead the advent of cell phone camera. With the cell phone camera market growth Kodak didn’t just lose out on more prints. The whole industry lost out on sales of digital cameras, because they became just a feature that was given away free on cell phones. Soon cameras became a free feature on many personal computers, too. What had been so profitable for Kodak for so long- capturing images and displaying them- was going to become essentially free.

66. As per the passage which of the following statements truly reflects the real theme of the passage?
(1) Moore’s law predicted that cost per unit of computing power would exhibit a standard deviation of 25% per annum.
(2) Popularity of removable media and internet lead to high demand for computers.
(3) Kodak managers were able to predict the flow of digital technology and their critical value drivers.
(4) Kodak did not have a vision to plough back the profits from old technology to research and development in new technology.

67. Which of the following statements is not true?
I. Kodak bought sterling drug as a strategic choice for a chemical business as it was already in the business of chemically treated photo paper.
II. The chemical business was in sync with the existing business of Kodak running across the customer segment, delivery channels and the regulatory environment.
III. Kodak committed a mistake by selling sterling in pieces at a loss of 50%.
IV. Kodak’s diversification attempt with purchase of sterling to strengthen its core business and shift to digital world was a shift from its strategic focus.
(1) Only I and II
(2) Only II and III
(3) Only III and IV
(4) Only I, II, III

68. Kodak lost a big piece of its market share to its competitors because of the following best explained reason.
I. When Carp became the CEO the digital Technology eclipsed film technology business and further Carp had been with the company for twenty nine years and had no background in technology.
II. Carp in 2004 introduced a film camera that won camera of the year award, yet it was discontinued by the time Kodak collected the award.
III. Kodak moved from traditional retail photo processing systems into digital world installing several thousands of image magic kiosks that failed to deliver real benefits to the customers.
IV. Phillipe Kahn led the advent of cell phone camera and Kodak lost out on the print business and ability to share images became a free feature with no additional charge.
(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) I and IV
(4) III and IV

69. Arrange the given statements in the correct sequence as they appear in the passage.
I. Kodak lost to its competitors a big pie of its market share.
II. Kodak ventured into chemical business to strengthen its digital technology business.
III. Kodak downsized its workforce drastically.
IV. Kodak tied up with business firms for photo processing.
(1) I, II, III, IV
(2) III, IV, II, I
(3) II, IV, I, III
(4) I, III, II, IV

70. Match the following

(1) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
(2) 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
(3) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
(4) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

Passage – 2
People are continually enticed by such “hot” performance, even if it lasts for brief periods. Because of this susceptibility, brokers or analysts who have had one or two stocks move up sharply, or technicians who call one turn correctly, are believed to have established a credible record and can readily find market followings. Likewise, an advisory service that is right for a brief time can beat its drums loudly. Elaine Garzarelli gained near immortality when she purportedly “called” the 1987 crash. Although, as the market strategist for Shearson Lehman, her forecast was never published in a research report, nor indeed communicated to its clients, she still received widespread recognition and publicity for this call, which was made in a short TV interview on CNBC. Still, her remark on CNBC that the Dow could drop sharply from its then 5300 level rocked an already nervous market on July 23, 1996. What had been a 40-point gain for the Dow turned into a 40-point loss, a good deal of which was attributed to her comments.
The truth is, market-letter writers have been wrong in their judgments far more often than they would like to remember. However, advisors understand that the public considers short-term results meaningful when they are, more often than not, simply chance. Those in the public eye usually gain large numbers of new subscribers for being right by random luck. Which brings us to another important probability error that falls under the broad rubric of representativeness. Amos Tversky and Daniel Kahneman call this one the “law of small numbers.”. The statistically valid “law of large numbers” states that large samples will usually be highly representative of the population from which they are drawn; for example, public opinion polls are fairly accurate because they draw on large and representative groups. The smaller the sample used, however (or the shorter the record), the more likely the findings are chance rather than meaningful. Yet the Tversky and Kahneman study showed that typical psychological or educational experimenters gamble their research theories on samples so small that the results have a very high probability of being chance. This is the same as gambling on the single good call of an advisor. The psychologists and educators are far too confident in the significance of results based on a few observations or a short period of time, even though they are trained in statistical techniques and are aware of the dangers.

71. Which statement does not reflect the true essence of the passage?
I. Tversky and Kahneman understood that small representative groups bias the research theories to generalize results that can be categorized as meaningful result and people simplify the real impact of passable portray of reality by small number of supporting facts.
II. Governmental economic releases on macroeconomic indicators fetch blind faith from investors who appropriately discount these announcements which are ideally reflected in the stock and bond market prices.
III. Investors take into consideration myopic gain and make it meaningful investment choice and fail to see it as a chance of occurrence.
IV. lrrational overreaction to key regulators expressions is same as intuitive statistician stumbling disastrously when unable to sustain spectacular performance.
(1) Only I
(2) Only IV
(3) II and IV
(4) Only III

72. The author of the passage suggests the anomaly that leads to systematic errors in predicting future. Which of the following statements does not best describe the anomaly as suggested in the passage above?
I. The psychological pressures account for the anomalies just like soothsayers warning about the doomsday and natural disasters and market crashes.
II. Contrary to several economic and financial theories investors are not good intuitive statistician, especially under difficult conditions and are unable to calculate the odds properly when making investments choices.
III. Investors are swamped with information and they react to this avalanche of data by adopting shortcuts or rules of thumb rather than formally calculating odds of a given outcome.
IV. The distortions produced by subjectively calculated probabilities are large, systematic and difficult to eliminate even when investors are fully aware of them.
(1) Only I
(2) Only IV
(3) I and III
(4) II and IV

73. “Tversky and Kahneman’s findings … lead to another rule that investors should follow”. Which rule is the author talking about?
I. Not to be influenced by short term and occasional record of a money manager, broker, analysts, or advisor, no matter how impressive.
II. To accept cursory economic or investment news without significant substantiation but supported by statistical evidence even if limited in data sufficiency.
III. In making decisions we become overly immersed in the details of a particular situation and consider all the outcomes of similar experience in our past.
IV. None of the above.
(1) Only IV
(2) Only I
(3) Only III
(4) I, II, and III

74. According to the passage which statement written below is farthest in explaining the meaning of the passage above?
I. Market letter writers have been wrong in their judgments many a times but they continue to express their opinion as dramatic predictions and well time call results in huge rewards to analysts, journalist and popular writers.
II. Public opinion polls are fairly accurate because they are based on randomly selected diminutive representative groups and hence are more meaningful than intuitive statistics of an outcome.
III. People generally limit the need for hefty statistical evidence as it satisfies their intuition without reflecting the reality.
IV. None of the above.
(1) Only IV
(2) Only II
(3) II and III
(4) Only I

Passage – 3
When people react to their experiences with particular authorities, those authorities and the organizations or institutions that they represent often benefit if the people involved begin with high levels of commitment to the organization or institution represented by the authorities. First, in his studies of people’s attitudes toward political and legal institutions, Tyler found that attitudes after an experience with the institution were strongly affected by prior attitudes. Single experiences influence post-experience loyalty but certainly do not overwhelm the relationship between pre-experience and post-experience loyalty. Thus, the best predictor of loyalty after an experience is usually loyalty before that experience. Second, people with prior loyalty to the organization or institution judge their dealings with the organization’s or institution’s authorities to be fairer than do those with less prior loyalty, either because they are more fairly treated or because they interpret equivalent treatment as fairer.
Although high levels of prior organizational or institutional commitment are generally beneficial to the organization or institution, under certain conditions high levels of prior commitment may actually sow the seeds of reduced commitment. When previously committed individuals feel that they were treated unfavourably or unfairly during some experience with the organization or institution, they may show an especially sharp decline in commitment. Two studies were designed to test this hypothesis, which, if confirmed, would suggest that organizational or institutional commitment has risks, as well as benefits. At least three psychological models offer predictions of how individuals’ reactions may vary as a function of (1) their prior level of commitment and (2) the favorability of the encounter with the organization or institution. Favorability of the encounter is determined by the outcome of the encounter and the fairness or appropriateness of the procedures used to allocate outcomes during the encounter. First, the instrumental prediction is that because people are mainly concerned with receiving desired outcomes from their encounters with organizations, changes in their level of commitment will depend primarily on the favorability of the encounter. Second, the assimilation prediction is that individuals’ prior attitudes predispose them to react in a way that is consistent with their prior attitudes.
The third prediction, derived from the group-value model of justice, pertains to how people with high prior commitment will react when they feel that they have been treated unfavorably or unfairly during some encounter with the organization or institution. Fair treatment by the other party symbolizes to people that they are being dealt with in a dignified and respectful way, thereby bolstering their sense of self-identity and self-worth. However, people will become quite distressed and react quite negatively if they feel that they have been treated unfairly by the other party to the relationship. The group-value model suggests that people value the information they receive that helps them to define themselves and to view themselves favorably. According to the instrumental viewpoint, people are primarily concerned with the more material or tangible resources received from the relationship. Empirical support for the group-value model has implications for a variety of important issues, including the determinants of commitment, satisfaction, organizational citizenship, and rule following. Determinants of procedural fairness include structural or interpersonal factors. For example, structural determinants refer to such things as whether decisions were made by neutral, fact-finding authorities who used legitimate decision-making criteria. The primary purpose of the study was to examine the interactive effect of individuals (1) commitment to an organization or institution prior to some encounter and (2) perceptions of how fairly they were treated during the encounter, on the change in their level of commitment. A basic assumption of the group-value model is that people generally value their relationships with people, groups, organizations, and institutions and therefore value fair treatment from the other party to the relationship. Specifically, highly committed members should have especially negative reactions to feeling that they were treated unfairly, more so than (1) less- committed group members or (2) highly committed members who felt that they were fairly treated.
The prediction that people will react especially negatively when they previously felt highly committed but felt that they were treated unfairly also is consistent with the literature on psychological contracts. Rousseau suggested that, over time, the members of work organizations develop feelings of entitlement, i.e., perceived obligations that their employers have toward them. Those who are highly committed to the organization believe that they are fulfilling their contract obligations. However, if the organization acted unfairly, then highly committed individuals are likely to believe that the organization did not live up to its end of the bargain.

75. The hypothesis mentioned in the passage tests at least one of the following ideas.
(1) People continue to show loyalty only if they were initially committed to the organization.
(2) Our experiences influence post-experience loyalty but certainly underwhelm the relationship between pre-experience and post-experience loyalty.
(3) Pre-experience commitment always has inverse relationship with the post-experience commitment.
(4) None of these ideas are being tested by the hypothesis.

76. There is only one term in the left column which matches with the options given in the second column. Identify the correct pair from the following table:

(1) a-1 and 4
(2) b-3 and 4
(3) c-2 and 4
(4) d-1 only

77. For summarizing the passage, which of the following is most appropriate:
(1) The study explored how citizens’ commitment to legal authorities changed as a function of their initial level of commitment and their perceptions of how fairly they were treated in their recent encounters with legal authorities.
(2) The influence of individuals’ prior commitment to an institution on their reactions to the perceived fairness of decisions rendered by the institution was examined.
(3) Given the generally positive consequences to organizations of having committed employees, it may be that unfair managerial practices would begin to alienate the very employees that the organization would least wish to alienate.
(4) The passage aims at understanding how people define happiness and these definitions include instrumental view-points.

Passage – 4

78. “Saddle shoes and Vietnam”, as expressed in the passage, refers to:
I. Denier cri and Vietnam war
II. Growth of leather footwear industry and Vietnam shoe controversy
III. Modern U.S. population and traditional expatriates
IV. Industrial revolution and Vietnam Olympics
V. Fashion and Politics
(1) I and V
(2) II and IV
(3) III and V
(4) II and III

79. Identify the correct sequence:
I. Depression -> Eisenhower -> Microsoft
II. California -> New York -> Omaha
III. J.P.Morgan -> Buffett -> Bill Gates
IV. Mutual funds -> Hedge funds -> Brokers
(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and IV
(4) III and IV

80. Choose the most appropriate answer: according to the author, Warren Buffett was
I. Simple and outmoded
II. Against planned economy and technology
IV. Spiritually raw
(1) I and IV
(2) II and IV
(3) III and IV
(4) I and III

Section III (Part 2)

Directions for questions 81 to 86: From the given pair of words select the most appropriate pair that fills the gaps and makes the sentence more meaningful.

81. These issues are extremely _______ and any knee jerk reaction will ultimately result in a loss of _______ for all shareholders.
(1) Unassociated, curare
(2) Ambiguous, plutocracy
(3) Nuanced, opportunity
(4) Contexed, serendipity

82. Growth under this government has been _______ high and remarkably _______ even during the worst global economic crisis.
(1) Impededly, flippant
(2) Relatively, intractable
(3) Obstructedly, rigid
(4) Sustainedly, resilient

83. There are different and ______ versions about what happened in the city, but one thing is certain: it is a dastardly act that must be condemned _____.
(1) Dissimilar, concertedly
(2) Contrary, obviously
(3) Conflicting, unequivocally
(4) Unique, without conflict

84. They ______ their seats away from the curved wall panels to give themselves more space as the flight attendant brought drinks from the gallery, which was _______ with family’s favorite snacks and beverages.
(1) Swiveled, stocked
(2) Hinged, lacquered
(3) Pended, embellished
(4) Retracted, thronged

85. Cairn cannot_______ bring into picture some ______ outsider which has little experience and necessary consents to deal in the oil field.
(1) Peremptorily, ascribed
(2) Complaisantly, endorsed
(3) Democratically, aberrant
(4) Arbitrarily, unrelated

86. Economic growth is on auto-pilot, unlikely to be derailed by any lapse into ______ and controls or to be ______ by serious policy reforms.
(1) Growth, blowed
(2) Boom, berated
(3) Recession, reduced
(4) Dirigisme, boosted

Directions for questions 87 to 89: Each sentence has a part which is Italic. Beneath the sentence you will find four ways of phrasing the Italic part. Follow the requirements of the standard written English to choose your answer. Selection should make the sentence clear, exact and free of grammatical error. It should minimize awkwardness, ambiguity and redundancy.

87. Large and experienced firms are more efficient at acquiring smaller and distressed firms than are large and inexperienced firms, and converting them to profitable ventures.
(1) Large and experienced firms are more efficient at acquiring smaller and distressed firms than large and inexperienced firms
(2) Large and experienced firms are more efficient than large and inexperienced firms at acquiring smaller and distressed firms
(3) Large and experienced firms, acquire smaller and distressed firms more efficiently than large and inexperienced firms
(4) Large and experienced firms, more efficient than large and inexperienced firms at acquiring smaller and distressed firms

88. The economic growth increased from 7 to 9 per cent in November 2010, supporting the expectations that industrial growth rate in October-December quarter more than doubled that of the 4 per cent growth rate in industrial growth for the previous quarter.
(1) that industrial growth in the October- December quarter more than doubled that of
(2) of industrial growth in the October- December quarter, that it more than doubled
(3) of industrial growth in the October- December quarter, that it would more than double that of
(4) that industrial growth in October-December quarter would more than double

89. As a result of surging financial greed, the international rating agencies upgraded the rating of the credit derivative instruments, and hence analysts recommended a strong buy, ignoring the advice of Warren Buffett who warned that these instruments would prove not only dangerous but ineffective in the long run.
(1) who warned that these instruments would prove to be both dangerous and
(2) warning that these instruments would prove not only dangerous and also
(3) warning that these instruments would prove itself to be both dangerous and
(4) who was warning that these instruments would prove not only dangerous but
Directions for questions 90 and 91: From the given options identify the word pair which is unrelated to the given word pair.

90. IMPUISSANCE: DESECRATE
(1) Decrepit : Desolate
(2) Effete : Sacrilege
(3) Ornery : Contort
(4) Bedraggled : Profanity

91. INSOUCIANT : GOSSAMER
(1) Nymphs : Gehenna
(2) Perfunctory : Diaphanous
(3) Pococurante: Pellucid
(4) Nonchalant : Tiffany

Directions for questions 92 and 93: Select the pair of wrongly spelt words from the given set of choices.

92.
(1) Conscientious : Oleaginous
(2) Obstreperous : Supercilious
(3) Diletante : Reminiscience
(4) Tergiversation : lnterstice

93.
(1) lrascible : Surreptitious
(2) Proclivity : Vicissitude
(3) Lassitude : Imperturbable
(4) Munificient: Psusillanimous

Directions for questions 94 to 99: Each question consists of a number of sentences that need to be properly sequenced, to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph/sentences. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the choices given below.

94.
I. of course, it isn’t anywhere near as simple as this in real life
II. the diagram is commonly called ‘the stack’, and the people in the computer industry love to talk about it
III. at the base are components that are assembled into finished hardware products; operating systems, middleware, and software applications sit above the hardware; and it’s all topped off by a whole range of services
IV. the stack shows most of the major pieces in a typical computing environment
(1) II, I, III, IV
(2) II, IV, III, I
(3) III, IV, II, I
(4) II, III, I, IV

95.
I. as a skeptical empiricist,
II. I do not want to be the turkey
III. since we do not observe
IV. so I do not want to focus
V. solely on specific organs in the brain
VI. brain functions very well
(1) I, II, III, IV, V, VI
(2) II, I, IV, III, V, VI
(3) I, VI, IV, III, V, II
(4) I, II, IV, V, III, VI

96.
I. knowledge, even when it is exact
II. because we tend to forget what we know
III. if we do not pay attention
IV. or forget how to process it properly
V. does not often lead to appropriate actions
VI. even when we are experts
(1) I, V, II, IV, III, VI
(2) I, V, III, IV, II, VI
(3) VI, V, II, I, III, IV
(4) III, VI, I, II, V, IV

97.
I. in the classroom
II. once they are let out on streets
III. statisticians, it has been shown
IV. and engage in most trivial inferential errors
V. tend to leave their brains
(1) III, V, I, IV, II
(2) II, III, V, I, IV
(3) I, V, II, III, IV
(4) III, I, V, IV, II

98.
I. sure enough failed
II. I have tested myself and
III. by carefully setting a wide range
IV. even while consciously trying to be humble
V. as we will see the core of my professional activities
VI. and yet such underestimation happens to be
(1) I, II, V, III, IV, VI
(2) IV, II, I, III, V, VI
(3) V, II, I, IV, III, VI
(4) II, I, IV, III, VI, V

99.
I. except that people got all excited
II. so I would not have cared
III. and talked quite a bit about
IV. the least about them
V. pouring verbal sauce around the forecasts
VI. what these figures were going to mean
(1) I, II, IV, V, III, VI
(2) I, III, II, IV, V, VI
(3) II, IV, I, III, VI, V
(4) V, II, IV, VI, I, III

Directions for questions 100 to 103: For each of the following questions select the answer pair that expresses a relationship most similar to that expressed in the capitalized pair.

100. OMNISCIENT : KNOWLEDGE::
(1) Saturnine : energy
(2) Boundless : expanse
(3) Inquisitive : science
(4) Complete : retraction

101. DISQUIETUDE : ANXIOUS::
(1) Nonplus : perplexed
(2) Cupidity : bellicose
(3) Embellishment : overstated
(4) Magnitude : unabridged

102. DEVIATE : LECTURE:
(1) Meander : drive
(2) Disown : friend
(3) Welcome : indifference
(4) Entreat : solicitation

103. NEBULOUS : FORM::
(1) Insincere : misanthrope
(2) Benevolent : excellence
(3) Insipid : taste
(4) Composed: innocence

Directions for questions 104 and 105: Select the correct sentence from the following.

104.
(1) He made a blunder mistake.
(2) I have learnt this lesson word by word.
(3) She does not know swimming.
(4) He got his daughter married.

105.
(1) The average male investor expects to see all his investment stocks moving up, and they are often disappointed.
(2) The people in my country are smarter than in other countries.
(3) The number of failures of product in final quality inspection are increasing every year.
(4) Before restructuring a firm, the CEO must consider the employees.

Section IV

106. Name the South Korean President who attended the Indian Republic Day Parade in 2 0l0 as a chief guest.
(1) Kim Yoon – Ok
(2) Ban Ki- Moon
(3) Lee Myung – Bak
(4) Chung Mong Koo

107. The Indian government auctioned the 3G spectrum in 22 telecom circles in 2010. Which three companies won the maximum number of circles in the auction?
a. R-Com
b. Airtel
c. Vodafone
d. Aircel
(1) a, b & c
(2) b, c & d
(3) a, c & d
(4) a, b & d

108. Which one of the following group of banks formed a joint venture in Life Insurance Sector?
(1) Canara Bank, HSBC, Oriental Bank of Commerce Limited
(2) Canara Bank, HDFC, Syndicate Bank
(3) HDFC, HSBC, Oriental Bank of Commerce Limited
(4) Canara Bank, Axis Bank, HDFC

109. Match the International Organization-Location- Country

(1) a-iii-2, b-iv-4, c-i-3, d-ii-1
(2) a-iv-4, b-iii-2, c-ii-1, d-i-3
(3) a-ii-4, b-iv-3, c-iii-1, d-i-2
(4) a-i-4, b-iii-1, c-ii-3, d-iv-2

110. Match the Women CEOs in 2010 and their respective Company and its Location.

(1) a-ii-4, b-iii-3, c-iv-1, d-i-2
(2) a-iii-3, b-iv-4, c-i-1, d-ii-2
(3) a-iii-2, b-i-4, c-iv-3, d-ii-1
(4) a-ii-1, b-iii-2, c-i-4, d-iv-3

111. Match the Acquiring Company with its Target Company.

(1) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
(2) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
(3) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(4) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

112. Match the Company an and its Tagline

(1) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(2) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
(3) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
(4) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

113. Match the name of the Indian Banks with their Brand Ambassadors for the year 2010.

(1) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
(2) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
(3) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(4) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

114. Match the following measuring instruments to the formal test methods which define the use of the Instrument

(1) a-v, b-i, c-iv, d-iii, e-ii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-v, d-iii, e-iv
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-i, e-ii

115. Name the Indian state having maximum number of Major Seaports.
(1) West Bengal
(2) Goa
(3) Gujarat

116. Match the National Highway route number to States that it covers?

(1) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(2) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
(3) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(4) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

117. Match the old name to the new name of the countries.

(1) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
(2) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(3) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
(4) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3

118. Match the Country, City and River

(1) a-i-3, b-iv-1, c-iii-2, d-ii-4
(2) a-iii-1, b-iv-3, c-i-4, d-ii-2
(3) a-iv-4, b-iii-1, c-i-2, d-ii-3
(4) a-iii-4, b-iv-1, c-i-3, d-ii-2

119. Match the Geographical Epithet to Country/ City.

(1) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(2) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
(3) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
(4) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3

120. The State Bank of India was known as Imperial Bank of India in 1921, which was an amalgamation of three banks namely.
(1) Bank of Bengal, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras
(2) Bank of Bengal, Bank of Punjab and Bank of Mysore
(3) Bank of Bombay, Syndicate Bank and Union Bank
(4) Bank of Madras, Mercantile Bank, Bank of Travancore

121. The Constitution of which country has influenced the inclusion of the “Emergency Provision” in the Indian Constitution.
(1) Germany
(3) USA
(4) Britain

122. Which one of the following national park established by government of India is the relatively the latest one?
(2) Khangchendzonga National Park, Sikkim
(3) Corbett National Park, Uttaranchal
(4) Tadoba National Park, Maharashtra

123. Who among the following is a recipient of the prestigious Dara Shikoh award by Indo-Iran Society for contributing towards nurturing the value of peace, harmony and brotherhood in 2010.
(1) Sheikh Hasina
(2) Sonia Gandhi
(3) Shiela Dixit
(4) Fatima Bhutto

124. Which one of the following Indian Union Territory is having the legislative assembly as of 2010.
(1) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(3) Puducherry
(4) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

125. Match the Lt Governors- Indian Union Territories- and the Capital.

(1) a-iii-2, b-i-3, c-iv-1, d-ii-4
(2) a-ii-4, b-iii-2, c-iv-3, d-i-1
(3) a-i-3, b-iv-1, c-ii-4, d-iii-2
(4) a-iv-1, b-i-3, c-ii-4, d-iii-2

126. Which one of the following structure has been included in UNESCO in 2010 as world cultural heritage list?
(1) Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus
(2) Jantar Mantar
(3) Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya
(4) Red Fort Complex

127. Match the following Head of the Staff to the concerned Defense forces.

(1) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
(2) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
(3) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
(4) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3

128. Which one of the following state is having maximum number of special economic zone (SEZ), notified under the SEZ Act, 2005.
(2) Maharashtra
(4) Karnataka

129. Match the following Brand to the Company.

(1) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
(2) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
(3) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
(4) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

130. Match the Countries – Name of the parliament – Currency

(1) a-iii-2, b-iv-1, c-i-4, d-ii-3
(2) a-ii-3, b-i-1, c-iv-4, d-iii-4
(3) a-iv-2, b-iii-1, c-ii-4, d-i-3
(4) a-ii-3, b-i-1, c-iii-4, d-iv-2

131. Name the sports personality who is not an ambassador for the Common WealthGames 2010.
(1) Samaranth Jung
(2) Sushil Kumar
(3) MC Mary Kom
(4) Tejeswini Sawant

132. Match the Central Public Sector Enterprises in India and their position

(1) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(2) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(3) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
(4) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

133. Select the country that has maximum share in FDI equity inflow in India as on June 2010.
(1) Germany
(2) UAE
(3) France
(4) Netherland

134. Which sector attracted minimum FDI equity Inflow in India in the year 2009 2010?
(1) Construction activities
(2) Housing and real estate
(3) Telecommunications
(4) Power

135. Match the Indian TV Channel to its Owners/ Parent Company

(1) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
(2) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(3) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
(4) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2