2010 SSC CGL Tier 1
Shift – 1
Question Paper with Answer Key
PART – A GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING
In each of the following questions, select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.
2. M/AC: N/AD:: O/AE: ?
4. 6:11 ::11:?
6. Sty: Pig::Byre:?
7. Patrol: Security:: insurance:?
9. In each of the folioing questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses.
B. 144, 169
C. 100, 121
10. In each of the folioing questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses.
11. In each of the folioing questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses.
D. D Storm
12. In each of the folioing questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses.
13. In each of the folioing questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses.
14. In each of the folioing questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses.
For the following questions answer them individually
15. Arrange the following words according to the dictionary?
1. Inventory 2. Involuntary 3. Invisible 4. Invariable 5. Investigate
A. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
B. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
C. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
D. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
16. Find the next two letters in the given series.
17. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
a_ b_ a_ _n_ bb_ abbn
18. Find out a set of numbers amongst the four sets of numbers given in the alternatives, which is the most similar to the numbers given in the question. Given:(6, 30, 90)
A. 6, 42, 86
B. 7, 42, 218
C. 6, 24, 70
19. Which one number is wrong in the given series? 126, 98, 70, 41, 14
20. Arrange the following in the meaningful/logical order 1. Exhaust 2. Night 3. Day 4. Sleep 5. Work
A. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
B. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
C. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
D. 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
21. 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29,?
22. AGMSY, CIOUA, EKQWC, ? , IOUAG, KQWCI
23. 975, 864, 753, 642, ?
24. 8, 24, 12, ? , 18,54
For the following questions answer them individually
25. Ashok’s mother was 3 times as old as Ashok 5 years ago. After 5 years she will be twice as old as Ashok. How old is Ashok today ?
A. 10 years
B. 15 years
C. 20 years
D. 25 years
26. M is the son of P. Q is the granddaughter of O, who is the husband of P. How is M related to O?
27. In a row of boys, Srinath is 7th from the left and Venkat is 12th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Srinath becomes 22nd from the left. How many boys are there in the row ?
28. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word given:
29. Only one meaningful word can be formed by rearranging the letter of the given jumbled word. Find out that word.
30. Which number is wrong in the given series ?
1, 9, 25, 50, 81
31. A bus leaves Delhi with half the number of women as men. At Meerut, ten men get down and five women get in. Now there are equal number of men and women. How many passengers boarded the bus initially at Delhi?
32. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, what day will it be three days after the day after tomorrow
In the following question, one statement is given followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given assumptions, if any, follow from the given statement.
33. Statement: Politicians become rich by the votes of the people.
I. People vote to make politician rich.
II. Politicians become rich by their virtue.
A. Only I is implicit
B. Only II is implicit
C. Both I and II are implicit
D. Both I and II are not implicit
In the following question, two statements P and Q are given followed by four conclusions III, III and IV. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if the seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow the given statements.
P. All men are women.
Q. All women are crazy.
I. All men are crazy.
II. All the crazy are men.
III. Some of the crazy are men.
IV. Some of the crazy are women
A. None of the conclusions follow
B. All the conclusions follow
C. Only 1, III and IV follow
D. Only II and III follow
For the following questions answer them individually
35. If HOSPITAL is written as 32574618 in a certain code, how would POSTAL be written in that code?
36. Find the missing number from the given responses.
173 (24) 526 431 (18) 325 253 (?) 471
37. After interchanging ÷ and +, 12 and 18, which one of the following equations becomes correct?
A. (90x 18)+ 18 = 60
B. (18+6)÷12 = 20
C. (72 =18) x 18 = 72
D. (12 + 6) x 18 = 36
38. If SPARK is coded as TQBSL, what will be the code for FLAME ?
39. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis of the given equations. If 6*5 = 91 8*7=16910*7 = 211 then 11 *10 = ?
40. A child is looking for his father. He went 90 metres in the east before turning to his right. He went 20 metres before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30 metres from this point. His father was not here. From here he went 100 metres to his north before meeting his father in a street. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?
A. 90 m
B. 100 m
C. 260 m
D. 140 m
41. In the following question, A stands for any of the mathematical signs at different places, which are given as choices under each question. Select the choice with the correct sequence of signs which when substituted makes the question as a correct equation. 24 A 4 A 5 A 4
A. x + =
B. = x +
C. + x =
D. = + x
42. What is the number missing from the third target?
5 9 15 16 29? 49 89 147
43. In a classroom, there are 5 rows, and 5 children A, B, C, D and E are seated one behind the other in 5 separate rows as follows: A is sitting behind C, but in front of B. C is sitting behind E. D is sitting in front of E. The order in which they are sitting from the first row to the last is
44. Little wooden cubes each with a side of one inch are put together to form a solid cube with a side of three inches. This big cube is then painted red all over on the outside. When the big cube is broken up into the original little ones, how any cubes will have paint on two sides ?
45. K is a plane which is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from the capital P R is another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from K. M is another place and that is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from R T is vet another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from M. In which direction is T located in relation to P?
46. Find out which of the diagrams given in the alternatives correctly represents the relationship stated in the question. Sharks, Whales, Turtles.
47. In this question, among the four answer figures, which figure can be formed from the cut-pieces given below in the question figure.
48. How many triangles are there in the following figure ?
49. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded in the same direction.
50. Which answer figure is the exact mirror image of the given question figure when the mirror is held from the right at PQ?
PART – B GENERAL AWARENESS
51. A concave lens always forms an image which is
A. real and erect
B. virtual and erect
C. real and inverted
D. virtual and inverted
52. A vitamin requires cobalt for its activity. The vitamin is
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B2
D. Vitamin A
53. One of the constituents of tear gas is
54. The modulus of rigidity is the ratio of
A. longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
B. Volume stress to volume strain
C. shearing stress to shearing strain
D. tensile stress to tensile strain
55. The propagation of sound waves in a gas involves
A. adiabatic compression and rarefaction
B. isothermal compression and rarefaction
C. isochoric compression and rarefaction
D. isobaric compression and rarefaction
56. An atomic clock is based on transitions in
57. Plasma membrane in eukaryotic cells is made up of
58. Which one of the following is also called the ‘power plants’ of the cell ?
A. Golgi body
59. What is the chemical name of vinegar ?
A. Citric acid
B. Acetic acid
C. Pyruvic acid
D. Malic acid
60. Which of the following is not a property of heavy water?
A. Boiling point of heavy water is lower than that or ordinary water
B. Density of heavy water is higher than that of ordinary water
C. Freezing point of heavy water is higher than that of ordinary water
D. It produces corrosion
61. In which of the following processes is energy released ?
62. Animals living in the three trunks are known as
63. Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Tughlaqs 2. Lodis 3. Saiyids 4. Ilbari Turks 5. Khiljis
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
C. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
D. 4, 5, 1,3, 2
64. The book titled ‘The Indian War of Independence’ was written by
A. Krishna Verma
B. Madame Carna
C. B.G. Tilak
D. V.D. Savarkar
65. Who was the founder of the ‘Servants of India Society’?
A. G.K Gokhale
B. M.G. Ranade
C. B.G. Tilak
D. Bipin Chandra Pal
66. The term ‘Caste’ was derived from
67. The term ‘Greater India’ denotes
A. Political unity
B. Cultural unity
C. Religious unity
D. Social unity
68. Formalised system of trading agreements with groups of count
A. Trading blocks
B. Trade ventures
C. Trade partners
D. Trade organizations
69. Mahatma Gandhi was profoundly influenced by the writings of
A. Bernard Shaw
B. Karl Marx
D. Leo Tolstoy
70. Seismic sea waves which approach the coasts at greater force are known as:
71. Depression formed due to deflating action of winds are called?
D. Sand dunes
72. The land of maximum biodiversity is
73. If input frequency of a full wave rectifier be n, then output frequency would be:
74. Heat transfer horizontally within the atmosphere is called
75. Indian Standard Time relates to
A. 75.5° E longitude
B. 82.5° E longitude
C. 90.5° E longitude
D. 0° longitude
76. Who is rightly called the ‘Father of Local Self Government’ in India ?
A. Lord Mayo
B. Lord Ripon
C. Lord Curzon
D. Lord Clive
77. The Directive Principles of State Policy was adopted from the
A. British Constitution
B. Swiss Constitution
C. U.S. Constitution
D. Irish Constitution
78. Which is the second nearest star to the Earth after the Sun ?
C. Proxima Centaur
D. Alpha Centauri
79. The two forms of democracy are
A. Parliamentary and Presidential
B. Direct and Indirect
C. Monarchical and Republican
D. Parliamentary and King
80. Which is an extra-Constitutional body ?
A. Language Commission
B. Planning Commission
C. Election Commission
D. Finance Commission
81. The Prime Minister of India is
82. Which is not an All India Service?
A. Indian Administration Service
B. Indian Police Service
C. Indian Foreign Service
D. Indian Forest Service
83. The forest in Sunderban is called
A. Scrub jungle
C. Deciduous forest
84. Noise is measured in
85. Who among the following captured his third consecutive National Billiards title in the year 2009
A. Pankaj Advani
B. Devendra Joshi
C. Geet Sethi
D. Dhruv Sitawala
86. The Messenger Satellite launched by NASA is to study
87. What was the name of the ship that sank near the Paradip Port in September, 2009 causing an oil spill?
A. Red Rose
B. Black Rose
C. White Rose
D. Green Rose
88. Who among the following has been honoured with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2007?
A. Yash Chopra
B. Ustsad Amjad Ali Khan
C. Manna Dey
D. A. Nageshwara Rao
89. An Intelligent terminal
A. has a microprocessor, but cannot be programmed by the user
B. can process small data processing jobs, with the use of a large CPU
C. interacts with the user in English
D. cannot take data from the user
90. Which one of the following is not a method of estimating National Income ?
A. Expenditure method
B. Product method
C. Matrix method
D. Income method
91. The monetary policy is India is formulated by
A. Central Government
B. Industrial Financial Corporation of India
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. Industrial Development Bank of India
92. A short-term government security paper is called
C. Mutual fund
D. Treasury bill
93. WTO basically promotes
A. Financial support
B. Global peace
C. Unilateral trade
D. Multilateral trade
94. Under which market condition do firms have excess capacity ?
A. Perfect competition
B. Monopolistic competition
95. Price theory is also known as
A. Macro Economics
B. Development Economics
C. Public Economics
D. Micro Economics
96. At present, India is following
A. Fixed exchange rate
B. Floating exchange rate
C. Pegged up exchange rate
D. Pegged down exchange rate
97. Who among the following won the ‘ICC Cricketer of the Year Award’ for the year 2009 ?
A. M .S. Dhoni
B. Gautam Gambhir
C. Mitchell Johnson
D. Tillakaratne Dilshan
98. The bats can fly in the dark because
A. they can see the objects in darkness
B. they have weak legs and are likely to be attacked by predators
C. they generate flashes of light
D. they generate ultrasonic sound waves
99. What changes will happen to a bowl of ice and water kept at exactly zero degree Celsius ?
A. All ice will melt
B. All water will become ice
C. No change will happen
D. Only some ice will melt
100. National Income is the
A. Net National Product at market price
B. Net National Product at factor cost
C. Net Domestic Product at market price
D. Net domestic Product at factor cost
PART – C QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
101. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of, two numbers are 8 and 48 respectively. If one of the numbers is 24, then the other number is
102. The greatest number, which when subtracted from 5834, gives a number exactly divisible by each of 20, 28, 32 and 35, is
103. The ninth term of the sequence 0, 3, 8,15, 24, 35, is
104. x+ y = 9 and x/y = 1.25, then y/x is equal to
105. The sum of the series (1 + 0.6 + 0.06 + 0.006 + 0.0006 + ….) is
A. 1 2/3
B. 1 1/3
C. 2 1/3
D. 2 2/3
107. A number, when divided by 114, leaves remainder 21. If the same number is divided by 19, then the remainder will be
108. The square root of 0.09 is
109. The number 0.121212……. in the P from p/q is equal to
110. If (3/5)3 (3/5)-6= (3/5)2x-1 then x is equal to
111. Two numbers are in the ratio 3:4. Their L.C.M. is 84. The greater number is
112. A drum of kerosene is 3/4 full. When 30 litres of kerosene is drawn from it, it remains 1/2 full. The capacity of the drum is
A. 120 litres
B. 135 litres
C. 150 litres
D. 180 litres
113. By what least number should 675 be multiplied so as to obtain a perfect cube number ?
114. 1 1/2 + 11 1/2 + 111 1/2 + 1111 1/2 is equal to
115. 0.001 is equal to
116. 0 4.41 x 0.16/2.1 x 1.6 x 0.21 is equal to
117. If a and b are two odd positive integers, by which of the following integers is (a4 – b4) always divisible ?
118. If a = 11 and b = 9, then the value of a2+b2+ab/a3-b3 is
119. 256×256-144×144/112 is equal to
120. If a and b be positive integers such that a2 — b2 = 19, then the value of a is
121. If the ratio of cost price and selling price of an article be as 10:11, the percentage of profit is
122. A manufacturer marked an article at Rs. 50 and sold it allowing 20% discount. If his profit was 25%, then the cost price of the article was
A. Rs. 40
B. Rs. 35
C. Rs. 32
D. Rs. 30
123. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost price and the printed price of the book is
124. By selling a bicycle for Rs. 2,850, a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is reduced to 8%, then the selling price will be
A. Rs. 2,600
B. Rs. 2,700
C. Rs. 2,800
D. Rs. 3,000
125. By selling an article, a man makes a profit of 25% of its selling price. His profit per cent is
126. If A’s income is 50% less than that of B’s, then B’s income is what per cent more than that of A?
127. 1.14 expressed as a per cent of 1.9 is
128. Two natural numbers are in the ratio 3:5 and their product is 2160. The smaller of the numbers is
129. If 60% of A = 48% of B, then A:B is
130. Two successive price increase of 10% and 10% of an article are equivalent to a single price increase of
132. An equilateral triangle of side 6 cm has its corners out off to form a regular hexagon. Area (in cm2) of this regular hexagon will be ?
133. The length (in metres) of the longest rod that can he put in a room of dimensions 10m x 10m x 5m is
D. 5 √3/2
134. If Rs. 1000 is divided between A and B in the ratio 3:2, then A will receive
A. Rs. 400
B. Rs. 500
C. Rs. 600
D. Rs. 800
135. What must be added to each term of the ratio 7:11, so as to make it equal to 3:4 ?
136. A sum of money at compound interest doubles itself in 15 years. It will become eight times of itself in?
A. 45 years
B. 48 years
C. 54 years
D. 60 years
137. Buses start from a bus terminal with a speed of 20 km/hr at intervals of 10 minutes. What is the speed of a man coming from the opposite direction towards the bus terminal if he meets the buses at intervals of 8 minutes ?
A. 3 km/hr
B. 4 km/hr
C. 5 km/hr
D. 7 km/hr
138. If the circumference of a circle is decreased by 50% then the percentage of decrease in its area is:
139. At what rate per cent per annum will a sum of Rs. 1,000 amount to Rs. 1,102.50 in 2 years at compound interest?
140. What annual payment will discharge a debt of Rs. 6,450 due in 4 years at 5% per annum simple interest ?
A. Rs. 1,400
B. Rs. 1,500
C. Rs. 1,550
D. Rs. 1,600
141. The average of the first 100 positive integers is
142. In a family, the average age of a father and a mother is 35 years. The average age of the father, mother and their only son is 27 years. What is the age of the son?
A. 12 years
B. 11 years
C. 10.5 years
D. 10 years
143. If 5 men or 7 women can earn Rs. 5,250 per day, how much would 7 men and 13 women earn per day?
A. Rs. 11,600
B. Rs. 11,700
C. Rs. 16,100
D. Rs. 17,100
144. If A and B together can complete a piece of work in 15 days and B alone in 20 days, in how many days can A alone complete the work ?
145. By walking at 3/4 of his usual speed, a man reaches his office 20 minutes later than his usual time. The usual time taken by him to reach his office is
A. 75 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 30 minutes
146. A can complete a piece of work in 18 days, B in 20 days and C in 30 days. B and C together start the work and are forced to leave after 2 days. The time taken by A alone to complete the remaining work is
A. 10 days
B. 12 days
C. 15 days
D. 16 days
147. A train, 300m long, passed a man, walking along the line in the same direction at the rate of 3 km/hr in 33 seconds. The speed of the train is
A. 30 km/h
B. 32 km/h
C. 32.8 km/h
D. 35.7 km/h
The pie chart, given here, represents the number of valid votes obtained by four students who contested election for school leadership. The total number of valid votes polled was 720. Observe the chart and answer the questions based on it. (Q. No 148 to 150)
148. What was the minimum number of votes obtained by any candidate?
149. What was the winner?
150. By how many votes did the winner defeat his nearest rival ?
PART – D ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. Your answer is ‘d’ i.e., No error.
151. He is a university professor/but of his three sons/neither has any merit./No error.
A. He is a university professor
B. but of his three sons
C. neither has any merit.
D. No error
152. After knowing truth,/they took the right decision/in the matter./No error.
A. After knowing truth,
B. they took the right decision
C. in the matter.
D. No error
153. It is time you/decide on your next/course of action./No error.
A. It is time you
B. decide on your next
C. course of action.
D. No error
154. He who has suffered most/for the cause,/let him speak/No error.
A. He who has suffered most
B. for the cause,
C. let him speak
D. No error
155. A cup of coffee/is an excellent complement/to smoked salmon./No error.
A. A cup of coffee
B. is an excellent complement
C. to smoked salmon.
D. No error
Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
156. The hotel was not too expensive
A. was it ?
B. wasn’t it?
C. is it?
D. isn’t it ?
157. Like humans, zoo animals must have a dentist to_____ their teeth
D. to be filled
158. It was very kind of you to do the washing-up, but you ______ it.
A. didn’t have to do
B. hadn’t to do
C. mightn’t have done
D. mustn’t have done
159. He went_____ sea alone.
160. The_____ of our civilization from an agricultural society to today’s complex industrial world was accompanied by war.
In the following questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
A. In excitable
In the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
A. Luxury- lovely
In the following questions a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at a, b and c which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is d.
171. Obviously he isn’t cut up to be a good teacher.
A. cut out
B. cut in
C. cut for
D. No improvement
172. Power got with money is the most craved for today.
A. sought after
B. wished for
C. welcomed for
D. No improvement
173. The brown shirt wants washing.
A. has to wash
B. is in need or a wash
C. requires awash
D. No improvement
174. You are asked to copy this letter word by word.
A. word for word
B. word with word
C. word to word
D. No improvement
175. The weak man is a slave to his sensuous pleasures.
D. No improvement
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
176. An underhand device resorted to in order to justify misconduct
177. Impossible to describe
178. One who criticises popular beliefs which he thinks is mistaken or unwise
179. Detaining and confining someone
180. Science of the races of mankind
In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
In the following questions, the 1 stand the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer.
186. 1. Education in India had a glorious beginning.
P. But after the British rule, it faced many changes.
Q. It went on for centuries with the same glory.
R. English as the medium of instruction had a very great response.
S. One of the changes was the introduction of English as the medium of instruction.
6. As the Britishers left we had a complexity of opinions regarding English
187. 1. It is easy to criticize the people at the helm, for the slow progress in every field.
P. We are well aware that the intellectuals are leaving our country for better employment opportunities.
Q. Then question remains unanswered because our country cannot show opportunities to the intellectuals.
R. Then, what about their obligation to the Motherland ?
S. First, we should ask ourselves as to what is happening to the young intellectuals in India.
6. This situation of ‘Brain-Drain’ leads to a variety of problems.
188. 1. it is the responsibility of parents to teach the young moral values in life.
P. Many children take advantage of their parents’ busy schedule.
Q. This results in children’s ignorance of social values.
R. The reason behind it is that parents are quite busy nowadays.
S. Nowadays parents spend very meagre time with children.
6. As such, the society is going away from the value system.
189. 1. The man who does his duty without any selfish desire for fruit may be called a sanyasi as well as yogi.
P. The man who has achieved much evenness of temper will be serene, because his mere thoughts are changed with the strength of action.
Q. He would practise yoga, i.e., evenness of temper, and cannot but perform action.
R. The root of the matter is that one should not allow his mind to flit from object of desire to another and from that to a third.
S. But he who abstains from action altogether is only an idler.
6. A yogi is one who is not attached to his objects of sense or to action and whose mind has ceased to roam restlessly.
190. 1. This was an important day for at took.
P. It was a cold day, but Alatook would be warm.
Q. For the first time he was going to hunt seals alone.
R. First he put on his fur-lined jacket.
S. Then he put on mittens and boots of deerskin to protect his hands and feet from the cold.
6. Finally he picked up the gun he had cleaned so carefully the day before.
In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice, Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/ Active Voice.
191. They have made a film based on this novel.
A. A film was based on this novel and made.
B. A film have been made based on, this novel.
C. A film, based on this novel, has been made
D. A film has been based and made on this novel.
192. The people couldn’t move me to the hospital and the doctor operated on me at home.
A. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and was operated on at home by the doctor.
B. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and I had to be operated on at home.
C. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and I was operated at home by the doctor.
D. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital by the people and operated on at home.
193. Why did he deprive you of the membership ?
A. Why you were deprived of the membership?
B. Why were you deprived of his membership by him ?
C. Why was he deprived of his membership
D. Why were you deprived of your membership by him ?
194. The news has been brought to us by him.
A. He brought us the news.
B. He has brought us the news.
C. He was brought the news to us.
D. We brought the news to him.
195. Not a word was spoken by the criminal in self defence.
A. The criminal spoke not a word in self defence.
B. The criminal in self defence spoke no word.
C. The criminal did not speak a word in self defence.
D. The criminal spoke in self defence not a word.
In the following passage, you have one brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
PASSAGE: Every profession or, trade, every art and every science has its technical vocabulary, the function of which is partly to designate things or processes which have no names in ordinary English and partly to secure greater exactness in nomenclature. Such special dialects or jargons are necessary in technical discussion of any kind. Being universally understood by the devotees of the particular science or art, they have the precision of a mathematical formula. Besides, they save time, for it is much more economical to name a process than to describe it. Thousands of these technical terms are very properly included in every large dictionary, yet, as a whole, they are rather on the outskirts of the English language than actually within its borders. Different occupations, however, differ widely in the character of their special vocabularies. In trades and handicrafts and other vocations like farming and fishing that have occupied great numbers of men from remote times, the technical vocabulary is very old. An average man now uses these in his own vocabulary. The special dialects of law, medicine, divinity and philosophy have become familiar to cultivated persons.
196. Special words used in technical discussion
A. may become part of common speech
B. never last long
C. should resemble mathematical formula
D. should be confined to scientific fields
197. The writer of this article is
A. a scientist
B. a politician
C. a linguist
D. a businessman
198. This passage is primarily concerned with
A. various occupations and professions
B. technical terminology
C. scientific undertakings
D. a new language
199. It is true that
A. various professions and occupations often interchange words
B. there is always a non-technical word that may be substituted for the technical word
C. the average man often uses in his own vocabulary what was once technical language not meant for him
D. everyone is interested in scientific findings
200. In recent years, there has been a marked increase in the number of technical terms in the nomenclature of