2012 SSC CGL Tier 1
1 Jul Shift – 1
Question Paper with Answer Key


1. The National Commission for Minorities was constituted in the year
A. 1990
B. 1992
C. 1980
D. 1989

2. The first Indian who was chosen as the Secretary General of Commonwealth is
A. Rakesh Verma
B. Gopalaswami 60
C. Krishna Murthy
D. Kamalesh Sharma

3. In which of the following systems of government is bicameralism an essential feature ?
A. Federal system
B. Unitary system
C. Parliamentary system
D. Presidential system

4. Kuldip Nayer, a journalist, was appointed as a High Commissioner in
A. Sri Lanka
B. Australia
D. Pakistan

5. Which king is referred to as Devanampiya Piyadassi (Beloved of the Gods) in the inscriptions ?
A. Asoka
B. Harsha
C. Bindusara
D. Chandragupta Maurya

6. Socialism succeeds in achieving
A. higher standard of living of the people
B. equal distribution of income in the society
C. higher individual welfare in the society
D. maximum social welfare in the society

7. Monopolist resorts to price discrimination depending upon the
A. Elasticity of supply
B. Elasticity of demand
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply

8. Economic planning is an essential feature of
A. Socialist economy
B. Capitalist economy
C. Mixed economy
D. Dual economy

9. The HYV programme in India is also called as
A. Traditional Agriculture
B. New Agricultural Strategy
C. White Revolution
D. Blue Revolution

10. The National Policy for Empowerment of Women was adopted in the year
A. 2001
B. 2005
C. 1991
D. 1995

11. Ballots were first used in
A. Australia
C. Ancient Greece
D. England

12. The Rashtriya Barh Ayog (RBA) is related with
A. Droughts and Floods
B. Poverty Alleviation
C. Floods
D. Disaster Management

13. Which of the following criteria is not used for the classification of human races ?
A. Nose
B. Hair
C. Eyes
D. Ear

14. Railway coaches are manufactured at
A. Jamshedpur
B. Chittaranjan
C. Perambur
D. Varanasi

15. Fertilization occurs normally in the
A. Cervix
B. Vagina
C. Fallopian tube
D. Uterus

16. People consuming alcohol in heavy quantities generally die of
A. liver or stomach cancer
B. weakening of heart muscles leading to cardiac arrest
C. blood cancer
D. Cirrhosis

17. The organisms at the base of the grazing food chain are
A. Carnivores
B. Decomposers
C. Producers
D. Herbivores

18. Who among the following was credited with the destruction of ‘Chihalgani’, a group of powerful nobles ?
A. Balban
B. Qutbuddin Aibak
C. Iltutmish
D. Razia Sultan

19. Bombay was given away as dowry to the English King Charles II for marrying the Princess of
A. France
B. Portugal
C. Holland
D. Denmark

20. The Grand Trunk Road built by Shershah connected Punjab with
A. Agra
B. East Bengal
C. Lahore
D. Multan

21. Name the Maratha Saint who was a contemporary of Shivaji.
A. Saint Eknath
B. Saint Tukaram
C. Saint Dhyaneshwar
D. Namdev

22. The study of lake is called
A. Topology
B. Hydrology
C. Limnology
D. Potomology

23. A series of lines connecting places having a quake at the same time are called
A. Homoseismal lines
B. Seismolines
C. Coseismal lines
D. Isoseismal lines

24. ‘Lumen’ is the unit of
A. Illuminance
B. Brightness
C. Luminous flux
D. Luminous intensity

25. The transfer of date from a CPU to peripheral devices of computer is achieved through
A. interfaces
B. buffer memory
C. modems
D. computer ports

26. Which of the following items is not used in Local Area Networks (LANs) ?
A. Interface Card
B. Cable
C. Computer
D. Modem

27. The mass of 10 moles of water is
A. 90 g
B. 45 g
C. 18 g
D. 180 g

28. Vitamin A is rich in
A. Carrot
B. Lime
C. Beans
D. Rice

29. The high boiling point of water compared to hydrogen sulphide or hydrogen chloride is due to
A. Dipole insulation
B. Vander Waal’s attraction
C. Polar covalent bonding
D. Hydrogen bonding

30. Which of the following determines the chemical properties of an element ?
A. Number of electrons
B. Number of neutrons
C. All of the above
D. Number of protons

31. The Central Drug Research Institute of India is located at
A. Madras
B. Lucknow
C. Delhi
D. Bangalore

32. Which of the following cereals was among the first to be used by man ?
A. Rye
B. Wheat
C. Barley
D. Oat

33. Which of the following wheat species are being cultivated in India ?
A. Club wheat
B. Durum wheat
C. Emmer wheat
D. Bread wheat

34. Which one of the following forces is a ‘dissipative force’ ?
A. Electrostatic force
B. Magnetic force
C. Gravitational force
D. Frictional force

35. If a resistive wire is elongated, its resistance
A. Decreases
B. remains constant
C. increases
D. All of the above

36. If a magnet has a third pole, then the third pole is called
A. defective pole
B. consequent pole
C. extra pole
D. arbitrary pole

37. How many spokes are there in the Dharmachakra of the National Flag ?
A. 14
B. 18
C. 22
D. 24

38. The latest official language of the U.N. is
A. Russian
B. Arabic
C. Chinese
D. Spanish

39. Srikrishna Committee Report, which was made public in 2011, is related to
A. rejuvenation of higher education
B. demand for a separate Telangana State
C. ragging in educational institutions
D. impeachment of Justice Dinakaran

40. The latest book ‘Kurukshetra to Kargil’ is written by
A. Suryanath Singh
B. Kunal Bhardwaj
C. Karan Singh
D. Kuldip Singh

41. The Educational Development Index (EDI) Report, released in 2011, is led by
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Pondicherry
C. Kerala
D. Lakshadweep

42. Shunglu Committee, which submitted its report in 2011, is related to
A. Commonwealth Games scandal
B. reforms in the Insurance sector
C. revamp of Defence management
D. management of Cooperative Sector

43. The 65th National Football Championship (Santosh Trophy 2011) was won by
A. Bengal
B. Punjab
C. Manipur
D. Goa

44. The organisation involved primarily with environmental planning is

45. What would be the impact of global warming on mangrove forests ?
A. They will grow more luxurious
B. Large areas of mangroves will be submerged
C. Their role as carbon sinks will become more important
D. Both (a) and (c) above

46. The sweet taste of fruits is due to
A. Lactose
B. Fructose
C. Maltose
D. Ribose

47. The most endangered Asiatic top predator on the edge of extinction is
A. Black Bear
B. Asiatic Lion
C. Siberian Tiger
D. Dhole

48. Analects is the sacred book of
A. Confucianism
B. Judaism
C. Shintoism
D. Taoism

49. The seat of Madhya Pradesh High Court is located at
A. Gwalior
B. Indore
C. Bhopal
D. Jabalpur

50. The brightest planet is
A. Venus
B. Mercury
C. Jupiter
D. Mars


In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is (d), i.e., No error.

51. You do not (a)/ look as (b)/ your brother, (c)/ No error (d)
A. You do not
B. look as
C. your brother.
D. No error

52. My elder brother (a)/ is six (b)/ foot high.(c)/ No error (d)
A. My elder brother
B. is six
C. foot high.
D. No error

53. Without no proof of your guilt (a)/ the only course open to me (b)/ is to dismiss the case, (c)/ No error (d)
A. Without no proof of your guilt
B. the only course open to me
C. is to dismiss the case.
D. No error

54. As we see it, (a)/ she appears to be unreasonable (b)/ anxious about pleasing her husband, (c)/ No error (d)
A. As we see it,
B. she appears to be unreasonable
C. anxious about pleasing her husband.
D. No error

55. The scissor is (a) / lying on (b)/the table, (c)/ No error (d)
A. The scissor is
B. lying on
C. the table.
D. No error

In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

56. The Union Budget is likely to be presented on February 26, two days ahead of the____ date.
A. Critical
B. conventional
C. suitable
D. convenient

57. I am sorry_____ the mistake.
A. From
B. with
C. for
D. at

58. He______ her that she would pass.
A. Insured
B. Ensured
C. assumed
D. assured

59. Your father______ worry. I’m a very careful driver.
A. needn’t
B. none
C. can’t
D. doesn’t

60. The____ chosen for construction of the building is in the heart of the city.
A. Cite
B. Slight
C. sight
D. site

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word as your answer.

61. Nexus
A. connection
B. distance
C. deficit
D. difference

62. Mammoth
A. straight
B. huge
C. wild
D. greedy

63. Hyperbole
A. Expansion
B. Imitation
C. Decoration
D. Exaggeration

64. apology
A. Eulogy
B. address
C. speech
D. praise

65. Menacingly
A. Dangerously
B. Threateningly
C. Harmfully
D. Hideously

In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word as your answer.

66. Impeccable
A. faulty
B. tedious
C. flashy
D. boring

67. Amalgamate
A. separate
B. combine
C. assimilate
D. integrate

68. Zenith
A. Climax
B. Crisis
C. acme
D. Nadir

69. Influx
A. Reflex
B. Deflection
C. Effluent
D. Exodus

70. Orderly
A. Semitic
B. Colic
C. Democratic
D. Chaotic

In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase as your answer.

71. Ram is very calculative and always has an axe to grind.
A. has no result
B. works for both sides
C. has a private agenda
D. fails to arouse interest

72. The police looked all over for him but drew a blank.
A. did not find him
B. put him in prison
C. arrested him
D. took him to court

73. On the issue of marriage, Sarita put her foot down.
A. stood up
B. was firm
C. got down
D. walked fast

74. His investments helped him make a killing in the stock market.
A. lose money quickly
B. plan a murder quickly
C. murder someone quickly
D. make money quickly

75. There is no gainsaying the fact that the country is in difficulties.
A. ignoring
B. hiding
C. forgetting
D. denying

In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).

76. Sordid and sensational books tend to vitiate the public taste.
A. Divide
B. distract
C. distort
D. No improvement

77. By studying AIDS has engaged many researchers in the last decade.
A. Important study
B. Now that the study
C. The study of
D. No improvement

78. His Master’s thesis was highly estimated and is now being prepared for publication.
A. was highly discussed
B. was highly commended
C. is highly appraised
D. No improvement

79. No sooner had she realized her blunder than she began to take corrective measures.
A. then she began to take
B. than she began taking
C. when she began to take
D. No improvement

80. A good scholar must be precise and possess originality.
A. must be precise and original
B. must be possess precision and original
C. must be precision and possess originality
D. No improvement

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

81. One who loves books
A. Bibliophile
B. Bibliophagist
C. Bibliophoebe
D. Bibliographer

82. Speaking without preparation
A. Deliberate
B. Fluent
C. Loquacious
D. Extempore

83. Special trial of the Head of State by Parliament
A. Impingement
B. Infringement
C. Impeachment
D. Impediment

84. Someone able to use both hands with equal skill
A. Ambivalent
B. Amphibious
C. Ambiguous
D. Ambidextrous

85. Cure for all diseases
A. Curable
B. Panacea
C. Incurable
D. Curative

In the following questions, there are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

A. Pleintive
B. sustein
C. villain
D. alleince

A. cornissioner
B. commissionar
C. commisioner
D. commissioner

A. Aprentice
B. advertise
C. treatice
D. sencitive

A. Suprintendent
B. supirentendent
C. superintendent
D. superentendent

A. Symetry
B. symmitry
C. symatry
D. symmetry

In the following questions, you have a brief passage with 5 questions following it. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Two years later, in November 1895, he signed his final will. He left the bulk of his fortune, amounting to about Rs. 1,75,000 to a trust fund administered by Swedish and Norwegian trustees. The annual interest shall be awarded as prizes to those persons who during the previous year have rendered the greatest services to mankind. The interest shall be divided into five equal parts — now amounting to about £ 8,000 each one of which shall be awarded to the person who has made the most important discovery or invention in the realm of physics, one to the person who has made the most important chemical discovery or improvement, one to the person who has made the most important physiological or medical discovery, one to the person who has produced the most outstanding work of literature, idealistic in character, and one to the person who has done the best work for the brotherhood of nations, the abolition or reduction of standing armies, as well as for the formation or popularization of peace congress.

91. The said prize is awarded
A. once in 5 years
B. every year
C. once in 4 years
D. once in 2 years

92. Which is the prize that is referred to in the passage ?
A. Nobel Prize
B. Magsaysay Award
C. Pulitzer Prize
D. Booker Prize

93. The number of prizes in the field of science are
A. Four
B. One
C. Three
D. Five

94. Total annual prize money amounts to
A. Rs. 8,000
B. Rs. 1,750,000
C. Rs. 350,000
D. Rs. 40,000

95. Prize is awarded for outstanding work in
A. Chemistry
B. Literature
C. Physics
D. All the above

In the following questions, you have a brief passage with 5 questions following it. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
If an opinion contrary to your own makes you angry, that is a sign that you are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for thinking, as you do. If someone maintains that two and two are five, or that Iceland is on the Equator, you feel pity rather than anger, unless you know so little of arithmetic or geography that his opinion shakes your own contrary conviction.

96. If someone else’s opinion makes us angry, it means that
A. we are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for becoming angry
B. there may be good reasons for his opinion but we are not consciously aware of them
C. our own opinion is not based on good reason and we know this subconsciously
D. we are not consciously aware of any reason for our own opinion

97. ‘Your own contrary conviction” refers to
A. the fact that you feel pity rather than anger
B. the opinion that two and two are four and that Iceland is a long way from the Equator
C. the opinion that two and two are five and that Iceland is on the Equator
D. the fact that you know so little about arithmetic or geography

98. Conviction means
A. persuasion
B. disbelief
C. strong belief
D. ignorance

99. the writer says if someone maintains that two and two are five you feel pity because you
A. have sympathy
B. don’t agree with him
C. want to help the person
D. feel sorry for his ignorance

100. The second sentence in the passage
A. builds up the argument of the first sentence by restating it from the opposite point of view
B. makes the main point which has only been introduced by the first sentence
C. simply adds, a further point to the argument already stated in the first sentence
D. illustrates the point made in the first sentence


For the following questions answer them individually

101. P and Q are two points observed from the top of a building 10√3 m high. If the angles of depression of the points are complementary and PQ = 20m, then the distance of P from the building is
A. 25 m
B. 45 m
C. 30 m
D. 40 m

102. If A and B are complementary angles, then the value of sin A cos B + cos A sin B tan A tan B + sec2 A — cot2B is
A. 2
B. 0
C. 1
D. -1

103. The least value of 2sin2 Ө + 3cos2Ө is
A. 3
B. 5
C. 1
D. 2

104. A, O, B are three points on a line segment and C is a point not lying on AOB. If ∠AOC = 40° and OX, OY are the internal and external bisectors of ∠AOC respectively, then ∠BOY is
A. 70°
B. 80°
C. 72°
D. 68°

105. If 4x = sec Ө and 4/x = tan Ө then (x2 -1/x2) is
A. 1/16
B. 1/8
C. ½
D. 1/4

106. If 2 – cos2 Ө = 3 sin Ө cos Ө, sin Ө ≠ cos Ө then tan Ө is
A. 1/2
B. 0
C. 2/3
D. 1/3

107. If sin Ө + cos Ө = √2 cos (90 – Ө), then cot Ө is
A. √2 +1
B. 0
C. √2
D. √2-1

108. If xsin3Ө + ycos3Ө = sinӨ cosӨ and x sin Ө = y cos Ө, sin Ө ≠ 0, cos Ө ≠ 0, then x2 + y2 is
A. 1/√2
B. ½
C. 1
D. √2

109. In the following figure, O is the centre of the circle and XO is perpendicular to OY. If the area of the triangle XOY is 32, then the area of the circle is

A. 64 π
B. 256 π
C. 16 π
D. 32 π

110. The side BC of ΔABC is produced to D. If ∠ACD = 108° and ∠B = ∠A/2, then ∠A is
A. 36°
B. 72°
C. 108°
D. 59°

111. Two circles of radii 4 cm and 9 cm respectively touch each other externally at a point and a common tangent touches them at the points P and Q respectively. Then the area of a square with one side PQ, is
A. 97 sq. cm
B. 194 sq.cm
C. 72 sq.cm
D. 144 sq.cm

112. Two tangents are drawn from a point P to a circle at A and B. 0 is the centre of the circle. If ∠AOP = 60°. then ∠APB is
A. 120°
B. 90°
C. 60°
D. 30°

113. If each interior angle is double of each exterior angle of a regular polygon with n sides, then the value of n is
A. 8
B. 10
C. 5
D. 6

114. If the length of the side PQ of the rhombus PQRS is 6 cm and ∠PQR = 120°, then the length of QS, in cm, is
A. 4
B. 6
C. 3
D. 5

115. The angle formed by the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 2 : 15 p.m. is
A. 27.5°
B. 45°
C. 22.5°
D. 30°

116. Two sides of a triangle are of length 4 cm and 10 cm. If the length of the third side is ‘a cm, then
A. a > 5
B. 6 ≤ a ≤ 12
C. a < 6
D. 6

117. If x = (0.08)2, y =1/(0.08)2 and z = (1 – 0.08)2 – 1, then out of the following, the true relation is
A. y < x and x = z
B. x < y and x = z
C. y < z < x
D. z

118. In xy plane, P and Q are two points having coordinates (2, 0) and (5, 4) respectively. Then the numerical value of the area of the circle with radius PQ, is
A. 16π
B. 32π
C. 14π
D. 25 π

119. If x4 + 1/x4 = 23, then the value of (x -1/x)2 will be
A. 7
B. -7
C. -3
D. 3

A. 3
B. 10
C. 8
D. 2

121. If x + 1/x = 12, the value of x2 + 1/x2 is
A. 142
B. 126
C. 113
D. 129

122. sec4Ө — sec2 Ө is equal to
A. tan2 Ө — tan4 Ө
B. tan2 Ө + tan4 Ө
C. cos4 Ө — cos2 Ө
D. cos2 Ө — cos4 Ө

123. In ΔABC, AD is the median and AD = 1/2 BC. If ∠BAD = 30°, then measure of ∠ACB is
A. 90°
B. 45°
C. 30°
D. 60°

124. If √6 x √15 = x√10, then the value of x is
A. 3
B. ± 3
C. √3
D. √6

125. 3- 3+√5/4 – 1/3+√5
A. 0
B. 3/2
C. √5/2
D. √5

126. If a + b + 1 =0, then the value of (a3 + b3 + 1 —3ab) is
A. 3
B. 0
C. -1
D. 1

127. In the xy coordinate system, if (a, b) and (a + 3, b + k) are two points on the line defined by the equation x = 3y – 7, then k = ?
A. 7/3
B. 1
C. 9
D. 3

128. The average age of four boys, five years ago was 9 years. On including a new boy, the present average age of all the five is 15 years. The present age of the new boy is
A. 14 years
B. 6 years
C. 15 years
D. 19 years

129. If the average of 39, 48, 51, 63, 75, 83, x and 69 is 60, then the value of x is
A. 52
B. 53
C. 50
D. 51

130. The cost of a piece of diamond varies with the square of its weight. A diamond of Rs. 5,184 value is cut into 3 pieces whose weights are in the ratio 1:2:3. Find the loss involved in the cutting.
A. Rs. 3,068
B. Rs. 3,088
C. Rs. 3,175
D. Rs. 3,168

131. A discount of 30% on the marked price of a toy reduces its selling price by Rs. 30. What is the new selling price (in Rs.) ?
A. 70
B. 21
C. 130
D. 100

132. The capacities of two hemispherical vessels are 6.4 litres and 21.6 litres. The ratio of their inner radii is
A. 4 : 9
B. 16 : 81
C. √2 : √3
D. 2:3

133. Pipe A alone can fill a tank in 8 hours. Pipe B alone can fill it in 6 hours. If both the pipes are opened and after 2 hours pipe A is closed, then the other pipe will fill the tank in
A. 6 hours
B. 3.5 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 2.5 hours

134. If (a – b) = 3, (b – c) = 5 and (c – a) = 1, then the value of a3+b3+c3-3abc/a+b+c is
A. 17.5
B. 20.5
C. 10.5
D. 15.5

135. The population of a town is 15000. If the number of males increases by 8% and that of females by 10%, then the population would increase to 16300. Find the number of females in the town.
A. 4000
B. 6000
C. 3000
D. 5000

136. If Rs. 5,000 becomes Rs. 5,700 in a year’s time, what will Rs. 7,000 become at the end of 5 years at the same rate of simple interest ?
A. Rs.10,500
B. Rs.11,900
C. Rs.12,700
D. Rs. 7,700

137. A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief and the policeman run at the rate of 10 km and 11 km per hour respectively. The distance (in metres) between them after 6 minutes is
A. 190
B. 200
C. 100
D. 150

138. ‘A’ sells an article to ‘B’ at a profit of 20% and ‘B’ sells it to ‘C’ at a profit of 25%. If ‘C’ pays Rs. 1,200, the cost price of the article originally (in Rs.) is
A. 700
B. 600
C. 1,000
D. 800

139. The number nearest to 75070 which is divisible by 65, is A 75070
A. 75075
B. 75010
C. 75070
D. 75065

140. The number 20% more than 80 is
A. 36
B. 30
C. 90
D. 96

141. A tree is broken by the wind. If the top of the tree struck the ground at an angle of 30° and at a distance of 30 m from the root, then the height of the tree is
A. 25√3 m
B. 30√3 m
C. 15√3 m
D. 20√3 m

142. If cos A + cos2 A = 1, then sin2 A + sin4 A is equal to
A. 1
B. ½
C. 0
D. 1

143. A farmer divides his herd of n cows among his four sons, so that the first son gets one half the herd, the second one fourth, the third son 1/5 and the fourth son 7 cows. Then the value of n is
A. 240
B. 100
C. 180
D. 140

144. By what least number should 675 be multiplied to obtain a number which is a perfect cube ?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 5
D. 6

145. The least number which when divided by 35, 45, 55 leaves the remainder 18, 28, 38 respectively is
A. 3448
B. 3482
C. 2468
D. 3265

The graph shows Income and Expenditure (Rs. in lakhs) of a company. Study the graph and answer the questions. (Q. No. 146 to 150)

146. The expenditure from 2002 to 2003 increased by
A. 33 1/3%
B. 40%
C. 10%
D. 20%

147. The income in 2002 was equal to the expenditure in the year
A. 2003
B. 2004
C. 2000
D. 2001

148. The profit was maximum in the year
A. 2003
B. 2004
C. 2001
D. 2002

149. The difference in profit between 2001 and 2002 is
A. Rs. 25 lakhs
B. No difference
C. Rs. 10 lakhs
D. Rs. 20 lakhs

150. The number of years in which the income exceeds the average income is
A. three
B. four
C. one
D. two


In each of the following questions, select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.

151. 8:12:: 6 : ?
A. 9
B. 11
C. 5
D. 7

152. 13 :19 :: 21 : ?
A. 41
B. 81
C. 141
D. 14

153. Eagle: Swoops :: Duck : ?
A. Waddles
B. floats
C. swims
D. flits

154. APPLE : 50 :: ORANGE : ?
A. 60
B. 69
C. 61
D. 63

155. Accommodation : Rent:: Journey : ?
A. Freight
B. Octroi
C. Fare
D. Expense

156. Fire : Smoke :: ?
A. Children : School
B. Cloud : Rain
C. Moon : Sky
D. Shoe : Polish

157. Grenade: Gun :: ?
A. Sister: Brother
B. Father: Mother
C. Man : Woman
D. Head : Brain

158. TSH : IRQ :: QPK: ?

159. AEZ : FPY :: BGX : ?

160. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/word/number pair from the given alternatives.

161. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Major
B. Colonel
C. Brigadier
D. Admiral

162. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Life Insurance Corporation
B. New India Assurance Company Ltd.
C. United India Insurance Company Ltd.
D. National Insurance Company Ltd.

163. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Hurdle
B. Disease
C. Barrier
D. Obstacle

164. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Mar
B. Remedy
C. Maim
D. Mutilate

165. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Socrates
B. Beethoven
C. Mozart
D. Bach

166. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. (132,5)
B. (125,8)
C. (124,7)
D. (112, 4)

167. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 6246-6296
B. 7137-7267
C. 4344-4684
D. 5235-5465

In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

168. YX, UTS, ONML,……… ?

169. DA, HE. LI,….?…. , TN

170. BEINT……. ?
A. X
B. Y
C. A
D. Z

171. AZ, CX, EV,______ ?

172. D9Y, J27S, P81M, V243G, ?
A. A324B
B. C729B
C. B729A
D. A729B

For the following questions answer them individually

173. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ? _c_ bd_ cbcda_ a_ db_ a
A. daabbc
B. bdbcba
C. adabcd
D. cdbbca

174. In each of the following questions, identify the wrong number in the series.
9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340
A. 83
B. 40
C. 340
D. 170

175. 21,28,33,35,37,36
A. 21
B. 36
C. 33
D. 35

176. 5, 13. 29, 61, 120, 253
A. 120
B. 253
C. 61
D. 29

177. 0, 7, 28, 63, 124, 215 –
A. 28
B. 215
C. 7
D. 63

For the following questions answer them individually

178. Some relationships have been expressed through symbols which are explained below :
o = greater than
Δ = not equal to
x = not less than
+ = equal to
Φ = not greater than
∇ = less than
a ∇ b ∇ c implies
A. a ∇ b Φ c
B. a Φ b + c
C. a o b + c
D. a o b x c

A. 14400
B. 15600
C. 23040
D. 17400

180. If PEAR is written a GFDN, how is REAP written in this code ?

181. If 54 + 43 = 2, 60 + 51 = 10, then 62 + 72 = ?
A. 30
B. 18
C. 20
D. 9

182. If L denotes x
M denotes ÷
P denotes +
Q denotes –
then 16P24M8Q6M2L3 = ?
A. 10
B. 9
C. 12
D. 11

183. In this question, from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word.

184. If FLATTER is coded as 7238859 and MOTHER is coded as 468159, then how is MAMMOTH coded ?
A. 4344681
B. 4344651
C. 4146481
D. 4346481

185. If 16-2=2, 9-3 = 0, 81-1= 8, then what is 64 – 4 = ?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 6
D. 8

186. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 20
B. 25
C. 10
D. 15

187. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 21
B. 20
C. 23
D. 22

For the following questions answer them individually

188. Four aeroplanes of Air force viz, A,B,C,D, started for a demonstration flight towards east. After flying 50 km planes A and D flew towards right, planes B and C flew towards left. After 50 km, planes B and C flew towards their left, planes A and D also towards their left. In which directions are the aeroplanes A. B, D, C respectively flying now?
A. North, South, East, West
B. South, North, West, East
C. East, West, West, East
D. West, East, West, East

189. Satish start from A and walks 2 km east upto B and turns southwards and walks 1 km upto C. At C he turns to east and walks 2 km upto D. He then turns northwards and walks 4 km to E. How far is he from his starting point ?
A. 5 km
B. 6 km
C. 3 km
D. 4 km

In each of the following questions, one/two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and IL You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow from the given statement.

190. Statements :
Temple is a place of worship.
Church is also a place of worship.
Conclusions :
I. Hindus and Christians use the same place for worship.
II. All churches are temples.
A. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
B. Both conclusions I and II follow
C. Only conclusion I follows
D. Only conclusion II follows

191. Statement:
The human organism grows and develops through stimulation and action.
Conclusions :
I. Inert human organism cannot grow and develop.
II. Human organisms do not react to stimulation and action.
A. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
B. Both conclusions I and II follow
C. Only conclusion I follows
D. Only conclusion II follows

For the following questions answer them individually
192. If the first four letters of a term HIPPNOWADIASM are written in reverse order, the next five letters are written without changing their order and then, the remaining letters are again written in reverse order, then which letter is in the middle of the word ?
A. 0
B. W
C. A
D. I

193. In the following letter series how many times do PQR occur in such away that Q is in the middle of P and R.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 3

194. Volume of a sphere is equal to the volume of a hemisphere. If the radius of the hemisphere is 3 3√2 cm, then the radius of the sphere is equal to
A. 9 3 √2 cm
B. 6 3 √2 cm
C. 27 cm
D. 3 cm

195. For the following questions answer them individually

196. For the following questions answer them individually

197. If SEARCH is coded as TFBSDI, how will PENCIL be coded?

198. For the following questions answer them individually

199. For the following questions answer them individually

200. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. Identify the set for the word ‘GUIDE’.

A. 85, 23, 21, 87, 32
B. 58, 31, 12, 57,41
C. 77, 13, 42,99,32
D. 66, 31, 43, 78,14


1. B
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. A
11. A
12. C
13. D
14. C
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. A
19. B
20. A
21. B
22. C
23. A
24. C
25. A
26. C
27. D
28. A
29. D
30. A
31. B
32. B
33. B
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. D
38. B
39. B
40. D
41. C
42. A
43. A
44. D
45. D
46. B
47. D
48. A
49. D
50. A
51. B
52. C
53. A
54. B
55. A
56. B
57. C
58. D
59. A
60. D
61. A
62. B
63. D
64. D
65. B
66. A
67. A
68. D
69. D
70. D
71. C
72. A
73. B
74. D
75. D
76. B
77. C
78. B
79. D
80. A
81. A
82. D
83. C
84. D
85. B
86. C
87. D
88. B
89. C
90. D
91. B
92. A
93. C
94. A
95. D
96. C
97. A
98. C
99. D
100. D
101. C
102. A
103. D
104. A
105. A
106. A
107. D
108. C
109. A
110. B
111. D
112. C
113. D
114. B
115. C
116. D
117. D
118. D
119. D
120. A
121. A
122. B
123. D
124. A
125. B
126. B
127. B
128. D
129. A
130. D
131. A
132. D
133. D
134. A
135. D
136. B
137. C
138. D
139. B
140. D
141. B
142. A
143. D
144. C
145. A
146. A
147. A
148. B
149. C
150. A
151. A
152. A
153. A
154. A
155. C
156. B
157. D
158. B
159. A
160. B
161. D
162. A
163. B
164. B
165. A
166. D
167. A
168. B
169. A
170. C
171. D
172. C
173. C
174. C
175. D
176. A
177. A
178. A
179. A
180. B
181. D
182. A
183. B
184. A
185. A
186. D
187. C
188. C
189. A
190. A
191. A
192. B
193. C
194. D
195. B
196. D
197. C
198. B
199. D
200. A