2012 SSC CGL Tier 1
1 Jul Shift – 2
Question Paper with Answer Key


1. Which is NOT a correct statement ?
A. Phenols are acidic
B. In benzene all the atoms lie in one plane
C. Methylated spirit contains only methanol
D. Dilute solutions contain less amount of solute

2. The infective stage of Malaria is
A. Gametocyte
B. Ring stage
C. Sporozoite
D. Merozoite

3. The treaty of Versailles restored Alsace-Lorraine to:
A. Italy
B. Britain
C. France
D. Belgium

4. The Asokan Edicts were deciphered first by :
A. Sir John Marshall
B. Sir William Jones
C. Charles Wilkins
D. James Prinsep

5. Which of the following is meant for the ex-situ conservation of various species ?
A. Sperm bank
B. Blood bank
C. Germplasm bank
D. Herbarium

6. An algae type ocean deposit is:
A. Weritic remains
B. Diatom Ooze
C. Pteropod Ooze
D. Pelagic deposits

7. Photosynthetic vesicle found in bacteria is called a:
A. Mesosome
B. chromatophore
C. Genophore
D. Pneumatophore

8. What type of mirror is used in a view finding mirror of a vehicle ?
A. Convex mirror
B. Plane mirror
C. Concave mirror
D. Paraboloidal mirror

9. What is mcommerce ?
A. machine commerce
B. mobile commerce
C. money commerce
D. marketing commerce

10. Who said that the Directive Principles of State Policy are just like “a cheque on bank pay able at the convenience of the bank” ?
A. Pandit Nehru
B. K.T. Shah
C. B.R. Ambedkar
D. N.G. Ranga

11. Wheat, Barley, Lemon, Orange, rye, and pearl millet belong to:
A. the same plant family
B. two plant families
C. three plant families
D. four plant families

12. Who favoured the Arctic Home theory of the Aryans ?
A. Pargiter
B. A.C. Das
C. B.G. Tilak
D. Jacobi

13. A plant known only in cultivation having arisen under domestication is referred to as:
A. Scion
B. Cultigens
C. Cultivar
D. Clone

14. The proposal for the creation of new All India Services can be considered only :
A. if majority of State Legislatures make such demand
B. if Lok Sabha passes a resolution by two thirds majority
C. if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two thirds majority
D. None of the above

15. Pyroligneous acid obtained from wood contains:
A. 10% Formaldehyde
B. 10% Acetic acid
C. 10% Formic acid
D. 10% Ethanol

16. Union Carbide India Ltd. manufactured essentially:
A. Heavy water
B. Petrochemicals
C. Fertilizers
D. Leather goods

17. The iron and steel plant in Bihar is at:
A. Visakhapatnam
B. Bokaro
C. Burnpur
D. Vijay Nagar

18. Who was the teacher of Gautama Buddha ?
A. Panini
B. Alara Kalama
C. Kapila
D. Patanjali

19. Ram Sharan Sharma, who died in 2011 was an eminent
A. Chemist
B. Economist
C. Ideologist
D. Archaeologist

20. The 34th National Games were held in 2011 in:
A. Uttarakhand
B. Kerala
C. Karnataka
D. Jharkhand

21. “Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth” is the guiding principle of:
A. Attributive theory of Justice
B. Retributive theory of Justice
C. Deterrent theory of Justice
D. Reformative theory of Justine

22. Low cost housing is an example for:
A. Mixed wants
B. Social wants
C. Private wants
D. Merit wants

23. Tohra is the sacred book of:
A. Zoroastrianism
B. Confucianism
C. Taoism
D. Judaism

24. The 98th Indian Science Congress was held in 2011 at:
A. Bengaluru
B. Bhopal
C. Chennai
D. Bhubaneswar

25. Drying oils contain a fairly large proportion of:
A. Un saturated fatty acids
B. Fats
C. Proteins
D. Saturated fatty acids

26. Consumption for the sake of enjoying social acknowledgement is called:
A. Rational consumption
B. Social consumption
C. Conspicuous consumption
D. Demonstration consumption

27. The red, orange and yellow colours of leaves are due to :
A. Carotenoids
B. Aldehydes
C. Tannins
D. Lignin’s

28. Which bank was the first to introduce ATMs to the world?
A. Hong Kong Bank
B. Standard Chartered Bank
C. Bank of America
D. City Bank

29. We receive sunlight on earth surface. What type of light beams are these ?
A. Random
B. Parallel
C. Converging
D. Diverging

30. The state which has registered the highest population growth rate according to 2001 census is?
A. Kerala
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Nagaland
D. Sikkim

31. Earth is a very big magnet. In which direction does its magnet is field extend ?
A. west to east
B. north to south
C. south to north
D. east to west

32. Of the following economists, whom do you consider to be the Master of “Partial Analysis” ?
A. Leon Walras
B. Alfred Marshall
C. J.M. Keynes
D. Lionel Robbins

33. The authority to specify which castes shall be deemed to be scheduled castes rests with the?
A. Commissioner for scheduled castes and tribes
B. Prime Minister
C. President
D. Governor

34. Polar bears hold cures for:
A. Type II diabetes
B. Osteoporosis
C. Breast – cancer
D. Kidney failure

35. Which colour/colours of light has the highest velocity through vacuum ?
A. Blue
B. Red
C. Green
D. All of the above

36. The ultimate source of energy in a hydroelectric power station
A. solar energy
B. the potential energy of water
C. the kinetic energy of water
D. the electrochemical energy of water

37. Mamta Sharma was appointed in 2011 as the chairperson of:
A. National Commission for Minorities
B. National Commission for Protection of Child Right
C. National Commission for Women
D. National Commission for BCs

38. India making ‘Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements’ (DTAA) with other countries for the promotion of:
A. Bilateral trade
B. External commercial borrowings
C. Foreign direct investments
D. Foreign institutional investment

39. The seat of Kerala High Court is located at:
A. Kottayam
B. Thiruvananthapuram
C. Kollam
D. Ernakulam

40. The disease that kills more people than lung cancer as a consequence of air pollution is :
A. chronic bronchitis
B. asthma
C. emphysema
D. heart attack

41. The most densely populated state in India is :
A. Kerala
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. West Bengal
D. Tamil Nadu

42. Brain drain has been caused by:
A. failure to recognise talent in the originating country.
B. the lure of high living standards
C. lack of employment opportunities
D. socioeconomic instability

43. Human Development Index was formulated by:

44. The biggest planet in the solar system is:
A. Venus
B. Jupiter
C. Saturn
D. Uranus

45. Peninsular India has the following zonal soil types:
A. Red and yellow soil
B. Forest soil
C. Saline soil
D. Alluvial soil

46. The prose collection of the Vedic poems are:
A. Samhilas
B. Upanishads
C. Aranyakas
D. Brahmanas

47. The study of population is known as
A. Demography
B. climatology
C. Petrology
D. Hydrology

48. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
A. Milk of lime — sodium sulphate
B. Glauber’s salt — calcium
C. Salt petre — potassium nitrate
D. Gypsum — calcium hydroxide

49. Who is the author of the book ‘Pakistan: Beyond the Crisis State’?
A. Khuram Iqbal
B. Maleeha Lodhi
C. Amir Mir
D. M.J. Akbar

50. The first speaker of Lok Sabha was :
A. S. Radhakrishnan
B. M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar
C. Sardar Hukum Singh
D. G.V. Mavlankar


In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of the part is your answer. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is (d) i.e. No error.

51. World is producing enough (a) / for every citizen but still there is hunger and malnutrition (b)/ and it is continuing year after year, (c) / No error (d)
A. World is producing enough
B. for every citizen but still there is hunger and malnutrition
C. and it is continuing year after year.
D. No error

52. The N.C.C. commandant along with his cadets (a) / are going to Delhi (b) / to participate in the Republic Day Parade, (c) / No error (d)
A. The N.C.C. commandant along with his cadets
B. are going to Delhi
C. to participate in the Republic Day Parade.
D. No Error

53. He did not succeed (a) / to get the job (b)/ though he tried his level best, (c) / No error (d)
A. He did not succeed
B. to get the job
C. though he tried his level best.
D. No Error

54. Many of the famous (a) / advertising offices (b) / are located at Madison Avenue.(c)/ error (d)
A. Many of the famous
B. advertising offices
C. are located at Madison Avenue.
D. No Error

55. Nature has denied us (a) / the power of closing our ears (b) / which she gave in respect of our eyes, (c) / No error (d)
A. Nature has denied us
B. the power of closing our ears
C. which she gave in respect of our eyes.
D. No Error

In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

56. The ladies black purse, which is on sale has a beautiful_____ carved on it.
A. motif
B. patch
C. layout
D. schematic

57. Who is the person you____ at the cinema last night?
A. were recognising
B. recognised
C. have recognised
D. had recognised

58. As you_____ sow shall you reap.
A. When
B. as
C. like
D. so

59. He complimented her____ new dress.
A. For
B. of
C. on
D. about

60. It took him a long time____ the candidate’s application.
A. to considering
B. to consider and weigh
C. considering weighing
D. to consider and to weigh

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word as your answer.

61. Annexure
A. retirement
B. commencement
C. attachment
D. development

62. Errand
A. Energy
B. Task
C. Mistake
D. Blunder

63. Bequeath
A. Give
B. Disclose
C. Scold
D. Surround

64. Nonchalant
A. Imaginary
B. Casual
C. Natural
D. Formal

65. Forbearance
A. deliverance
B. patience
C. extravagance
D. relevance

In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word as your answer.

66. Amenable
A. Acquiescent
B. Distrustful
C. Inattentive
D. Unwilling

67. Conspicuous
A. Blatant
B. Definite
C. Obvious
D. Obscure

68. Reproof
A. Approbation
B. Apposition
C. Condemnation
D. Appropriation

69. Niggard
A. Avaricious
B. Extravagant
C. Generous
D. miserly

70. Exotic
A. Conventional
B. poor
C. inexpensive
D. indigenous

In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase as your answer.

71. His speech has taken the wind out of my sails.
A. made my words or actions ineffective
B. made me depressed
C. made me think of the future
D. made me remember my past

72. There is no point in discussing the new project with him as he always pours cold water on any new ideas.
A. Puts off
B. dislikes
C. disapproves of
D. postpones

73. Regardless of what her parents said, she wanted to let her hair down that night.
A. really enjoy
B. wash her hair
C. comb her hair
D. work till late

74. I jumped out of my skin when the explosion happened.
A. was in panic
B. was excited
C. was nervous
D. was angry

75. She didn’t realize that the clever salesman was taking her for a ride.
A. trying to trick her
B. taking her in a car
C. pulling her along
D. forcing her to go with him

In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternative to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).

76. It took her a long time to get past her failure in the medical examination.
A. Through
B. over
C. by
D. No improvement

77. The boy wanted to ask his father for money, but waited for a propitious occasion.
A. Protective
B. prophetic
C. prospective
D. No improvement

78. I did not agree with him; he appeared to be so bigoted for me to concur.
A. Much
B. Very
C. Too
D. No improvement

79. As soon as she noticed the workmen, she asked them what they have been doing.
A. Have done
B. Had been
C. are doing
D. No improvement

80. He was asleep before the mother tucked him off.
A. through
B. away
C. in
D. No improvement

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.

81. A raised place on which offerings to a God are made
A. Rostrum
B. Church
C. Altar
D. Mound

82. Something that cannot be explained
A. Unthinkable
B. impregnable
C. mysterious
D. inexplicable

83. A written declaration made on oath in the presence of a magistrate
A. affidavit
B. dossier
C. voucher
D. document

84. A person who thinks only about himself and not about others0 needs
A. Egomaniacal
B. egoistic
C. egotistic
D. egocentric

85. A guidepost pointing out the way for a place
A. fingerpost
B. lamppost
C. check post
D. last post

In the following questions, there are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word as your answer.

A. digresion
B. digrestion
C. digression
D. degression

A. Presumpchous
B. Presumtous
C. presumptuous
D. presomptous

A. Equalibirium
B. equilibrium
C. equilibriam
D. equilibirium

A. vaterinerian
B. veterinarian
C. vetarinerian
D. veterinarian

A. Marrytime
B. marytime
C. maritime
D. meritime

In the following questions, you have a brief passage with 5 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
“People very often complain that poverty is a great evil and that it is not possible to be happy unless one has a lot of money. Actually, this is not necessarily true. Even a poor man, living in a small hut with none of the comforts and luxuries of life, may be quite contented with his lot and achieve a measure of happiness. On the other hand, a very rich man, living in a palace and enjoying everything that money can buy, may still be miserable, if, for example, he does not enjoy good health or his only son has taken to evil ways. Apart from this, he may have a lot of business worries which keep him on tenterhooks most of the time. There is a limit to what money can buy and there are many things, which are necessary for a man’s happiness and which money cannot procure. Real happiness is a matter of the right attitude and the capacity of being contented with whatever you have is the most important ingredient of this attitude”.

91. The phrase “on tenterhooks” means :
A. in a state of thoughtfulness
B. in a state of anxiety
C. in a state of sadness
D. in a state of forgetfulness

92. It is true that:
A. money alone can give happiness
B. money always gives happiness
C. money seldom gives happiness
D. money alone cannot give happiness

93. A rich man’s life may become miserable if he:
A. has evil son, bad health and business worries
B. does not enjoy good health
C. has business worries
D. has business worries and his only son has taken to evil ways.

94. ‘Which of the following is the most appropriate title to the passage?
A. Poverty a great evil
B. The key of happiness
C. Contentment, the key to happiness
D. Money and contentment

95. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Only a poor but contented man can be happy
B. A poor but contented man can never be happy
C. A poor but contented man can be happy
D. A poor but contented man is always happy

In the following questions, you have a brief passage with 5 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
The problem of water pollution by pesticides can be understood only in context, as part of the whole to which it belongs – the pollution of the total environment of mankind. The pollution entering our waterways comes from many sources, radioactive wastes from reactors, laboratories, and hospitals; fallout from nuclear explosions; domestic wastes from cities and towns; chemical wastes from factories. To these is added a new kid of fallout – the chemical sprays applied to crop lands and gardens, forests and fields. Many of the chemical agents in this alarming melange initiate and augment the harmful effects of radiation, and within the groups of chemicals themselves there are sinister and little – understood interactions, transformations, and summations of effect.
Ever since the chemists began to manufacture substances that nature never invented, the problem of water purification have become complex and the danger to users of water has increased. As we have seen, the production of these synthetic chemicals in large volume began in the 1940’s. It has now reached such proportion that an appalling deluge of chemical pollution is daily poured into the nation’s waterways. When inextricably mixed with domestic and other wastes discharged into the same water, these chemicals sometimes defy detection by the methods in ordinary use by purification plants. Most of them are so complex that they cannot be identified. In rivers, a really incredible variety of pollutants combine to produce deposits that sanitary engineers can only despairingly refer to as “gunk”.

96. All the following words mean ‘chemicals’ except
A. Sands
B. Substances
C. Pesticides
D. Deposits

97. The main argument of paragraph 1 is:
A. that there are sinister interaction in the use of chemicals
B. that there are numerous reasons for contamination of water supplies
C. that there are many dangers from nuclear fallout
D. that pesticides are dangerous

98. The word ‘gunk’ in the last line refers :
A. to the waste products deposited by sanitary engineers
B. to the debris found in rivers
C. to unidentifiable chemicals found in water
D. to the domestic water supplies

99. Water pollution can only be understood
A. in relation to world contamination
B. by the whole human race
C. in co text
D. in relation to the number of pesticides that exist

100. Water contamination has become serious.
A. since water pollution was difficult to assess
B. since nature has taken a hand in pollution
C. since chemists began to use new substances
D. since businessmen authorised the use of chemicals.


For the following questions answer them individually

101. If cot A + cosec A = 3 and A is an acute angle, then the value of cos A is :
A. 4/5
B. 1
C. ½
D. ¾

102. A three digit number 4a3 is added to another three digit number 984 to give the four digit- number 13b7 which is divisible by 11. Then the value of (a+b) is:
A. 11
B. 12
C. 9
D. 10

103. In a right angled triangle ABC, ∠B is the right angle and AC = 2√5 cm. If AB – BC = 2 cm then the value of (cos2 A — cos2C) is :
A. 2/5
B. 3/5
C. 1/2
D. 3/10

104. A boy standing in the middle of a field, observes a flying bird in the north at an angle of elevation of 30° and after 2 minutes, he observes the same bird in the south at an angle of elevation of 60°. If the bird flies all along in a straight line at a height of 50 m, then its speed in km/h is :
A. 4.5
B. 3
C. 9
D. 6

105. The perimeter of an isosceles, right angled triangle is 2p unit. The area of the same triangle is
A. (3 – 2√2)p2 sq. unit
B. (2 + √2)p2 sq. unit
C. (2 + √2 )p2 sq. unit
D. (3 -√2)p2 sq. unit

106. ΔABC and ΔDEF are similar and their areas be respectively 64 cm2 and 121 cm2. If EF = 15.4 cm, BC is:
A. 12.3 cm
B. 11.2 cm
C. 12.1 cm
D. 11.0 cm

107. If G is the centroid of ΔABC and AG = BC, then ∠BGC is:
A. 75°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 60°

108. If tan(x + y) tan(x – y) = 1, then the value of tan x is :
A. √3
B. 1
C. ½
D. 1/√3

109. In a partnership business, A invests 1/6th of the capital for 1/6 of the total time, B invests 1/4 of the capital for 1/4 of the total time and C, the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of 19,400, B’s share is :
A. 2000
B. 1200
C. 1600
D. 1800

110. A jar contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 4:1. When 10 litre of the mixture is replaced with liquid B, the ratio becomes 2 : 3. The volume of liquid A present in the jar earlier was:
A. 20 litre
B. 10 litre
C. 16 litre
D. 15 litre

111. If (5×2 – 3y2): xy = 11:2, and x,y are positive, then the value of x/y is:
A. 7/2
B. 5/2
C. 3/2
D. 5/3

112. By decreasing 15° of each angle of a triangle, the ratios of their angles are 2:3:5, The radian measure of greatest angle is :
A. 11π/24
B. π/12
C. π/24
D. 5π/24

113. The least value of 4cosec2 a + 9sin2 a is:
A. 14
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

114. The greatest number that will divide 19,35 and 59 to leave the same remainder in each case
A. 9
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

115. The average temperature of Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 30° C and that of Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday was 33° C. If the temperature on Monday was 32° C, then the temperature on Thursday was :
A. 33° C
B. 30° C
C. 41° C
D. 32° C

A. 900
B. 970
C. 1030
D. 930

117. The next term of the series -1, 6,25, 62,123, 214,____ is :
A. 345
B. 143
C. 341
D. 343

118. O is the circum centre of the triangle ABC with circum radius 13 cm. Let BC = 24 cm and OD is perpendicular to BC. Then the length of OD is.
A. 7cm
B. 3cm
C. 4cm
D. 5cm

119. If ax + by = 6, bx – ay = 2 and x2 + y2 = 4, then the value of (a2 + b2) would be:
A. 10
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

120. The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi circle of radius x in square unit is:
A. 4×2
B. x2
C. 2×2
D. 3×2

121. D and E are the midpoints of AB and AC of ΔABC; BC is produced to any point P; DE, DP and EP are joined. Then,
A. ΔPED = 1/4 ΔABC

122. If a + 1/a = 1, then the value of a2 + 1/a2 is
A. -2
B. 2
C. -1
D. 4

123. The mean of 19 observations is 24. If the mean of the first 10 observations is 17 and that of the last 10 observations is 24, find the 10th observation.
A. 65
B. 37
C. -46
D. 53

124. A watch is sold at a profit of 30%. Had it been sold for Rs. 80 less, there would have been a loss of 10%. What is the cost price in rupees?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 400
D. 800

125. A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same direction in which the train is running, at the rate of 2 kmph and 4 kmph and passes them completely in 9 and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the train (in metres)
A. 72
B. 45
C. 54
D. 50

126. The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm and 20 cm whose centres are 25 cm apart is (in cm):
A. 20
B. 30
C. 24
D. 15

127. If a commission of 10% is given on the marked price of a work, the publisher gains 20%. If the commission is increased to 15%, the gain percent is:
A. 15%
B. 16 2/3%
C. 13 1/3%
D. 15 1/6%

A. 6
B. 30
C. √15
D. 16

129. If x = 2 + √3 , then the value, √x + 1/√x
A. √3
B. √6
C. 2√6
D. 6

130. If 12 men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 days, then working at the same rate, 8 men and 16 women can reap the same field in :
A. 9 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 8 days

131. By selling 9 articles for a rupee, a man incurred a loss of 4%. To make a gain of 44%, the number of articles to be sold for a rupee is :
A. 5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

A. cos A
B. 0
C. 1
D. sin A

133. If a3 -b3 = 56 and a – b = 2, then the value of (a2 + b2 + ab) is :
A. 10
B. 12
C. 28
D. 18

134. If tan Ө – cot Ө = a and cos Ө sin Ө = b, then the value of (a2 + 4) (b2 – 1)2 is:
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

135. Area of the trapezium formed by x axis; y axis and the lines 3x+4y=12 and 6x+ 8y=60 is:
A. 37.5 sq. unit
B. 31.5 sq. unit
C. 48 sq. unit
D. 36.5 sq. unit

136. Area of the triangle formed by the graph of the line 2x – 3y + 6 = 0 along with the coordinate axes is
A. 1/2 sq. units
B. 3/2 sq. units
C. 3 sq. units
D. 6 sq. units

137. If (a2 – b2) sin Ө + 2 ab cos Ө = a2 + b2, then the value of tan Ө is
A. a2+b2 /2ab
B. a2-b2/2
C. a2-b2/2ab
D. a2+b2/2

138. Prabhat took a certain amount as a loan from a bank at the rate of 8% p.a. simple interest and gave the same amount to Ashish as a loan at the rate of 12% p. a. If at the end of 12 years, he made a profit of 960 in the deal, then the original amount was:
A. 3356
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 3000

139. AB is a diameter of a circle with centre O. CD is a chord equal to the radius of the circle. AC and BD are produced to meet at P. Then the measure of ∠APB is :
A. 120°
B. 30°
C. 60°
D. 90°

140. R and r are the radius of two circles (R > r). If the distance between the centre of the two circles be d, then length of common tangent of two circles is :

141. P is a point outside a circle and is 13 cm away from its centre. A secant drawn from the point P intersects the circle at points A and B in such a way that PA = 9 cm and AB = 7 cm. The radius of the circle is :
A. 5.5cm
B. 5cm
C. 4cm
D. 4.5cm

142. If a + 1/a+2 = 0, then the value of (a + 2)2 + 1/(a+2)3 is
A. 2
B. 6
C. 4
D. 3

143. If α is a positive acute angle and 2sinα + 15cos2α = 7, then the value of cot α is:2
A. ¾
B. 2/3
C. √5/2
D. 2/√5

144. 1+876542×876544/876543×876543 is equal to
A. 3
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2

145. The perimeters of two similar triangles ΔABC and Care 36cm and 24 cm respectively. If PQ = 10 cm, then AB is:
A. 25 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm

The number of mobile sim cards in 4 states are given in multiple bar diagrams. Study the diagram and answer the questions. (Q. No. 146 to 150)

146. In Assam, the ratio of Aircell sim card and Airtel sim card sold is:
A. 3:2
B. 2 : 5
C. 5 : 2
D. 2 : 3

147. In which state are there the largest number of owners of Airtel sim cards?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Gujarat
C. Kerala
D. Assam

148. Average of simcard sold in the four states in lakhs is
A. 30.25
B. 40.5
C. 35
D. 33.75

149. The range of BSNL sim card sold in the 4 states in lakhs is :
A. 12
B. 15
C. 14
D. 13

150. Of all the sim cards sold in all the four states, the number of sim cards sold in Gujarat is (approx)
A. 40%
B. 38%
C. 35%
D. 42%


Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives:

151. EVFU : TGSH : : IRTQ : _?_

152. LxM : 12 x 13 ::UxW :_ ?_
A. 21 x 22
B. 24×26
C. 9×11
D. 21 x 23

153. CFIL : XURQ :: ORUX : ?

154. CFIL : ABCD : : _?_: WXYZ

155. Zoology : Animal:: Psychology : ?
A. Animal
B. Human being
C. Animal and human being
D. Plant

156. Life starts : Embryo :: Life ends : ?.
A. Old age
B. Dead body
C. Illness
D. Death

157. Man : Mammal:: ?
A. Hail: Snow
B. Native : Inhabitant
C. Offspring: Family
D. Liberty : Literate

158. 1: 8:: 4_?_
A. 64
B. 512
C. 128
D. 32

159. 6 : 2 :: 8 :__?__
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 5

160. Find the odd number/ letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 81
B. 93
C. 66
D. 72

161. Find the odd number/ letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Frog
B. Tortoise
C. Crab
D. Fish

162. Find the odd number/ letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 186-69
B. 168-570
C. 1001-100
D. 5270 – 2936

163. Find the odd number/ letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. (64,216)
B. (216,02)
C. (343,01)
D. (125,27)

164. Find the odd number/ letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Jammu and Kashmir.
B. Haryana
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Arunachal Pradesh

165. Find the odd number/ letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

166. Find the odd number/ letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 17
B. 27
C. 37
D. 47

167. Find the odd number/ letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 63852
B. 52638
C. 28761
D. 85362

168. Find the odd number/ letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Number
B. Form
C. Weight
D. Size

169. Find the odd number/ letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Commission
B. Team
C. Agenda
D. Board

170. Find the odd number/ letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Addition
B. Subtract
C. Multiplication
D. Division

A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

171. DF, GJ, IM, NQ, RT, ?

172. B I P ? D
A. W
B. S
C. R
D. U



(2526): Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

175. a_ ba_ c_ aad_ aa_ ea
A. babbd
B. babbc
C. bacde
D. babbb

176. aa_ aa bb_ b_ aa_ aa bb_ bb.
A. bbbba
B. aabbb
C. babba
D. bbbaa

For the following questions answer them individually

177. If DEAF is equal to 32, what will be LEAF ?
A. 48
B. 50
C. 52
D. 56

178. In a certain code, “CERTAIN” is coded as “XVIGZRM”, “SEQUENCE” is coded as “HVJFVMXV”, How would “REQUIRED” be coded ?

179. If P denotes ÷, Q denotes x, R denotes +, and S denotes , then, 18Q12P4R5S6?
A. 53
B. 51
C. 57
D. 95

180. Find the wrong number in the series from the given alternatives.
17, 36, 53, 68, 83, 92
A. 53
B. 68
C. 83
D. 92

181. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

182. If 25 ÷ 5= 15, 30 ÷ 6= 20, then 35 ÷ 7= ?
A. 20
B. 50
C. 25
D. 75

183. If 33+ 45= 30, 90+ 26= 40, then 30 + 45 = ?
A. 14
B. 16
C. 18
D. 15

184. It was Shriram’s and Sreedevi’s 12th Wedding Anniversary. Shriram said. “When we got married, Sreedevi was 3/4th of my age, but now she is 5/6th of my age”. What actually are their present ages?
A. Shriram 36, Sreedevi 30
B. Shriram 30, Sreedevi 24
C. Shriram 40, Sreedevi 34
D. Shriram 38, Sreedevi 32

185. If 64 + 14 = 5, 92 + 31 = 7, 26 + 11= 6, then 56 + 22= ?
A. 39
B. 7
C. 36
D. 11

186. Select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 6

187. Select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

For the following questions answer them individually

188. Sherly starting from a fixed point goes 15 m towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15 m. Then he goes 10,15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point?
A. 5 metres
B. 10 metres
C. 20 metres
D. 15 metres

189. Ram and Sham start walking in opposite directions. Ram covers 6 kms and Sham 8 kms. Then Ram turns right and walks 8 kms and Sham turns left and. walks 6 kms. How far each is from the starting point?
A. 8 kms
B. 9 kms
C. 10 kms
D. 11 kms

Two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Which one of the four alternatives is correct?

190. Statements :
I. All teachers are aged.
II. Some women are teachers.
Conclusions :
I. All aged are women.
II. Some women are aged.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
D. Both conclusions I and II follow

191. Statements :
I. All skaters are good swimmers.
II. All good swimmers are runners.
I. Some runners are skaters.
II. Some skaters are good swimmers.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Both conclusions I and II follow
D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

192. If Alphabets are serially numbered, one of the answers given below has not a meaningful word hidden in it. Identify the answer.
A. 5, 1, 3, 5, 20, 8,18
B. 18, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 20
C. 20, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5,18
D. 5, 18, 5, 8,1, 3, 5, 20

193. If LUXOR is coded as 30, then GUILDS will be coded as ?
A. 36
B. 38
C. 24
D. 40

194. In the following list of English alphabets, one alphabet has not been used. Identify the same.
A. I
B. K
C. J
D. V

195. How many 9’s are followed by and proceeded by numbers divisible by 2?
89653596834965269737294137941734984539761531957429 68532957489451
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

196. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded

197. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded

198. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded

199. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded

200. Identify the set for the word ‘STAR’.

A. 23, 76, 33, 98
B. 14, 87, 98, 97
C. 69, 96, 03, 56
D. 99, 31, 86, 98


1. C
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. B
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. B
18. B
19. C
20. D
21. B
22. D
23. D
24. C
25. A
26. C
27. A
28. D
29. A
30. C
31. B
32. B
33. A
34. A
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. D
40. C
41. C
42. C
43. C
44. B
45. A
46. A
47. A
48. C
49. B
50. D
51. D
52. B
53. B
54. C
55. C
56. A
57. D
58. D
59. C
60. B
61. C
62. B
63. A
64. B
65. B
66. D
67. D
68. A
69. C
70. D
71. A
72. C
73. A
74. A
75. A
76. B
77. D
78. C
79. B
80. C
81. C
82. D
83. A
84. D
85. A
86. C
87. C
88. B
89. B
90. C
91. B
92. D
93. A
94. C
95. C
96. A
97. B
98. C
99. A
100. C
101. A
102. D
103. B
104. D
105. A
106. B
107. C
108. B
109. D
110. D
111. C
112. A
113. D
114. D
115. C
116. B
117. C
118. D
119. A
120. B
121. A
122. C
123. C
124. B
125. D
126. C
127. C
128. D
129. B
130. A
131. D
132. A
133. C
134. A
135. B
136. C
137. C
138. C
139. C
140. B
141. B
142. A
143. A
144. C
145. C
146. B
147. A
148. A
149. D
150. B
151. B
152. D
153. C
154. A
155. C
156. B
157. C
158. D
159. B
160. A
161. A
162. A
163. B
164. D
165. D
166. B
167. C
168. A
169. C
170. B
171. D
172. A
173. C
174. A
175. C
176. C
177. A
178. C
179. A
180. C
181. C
182. C
183. D
184. A
185. B
186. A
187. A
188. B
189. C
190. B
191. C
192. D
193. C
194. B
195. A
196. B
197. C
198. D
199. A
200. D