2012 SSC CGL Tier 1
1 Jul Shift – 3
Question Paper with Answer Key
PART – A GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Which of the following has recently produced the first cloned camel?
A. Dubai
B. Iran
C. Syria
D. U.S.A.
2. If all the plants of the world dies, all the animals would also die due to shortage of
A. Cold air
B. Food
C. Oxygen
D. Shelter
3. Chlorination is
A. adding small amounts of chloride to contaminated water
B. a chemical reaction in which chlorine is formed
C. the formation of a salt containing chlorine
D. a process of converting chlorides into chlorine
4. Who decides the disputes regarding election of President?
A. The Supreme Court
B. The Election Commission
C. The Parliament
D. Both Supreme Court and High Courts
5. The growth of bacteria is measured by
A. haemocytometer
B. spectrophotometer
C. calorimeter
D. auxanometer
6. For which one of the following, are honey bees used ?
A. Apiculture
B. Horticulture
C. Pisciculture
D. Sericulture
7. Which one of the following is not an internal factor for industrial sickness ?
A. Diversion of funds
B. Technological Obsolescence
C. Wrong dividend policy
D. Mismanagement
8. Who is the first Law Officer of the Government of India ?
A. Law Secretary
B. Union Law Minister
C. Attorney General of India
D. The Chief Justice of India
9. The substance that causes the worst air pollution is
A. sulphur dioxide
B. carbon dioxide
C. carbon monoxide
D. smoke
10. Mammals form urea in the
A. Kidney
B. Spleen
C. Bladder
D. Liver
11. Main cause for agitations for separate states in India is
A. growing regional imbalances
B. people’s political consciousness
C. social inequalities
D. regionalism
12. Vikramshila University was founded by
A. Kanishka
B. Dharampala
C. Pulakesin II
D. Chandra Gupta Maurya
13. A Government is classified as federal or unitary on the basis of
A. Relations between the centre and states
B. Relations between the executive and the legislature
C. Relations between three organs of government
D. None of these
14. Choose the correct one from among the following
A. nirukta — metre
B. jyotisha — phonetics
C. vyakarana — grammar
D. Siksha — astrology
15. The New Zealanders are also known as
A. Kiwis
B. Arabs
C. Orientals
D. Sams
16. Near which one of the following cities, the Palitana Temples are situated ?
A. Mount Abu
B. Mearke
C. Ujjain
D. Bhav Nagar
17. Which one of the following is an essential ingredient of parliamentary government ?
A. A rigid constitution
B. Political parties
C. An Independent judiciary
D. A written constitution
18. ‘El Nino effect’ is closely associated with
A. Humboldt current
B. Equatorial counter current
C. Canaries current
D. Gulf current
19. ‘EVM’ stands
A. Electric Vending Machine
B. Electronic Vending Machine
C. Electronic Voting Machine
D. None of these
20. JDBC stands for
A. Java Developer Connectivity
B. Java Database Connectivity
C. Java Developing Connectivity
D. Java Data Base Conductivity
21. ‘Milk of magnesia’ is a suspension of
A. Magnesium carbonate
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Magnesium chloride
D. Magnesium sulphate
22. Pik globosa is used as bio filter in cleaning pollution of water by:
A. Mercury
B. Arsenic
C. Cadmium
D. Algal blooms
23. Find the odd one out:
A. IDBI – Financial assistance to large industries
B. SIDBI – Financial assistance to small industries
C. FCI – Financial assistance to food grains merchants
D. EXIM Bank – Financial assistance to exporters and importers Add Explanation
24. The word ‘Secular1 is a part of the Preamble of the Constitution of India
A. after the 44th amendment
B. after the 73rd amendment
C. from the date of implementation
D. after the 42nd amendment
25. Chemical name of Plaster of Paris is
A. Hydrated calcium carbonate
B. Calcium hydrate
C. Calcium sulphate hemihydrates
D. Calcium sulphate
26. The tributary of River Indus which flows through Himachal Pradesh is
A. Sutlej
B. Beas
C. Ravi
D. Hunza
27. Acidity of rain is measured by
A. Hygrometer
B. Ammeter
C. PHmeter
D. Barometer
28. Which revenue earned by Union Government is not distributed among State Governments ?
A. Excise duty
B. Income tax
C. Customs duty
D. None of these
29. The world’s fastest growing water plant is
A. Amazon water lily
B. Water hyacinth
C. Utricularia
D. Water Chestnut
30. The contents of memory will not be lost, when the power goes off in
A. ROM
B. EPROM
C. EEPROM
D. All the above
31. The Programme which is being implemented in all the districts of the country is:
A. Rajiv Gandhi Gramin Vidyutikaran Yojna
B. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
C. M.G.N.R.E.G. Programme
D. Navoday Vidyalaya
32. Who was the first envoy of the East India Company to meet Jahangir in 1608 A.D ?
A. William Edwards
B. Sir Thomas Roe
C. Edward Terry
D. William Hawkins
33. As per 2011 census, in India the number of females per thousand males is
A. 940
B. 934
C. 933
D. 972
34. Law of ‘Use and disuse’ was proposed by :
A. Lederberg
B. Lamarck
C. Darwin
D. Hugo De Vries
35. Which one of the following Cricketers has been declared by the ICC as ‘Cricketer of the Twentieth Century’?
A. Sachin Tendulkar
B. Kapil Dev
C. Rahul Dravid
D. Anil Kumble
36. The rocket which gives us information about Mars is :
A. Discovery
B. Insat 4
C. Atlas 5
D. Cassini
37. Wanchoo Committee dealt with
A. Agricultural Taxation
B. Direct Taxes
C. Monopolies and Trade Practices
D. Agricultural Prices
38. Carbohydrates are compounds of
A. Carbon, oxygen and hydrogen
B. Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen
C. Carbon and nitrogen
D. Carbon and hydrogen
39. If a bacterium cell divides in every 20 minutes, how many bacteria will be formed in two hours?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 64
D. 4
40. The International agreement to reduce greenhouse gases between 2008 – 2012 is known as :
A. Rule of 70
B. Rio Protocol
C. Kyoto Protocol
D. Agenda 21
41. A person opens his mouth on hearing a thunder in order to
A. equalise pressure of air on both sides of the ear drum
B. receive more sound
C. allow air to come out of the mouth
D. overcome fear
42. When ice is heated from 0° C to 10° C, the volume of water
A. Decreases steadily
B. First increases then decreases
C. First decreases then increases
D. Increases steadily
43. Through which states does the river Chambal flows ?
A. M.P.. Gujarat, U.P
B. Rajasthan, M.P., Bihar
C. Gujarat, M.P., Chhattisgarh
D. U.P., M.P., Rajasthan
44. As per the 2011 population census, the most populous state in the country is
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. West Bengal
D. Rajasthan
45. The state of Jhansi was made a part of the British empire in India through the :
A. Doctrine of Lapse
B. Policy of Subsidiary Alliance
C. War against Rani Lakshmi Bai
D. None of these
46. The famous book “A Better India, A Better World” has been written by :
A. Azim Premji
B. N. R Narayana Murthy
C. Praveen Mahapatra
D. Rajiv Sikri
47. Simple Goitre is a disease affecting :
A. Tear glands
B. Liver
C. Thyroid glands
D. Gums
48. Two bodies of the same mass are thrown with equal speed from the top of a tower simultaneously. One body (x) is thrown vertically downwards. The other (y) is thrown horizontally.
A. Both reaches ground with same Kinetic energy
B. x reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy
C. y reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy
D. Both x and y reaches ground simultaneously
49. An apparatus used for locating submerged objects is known as :
A. sonar
B. quasar
C. pulsar
D. radar
50. which of the following are wrongly matched?
(i) Tropic of Cancer – 231/2° N latitude
(ii) Tropic of Capricorn – 66 1/2° N latitude
(iii) International Date line – 0° longitude
(iv) Antarctic Circle – 66 1/2° S latitude
A. (i)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
D. None of these
PART – B ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is (d), i.e. No error.
51. Our history can be seen as a long evolutionary dialectical development (a)/ in which there have been (b)/ a painstaking forging of rational and moral self (c)/. No error (d)
A. Our history can be seen as a long evolutionary dialectical development
B. in which there have been
C. a painstaking forging of rational and moral self
D. No Error
52. Our knowledge of history does not come to (a)/ our help and sometimes we even fail to (b)/ remember who invented America (c)/ No error (d)
A. Our knowledge of history does not come to
B. our help and sometimes we even fail to
C. remember who invented America.
D. No Error
53. My grandfather owns (a)/ fifty acre (b)/ of wetland (c)/. No error (d)
A. My grandfather owns
B. fifty acre
C. of wetland
D. No error
54. Belgian chocolate is considered (a)/ by many to be finer (b)/ than any others in the World (c)/. No error (d)
A. Belgian chocolate is considered
B. by many to be finer
C. than any others in the World
D. No Error
55. Indian scientists are in no way (a)/ inferior than (b)/ any other scientist in the world (c)/. No error (d)
A. Indian scientists are in no way
B. inferior than
C. any other scientist in the world
D. No Error
In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled In with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer:
56. We didn’t_____ the programme to be such a huge success.
A. except
B. expect
C. access
D. accept
57. We should______ opportunities as they arise.
A. cease
B. size
C. sneeze
D. seize
58. The students aren’t prepared____ the examination.
A. to listen
B. to work
C. to take
D. to give
59. The government, in a bid to make Bihar, a preferred investment destination, has______ major schemes to create infrastructure at different stages.
A. Opposed
B. Opened
C. Pushed
D. launched
60. I suffer from no_____ about my capabilities.
A. doubts
B. hallucinations
C. imaginations
D. illusions
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word as your answer.
61. Inadvertent
A. unexpected
B. unintentional
C. undisturbed
D. ignorant
62. Fortitude
A. courage
B. protection
C. safety
D. similarity
63. Duplicity
A. Artlessness
B. Deceit
C. Cleverness
D. repetition
64. resourcefulness
A. Fidelity
B. strength
C. weakness
D. faithfulness
65. Vanguard
A. Officer
B. flag bearer
C. pioneer
D. race driver
In the following questions, choose the word opposite In meaning to the given word as your answer.
66. Tacitum
A. Silent
B. talkative
C. immense
D. judge
67. Artisan
A. skilled sculptor
B. learned person
C. ignorant villager
D. unskilled labour
68. Amicable
A. Friendly
B. haughty
C. unpleasant
D. hostile
69. Mitigate
A. Aggravate
B. Allay
C. Alleviate
D. Abate
70. Aversion
A. Awareness
B. Hatred
C. liking
D. avoidance
In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/phrase printed In bold In the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase as your answer.
71. He was out of spirits for a few days after his defeat.
A. gloomy
B. sober
C. lifeless
D. uninvolved
72. When the family in the next house packed off at midnight, I began to smell a rat.
A. to suspect a trick
B. to misunderstand
C. to see hidden meaning
D. to smell a bad smell
73. At first, there was a show of resistance to the new rule issued by the Government, but the movement had no backbone and Speedily collapsed.
A. Justification
B. Impact
C. strength
D. support
74. The cops were on their toes throughout the day.
A. Eager
B. alert
C. harried
D. quick
75. The minister assured the agitating employees that he would look into their demands sympathetically.
A. Discuss
B. Watch
C. Grant
D. examine
In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
76. The prolific writer’s work is published every year.
A. Exquisite
B. Didactic
C. Great
D. No improvement
77. Those plucking flowers are liable for punishable.
A. are liable for punishable
B. are liable for punishing
C. are liable to be punished
D. are viable for punishment
78. His lust for power brought about his downfall.
A. intense desire
B. desire for power
C. desire for sex
D. No improvement
79. I’ll meet the raging of the skies, but not an angry father.
A. Sunshine
B. rain
C. anger
D. No improvement
80. When we see black smoke near the wing of the plane, we were certain that disaster was imminent.
A. When we were seeing
B. When we saw
C. When we had seen
D. No improvement
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
81. Government by a small group of all powerful persons
A. monarchy
B. democracy
C. anarchy
D. oligarchy
82. One indifferent to art and literature is
A. Critic
B. Philistine
C. Scholar
D. Aromatic
83. Open to injury or criticism
A. vulnerable
B. naive
C. sensitive
D. invincible
84. One who collects coins as a hobby
A. Ornithologist
B. Statistician
C. numismatist
D. philatelist
85. A narrow piece of land connecting two large masses of land
A. isthmus
B. continent
C. gulf
D. peninsula
In the following questions, there are four different words out of which one Is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word as your answer.
86.
A. Beneficial
B. beneficial
C. benifical
D. beneficial
87.
A. Avericious
B. Avaricious
C. Avarisious
D. Averisious
88.
A. Internally
B. Coldly
C. Fortunately
D. Uniquely
89.
A. affectionately
B. afectionately
C. affectionnality
D. affectionately
90.
A. Apprehension
B. apprihension
C. aprihension
D. apprehenson
In the following questions, you have a brief passage with 5 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
If this is so, if to read a book as it should be read calls for the rarest qualities of imagination, insight and judgement. You may perhaps conclude that literature is a very complex art and that it is unlikely that we shall be able, even after a life time of reading, to make any valuable contribution to its criticism. We must remain readers, we shall not put on the further glory that belongs to those rare beings who are also critics.
91. What is the opinion of most of the people about literature?
A. That it is not an easy one to contribute anything
B. That it is to some extent difficult to understand
C. That no contribution is necessary for literature
D. That it is very easy to understand
92. The antonym of conclude is
A. commence
B. exclude
C. end
D. include
93. According to the author
A. It is not possible for most of us to contribute anything for criticism
B. It is possible to do something
C. It is not even easy to understand literature
D. Most of the people can contribute to criticism of literature
94. The author feels that we cannot have the greatness of
A. Writers
B. critics
C. publishers
D. readers
95. What are the qualities required for reading a book ?
A. proper judgement
B. imagination
C. imagination, insight and judgement
D. None of the above
In the following questions, you have a brief passage with 5 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
These days not even many politicians deny that the oceans are ill. Protecting the health of coastal waters is now a matter of national policy in dozens of countries including the U.S., and world leaders are beginning to prescribe a revolutionary remedy that conservationists have been promoting for years: marine planning and zoning.
The idea is a natural extension of management policies that have guided the development of cities and landscapes for nearly a century. Zoning advocates envision a mosaic of regional maps in which every watery space on the planet is designated for a particular purpose. Drilling and mining would be allowed only in certain parts of the ocean; fishing in others. The most critically threatened areas would be virtually off limits.
Whereas people can easily find maps telling them what they can do where on land, the marine realm is a hodgepodge of rules emanating from an army of agencies, each one managing a single use or symptom.
96. Marine planning and zoning is a_____ to protect the coastal waters.
A. conservationists’ discovery
B. marine project
C. revolutionary remedy
D. national policy of the US
97. These days_____ that the oceans are not in good health.
A. most of the politicians agree
B. all politicians agree
C. nobody agrees
D. everybody agrees
98. ‘Marine realm’ is a hodgepodge of rules means
A. seas need to be cleaned
B. there are no uniform laws governing the seas.
C. there is total anarchy
D. critical areas are not being looked after properly.
99. Sea zoning is all about_____.
A. drilling and sea mining
B. conserving the environment
C. banning fishing in the sea
D. dividing watery space for specific purposes
100. ‘Conservation it’ means______.
A. a marine engineer.
B. one who looks after others
C. one who prevents something from destruction
D. a proficient speaker
PART – C QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
101. The average of 12 , 22 , 32 , 42 , 52 , 62 , 72 , 82 , 92 ,102 is
A. 42.5
B. 46.5
C. 50.5
D. 38.5
102. The distance between the points (0, 0) and the intersecting point of the graphs of x= 3 and y = 4 is
A. 4 unit
B. 3 unit
C. 2 unit
D. 5 unit
103. A certain number when divided by 899 leaves the remainder 65. When the same number is divided by 31, the remainder is :
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
104. If G is the centroid and AD, BE, CF are three medians of triangle ABC with area 72 sq cm , then the area of triangle BDG is :
A. 12 sq cm
B. 16 sq cm
C. 24 sq cm
D. 8 sq cm
105. If a + b = 6, a – b = 2, then the value of 2*(a2 + b2) is :
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 10
106. The odd element in the sequence 3, 7,13, 21, 33, 43, 57, is :
A. 21
B. 33
C. 43
D. 7
107. The tangents drawn at the points A and B of a circle centred at 0 meet at P. If ∠AOB = 120° then ∠APB : ∠APO is :
A. 2:5
B. 3:2
C. 4:1
D. 2:1
108. From the top of a cliff 90 metre high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed to be 30° and 60° respectively. The height of the tower is :
A. 45 m
B. 60 m
C. 75 m
D. 30 m
109. The least positive integer which is a perfect square and also divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66 is :
A. 186624
B. 213444
C. 254016
D. 156816
110. The value of x when 5% of √2x Is 0.01 will be :
A. 0.03
B. 0.02
C. 0.01
D. 0.05
111. 
A. b/a+b
B. ab/a+b
C. 1
D. a/a+b
112. 
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. -2
113. If a = 2+√3/2-√3 and b = 2-√3/2+√3, then the value of a2 + b2 + a x b is
A. 185
B. 195
C. 200
D. 175
114. If sec Ө – cosec Ө = 0, then the value of (sec Ө + cosec Ө) is :
A. √3/2
B. 2/√3
C. 0
D. 2 x √2
115. A and B can separately do a piece of work in 20 and 15 days respectively. They worked together for 6 days after which B was replaced by C. The work was finished in next 4 days. The number of days in which C alone could do the work is :
A. 35 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 40 days
116. If x = 2√6/√3+√2, then the value of x+√2/x-√2 + x+√3/x-√3 is
A. √2
B. √3
C. √6
D. 2
117. Side AB of rectangle of ABCD is divided into four equal parts by points X, Y, Z respectively. The ratio of the areas of Triangle XYC and the rectangle ABCD is ?
A. 1/7
B. 1/6
C. 1/9
D. 1/8
118. If the length of a chord of a circle, which makes an angle 45° with the tangent drawn at one end point of the chord, is 6cm, then the radius of the circle is :
A. 6√2 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 3√2 cm
D. 6 cm
119. A man buys one table and one chair for Rs. 500. He sells the table at a loss of 10% and the chair at a gain of 10%. He still gains Rs. 10 on the whole. The cost price of the chair is:
A. Rs. 250
B. Rs. 300
C. Rs. 350
D. Rs. 200
120. The three medians AD, BE and CF of triangle ABC intersect at point G. If the area of triangle ABC is 60 sq.cm. then the area of the quadrilateral BDGE is:
A. 10 sq.cm
B. 15 sq.cm
C. 20 sq.cm
D. 30 sq.cm
121. The rate of simple interest at which a sum of money becomes three times in 25 years is :
A. 6%
B. 8%
C. 5%
D. 4%
122. If p sin Ө = Ө3 and p cos Ө=1, then the value of p is :
A. ½
B. 2/√3
C. -1/√3
D. 2
123. ABCD is a trapezium, such that AB = CD and AD is parallel to BC. AD = 5 cm, BC = 9 cm. If area of ABCD is 35 sq.cm, then CD is :
A. √29 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 6 cm
D. √21 cm
124. If x*sin3 Ө + y *cos3 Ө = sin Ө * cos Ө ≠ 0 and x sin Ө – y cos Ө = 0, then value of (x2 + y2) is
A. 1
B. Sin Ө – cos Ө
C. Sin Ө + cos Ө
D. 0
125. 
A. 4
B. 5
C. 7
D. 3
126. If un = cosn a + sinna, then the value of 2u6 — 3u4 + 1 is :
A. 1
B. 4
C. 6
D. 0
127. 
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
128. P and Q are the middle points of two chords (not diameters) AB and AC respectively of a circle with centre at a point 0. The lines OP and OQ are produced to meet the circle respectively at the points R and S. T is any point on the major arc between the points R and S of the circle. If ∠BAC = 32°, ∠RTS = ?
A. 32°
B. 74°
C. 106°
D. 64°
129. A container has 80 L of milk. From this container 8 L of milk was taken out and replaced by water. The process was further repeated twice. The value of milk in the container after that is :
A. 85.32 L
B. 58.23 L
C. 85.23 L
D. 58.32 L
130. The radius of a circle is 13 cm and XY is a chord which is at a distance of 12 cm from the centre. The length of the chord is :
A. 15 cm
B. 12 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 20 cm
131. Two angles of a triangle are a radian and 1/3 radian. The measure of the third angle in degree (taking π = 22/7) is:
A. 132 1/11°
B. 132 2/11°
C. 132 3/11°
D. 132°
132. Two equal circles pass through each other’s centre. If the radius of each circle is 5 cm, what is the length of the common chord?
A. 5
B. 5√3
C. 10√3
D. 5√3/2
133. A grain dealer cheats to the extent of 10% while buying as well as selling by using false weights. His total profit percentage
A. 20%
B. 22.22%
C. 23.23%
D. 25%
134. Consider AABD such that ∠ADB = 20° and C is a point on BD such that AB = AC and CD = CA. Then the measure of ∠ABC is :
A. 40°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 30°
135. if sin (x + y) = cos [3(x + y)], then the value of tan[2(x + y)] is :
A. √3
B. 1
C. 0
D. 1/√3
136. The diameter of a garden roller is 1.4 metre and it is 2 metre long. The area covered by the roller in 5 revolutions is :
A. 8.8 sq. m
B. 4.4 sq. m
C. 44 sq. m
D. 16.8 sq. m
137. A person travels 285 km in 6 hr. In the first part of the journey, he travels at 40 km/hr by bus. In the second part, he travels at 55km/hr by train. The distance travelled by train is :
A. 156 km
B. 165 km
C. 615 km
D. 561 km
138. The average of five numbers is 56.4. The average of the first and the second number is 53. The average of the fourth and the fifth number is 56. What is the third number?
A. 64
B. 63
C. 35
D. 7
139. The value of (1 + sec 20° + cot 70°) * (1 – cosec 20° + tan 70°) is?
A. 0
B. -1
C. 2
D. 1
140. If 0 ≤ a ≤ π/2 and 2sina +15 cos2 a = 7 then the value of cot a is :
A. ½
B. 5/4
C. ¾
D. ¼
141. The marked price of a shop keeper for an article is 30% higher than the cost price. If he sells the article allowing 10% discount to customers, then the gain percent will be :
A. 17%
B. 16 2/3 %
C. 12 ½%
D. 15%
142. If sin 2Ө =1/2, then the value of cos (75° – Ө) is
A. 1
B. ½
C. √3/2
D. 1/√2
143. A triangle is formed by the x axis and the lines 2x + y = 4 and x – y +1= 0 as three sides. Taking the side along x axis as its base, the corresponding altitude of the triangle is :
A. 2 unit
B. 3 unit
C. √5 unit
D. 1 unit
144. lf x = 1/2+√3 and y = 1/2-√3 then the value of 1/x+1 + 1/y+1 is
A. ½
B. √3
C. 1
D. 1/√3
145. A starts business with Rs. 7000 and after 5 months. B joined as a partner. After a year the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. The capital of B is :
A. Rs. 9,000
B. Rs. 10,000
C. Rs. 6,500
D. Rs. 18,000
In the following questions, the following Bar Diagram shows the percentage of 7 coloured balls sold In 5 shops A, B, C, D and E. All the five shops sold an equal number of balls. Study the graph and answer all the questions. (Q. No. 146 to 150)
146. In shop A, the ratio of percentage of violet balls and yellow balls is :
A. 2 : 7
B. 7:4
C. 6:1
D. 2:4
147. The shops having equal percentage of white balls among the given options are :
A. A and C
B. C and E
C. B and C
D. A and B
148. What percentage of total coloured balls is yellow balls?
A. 12%
B. 16%
C. 14%
D. 10%
149. The difference between the sum of percentages of violet balls sold to the sum of percentages of blue balls sold is
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 40
150. The ratio of total number of red balls sold to the total number of orange balls sold is :
A. 1:1
B. 10:19
C. 9:11
D. 20:29
PART – D GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING
In each of the following questions, select the related letter/word/number from the given alternative.
151. 8:9 : 56 : ?
A. 90
B. 73
C. 72
D. 89
152. AC EG : ZXVT :: BDFH : ?
A. YVSP
B. IKMO
C. YUQM
D. YWUS
153. BCFG : HILM :: NORQ ?
A. TXUW
B. TUXW
C. TVWX
D. TXWU
154. Affluent : Opulent :: Flourish :
A. Prosper
B. Flatter
C. Comprise
D. Outflow
155. 25 : 37 :: 49 : ?
A. 56
B. 60
C. 65
D. 41
156. ABCD : ZYXW :: EFGH : ?
A. VUTS
B. EUTS
C. POTS
D. UOTS
157. 7 : 32 :: 28 : ?
A. 128
B. 126
C. 136
D. 116
158. Gulp : Drink :: Rush : ?
A. Jump
B. Hop
C. Go
D. Run
159. Joy : Delight:: Gloomy : ?
A. Silent
B. Dull
C. Vague
D. Plain
160. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. NQ
B. AT
C. HK
D. CF
161. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Mumbai
B. New Delhi
C. Kolkata
D. Chennai
162. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Tiger
B. Cheetah
C. Lion
D. Wolf
163. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. OUT
B. FED
C. DIN
D. JOT
164. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 26
B. 82
C. 15
D. 65
165. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 27
B. 37
C. 47
D. 17
166. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. CFI
B. DGJ
C. EHL
D. BEH
167. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 5-35
B. 4-44
C. 6-64
D. 3-30
168. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Disk
B. SIM
C. USB
D. Modem
169. In each of the following questions, which of the following word will appear last In the dictionary?
A. Rhapsody
B. Revolve
C. Rheumatism
D. Reward
170. In each of the following questions, which of the following word will appear last In the dictionary?
A. heart strings
B. heavy
C. health
D. heathen
171. In each of the following questions, which of the following word will appear last In the dictionary?
A. Prize
B. Prosecute
C. Prompt
D. Prostrate
In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
172. 2 6 12 20 30 ? 56
A. 38
B. 46
C. 56
D. 42
173. JkL AbC MnO DeF PqR Gh?
A. I
B. i
C. S
D. s
174. 1, 4,10, 19, 31, ?
A. 43
B. 46
C. 50
D. 55
175. RQOLH ?
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. A
176. YXHGWVFEUTDCSRB?
A. D
B. C
C. I
D. A
177. 0, 6,24,60,120, 210, ….
A. 336
B. 504
C. 338
D. 420
For the following questions answer them individually
178. A husband and a wife had five married sons and each of them had four children. How many members are there in the family?
A. 32
B. 36
C. 30
D. 40
179. In a certain code, if DEMOCRACY is written as YCARCOMED, how will the word PRESIDENT be coded as?
A. EIETPRSDN
B. NDSRPTEIE I
C. TNEDISERP
D. RSDNPEIET
180. From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. ‘Distribution’
A. Tribute
B. riot
C. dust
D. disturb
181. If MOTHER Is coded as ‘NPUIFS’ select the appropriate code from the answer choices, for the word in capital letters : ZENITH
A. AFOGHJ
B. BGPKVJ
C. AFOJUI
D. AFOGHI
182. If AEIOU is written as BCJMV, how XCKYB can be written in that code ?
A. YALWC
B. YELAC
C. ADNZE
D. YBLXC
183. Five persons (R, S, T, U and V) are in a queue facing a reservation counter. Immediately behind S is U. T is standing between R and V. In between R and U, no one is there. Then, where is S standing in the queue?
A. Last but one
B. First
C. Second
D. Last
184. In the year 2003, some months have 31 days. How many months have 28 days ?
A. 12 months
B. Alternate months
C. 6 months
D. 1 month
185. In a team of five players, Vani is older than Rani. Sita is younger than Vani but older than Rani. Nita is younger than Mary and Rani. Rani is older than Mary. Whose age is middle of the five in this team?
A. Mary
B. Vani
C. Rani
D. Sita
186. In a certain code, SURFER is written as RUSREF. How is KNIGHT written in that code?
A. THGINK
B. GHTINK
C. INKTHG
D. THINKG
187. In each of the following questions, some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.
A. 544
B. 445
C. 515
D. 454
188. 4 x 6 x 9=649, 9 x 8 x 4 =894, 3x7x2=?
A. 272
B. 294
C. 732
D. 813
For the following questions answer them individually
189. Based on the given details, find out the number of postgraduates enrolled in a college for the year 1970.
A. 63
B. 79
C. 62
D. 84
190. Two squads of soldiers A and B facing North and South respectively received the following commands – Right Turn, Left Turn, Left Turn, Left Turn. Which directions would the squads A and B face at the end ?
A. South, North
B. West, East
C. North, South
D. East, West
191. In a square shaped hostel, there are 8 rooms on each side in every floor. Room No. 101 is the first room facing north in the first floor. The room numbers are continued clockwise, which direction does Room No. 125 face?
A. South
B. North
C. West
D. East
192. Select the missing number from the given responses :
A. 30
B. 55
C. 60
D. 70
193. If – stands for x, x stands for +, ÷ stands for – and + stands for ÷ which one of the following is correct ?
A. 11 – 6 ÷ 4 + 2 = 68
B. 10 – 5 x 6 ÷ 2 = 54
C. 15 + 3 x 4 ÷ 3 = 12
D. 12 + 4 ÷ 2 – 7 = 8
In each of the following questions, two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even If they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions If any, follow from the given statements.
194. Statements :
(i) All scholars are eccentric.
(ii) No woman is eccentric.
Conclusion:
I. No woman is scholar.
II. All eccentric are men.
A. Only conclusion II follows
B. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
C. Both conclusions I and II follow
D. Only conclusion I follows
195. Statements :
I. All students are girls.
II. No girl is dull.
Conclusions :
I. There are no boys in the class.
II. No student is dull.
A. Only conclusion II follows
B. Both conclusions I and II follow
C. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
D. Only conclusion I follows
196. For the following questions answer them individually
197. Identify the code for ‘MARS’.
A. 66, 34, 21, 56
B. 89, 20, 22, 79
C. 97, 41, 33, 96
D. 75, 13, 40, 67
198. For the following questions answer them individually
199. For the following questions answer them individually
200. For the following questions answer them individually
ANSWER KEY
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. A
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. C
15. A
16. D
17. B
18. B
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. C
23. C
24. D
25. C
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. D
33. A
34. B
35. B
36. C
37. B
38. A
39. C
40. C
41. A
42. B
43. D
44. B
45. A
46. B
47. C
48. A
49. A
50. B
51. B
52. C
53. B
54. B
55. B
56. B
57. D
58. C
59. D
60. D
61. B
62. A
63. B
64. D
65. B
66. B
67. D
68. D
69. A
70. C
71. A
72. A
73. C
74. B
75. D
76. D
77. C
78. D
79. C
80. B
81. D
82. B
83. A
84. C
85. A
86. B
87. B
88. D
89. A
90. A
91. B
92. A
93. A
94. B
95. C
96. C
97. A
98. B
99. D
100. C
101. D
102. D
103. B
104. A
105. C
106. B
107. D
108. B
109. B
110. B
111. B
112. B
113. B
114. D
115. D
116. D
117. D
118. C
119. B
120. C
121. B
122. D
123. A
124. A
125. A
126. D
127. A
128. B
129. D
130. C
131. C
132. B
133. B
134. A
135. B
136. C
137. B
138. A
139. C
140. C
141. A
142. B
143. A
144. C
145. D
146. B
147. C
148. C
149. B
150. D
151. C
152. D
153. B
154. A
155. C
156. A
157. A
158. C
159. B
160. B
161. B
162. D
163. A
164. C
165. A
166. C
167. C
168. B
169. C
170. B
171. D
172. D
173. A
174. B
175. B
176. D
177. A
178. A
179. C
180. A
181. C
182. A
183. B
184. A
185. C
186. C
187. B
188. C
189. C
190. A
191. C
192. A
193. B
194. D
195. B
196. D
197. D
198. B
199. B
200. B