2012 SSC CGL Tier 1
8 Jul Shift – 3
Question Paper with Answer Key


For the following questions answer them individually

1. Which kind of veto can the President make use of with regard to bills by the Parliament ?
A. Suspensive
B. Pocket
C. Qualified
D. All the above

2. In which country does the Speaker, soon after getting elected, sever all kinds of relations with his party ?
A. France
B. Canada
C. U.S.A.
D. England

3. Gandhian economy emphasises on
A. Political and social values
B. Socialist and economic values
C. Humanitarian and cultural values
D. Spiritual and religious values

4. Which country’s Constitution is a mixture of both Parliamentary and Presidential forms of Government?
A. U.S.A.
B. Germany
C. France
D. Great Britain

5. Who among the following rulers paid considerable attention to irrigation and public works ?
A. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
B. Alauddin Khilji
C. Firuz Tughlaq
D. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

6. The llbert Bill was introduced during the time of
A. Curzon
B. Minto
C. Lytton
D. Ripon

7. The Muslim League was founded in 1906 at
A. Dhaka
B. Karachi
C. Aligarh
D. Meerut

8. In which language was Chachnama written originally?
A. Turki
B. Prakrit
C. Arabic
D. Persian

9. Gita Govinda was written by
A. Jayadeva
B. Namdev
C. Sankara
D. Manikka Vasagar

10. The 2004-09 Foreign Trade Policy gave emphasis to
A. export promotion
B. long term trade relations
C. import substitution
D. increasing customs duty

11. Markets fail when
A. they equalise the aggregate consumer and producer surplus
B. they escalate the aggregate consumer and producer surplus
C. they do not maximise the aggregate consumer and producer surplus
D. they maximise aggregate consumer and producer surplus

12. Neglect of agriculture in the development process will lead to
A. lower levels of production
B. severe bottlenecks in overall development
C. insufficient savings
D. shortage of foreign exchange

13. monopolistic competition produces
A. Close substitutes
B. Perfect substitutes
C. Complementary goods
D. Homogeneous goods

14. A Socialist economy is
A. an equalitarian economy
B. a planned economy
C. a non planned economy
D. a democratic economy

15. That India is a secular state is implied in the phrase
A. Social justice
B. Dignity of the individuals
C. Equality of status
D. Liberty of faith and worship

16. Opium is a plant product obtained from
A. roots
B. stem bark
C. dried leaves
D. dried latex

17. Which one among the following is not a unit of weight ?
A. Pound
B. Kilogram
C. Gram
D. Dyne

18. The materials which are weakly repelled by magnets are called
A. ferromagnetic materials
B. a magnetic materials
C. paramagnetic materials
D. diamagnetic materials

19. What is the distance of ‘distinct vision’ for normal eye?
A. 37.5 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 12.5 cm
D. 25 cm

20. A body which is a good absorber of heat is also a
A. good reflector
B. cannot be predicted
C. good radiator
D. bad radiator

21. Which among the following was a precursor to the Internet ?
A. Extranet
B. Usenet
C. Intranet
D. Arpanet

22. In Java,_____ is an independent sequential flow of control within a process.
A. Thread
B. Exception
C. Applet
D. method

23. The colour of cow’s milk is slightly yellowish due to the presence of
A. riboflavin
B. carotene
C. ribulose
D. xanthophylls

24. Which of the following is not caused or aggravated by air pollution ?
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Chronic bronchitis

25. Magnetic Equator is closely associated with
A. Natural calamities
B. Fishing ground
C. Tidal current
D. Satellite launching

26. Lands dependent on rain are
A. dry
B. arid
C. rain fed
D. irrigated

27. Which of the following mountain systems has the feature of syntaxial bend ?
A. Western Ghats
B. Himalayas
C. Aravallis
D. Vindhyas

28. Palaeontology is the study of
A. Soil
B. Tree
C. Fossils
D. Rocks

29. The first fertiliser plant in India was set up at
A. Alwaye
B. Asansol
C. Ranipet
D. Sindri

30. When dust gets into the eye, the part that becomes inflamed and pink is the
A. Conjunctiva
B. Sclerotic
C. Cornea
D. Choroid

31. Haemoglobin is a respiratory pigment present in all chordata except in larvae of
A. Lamprey
B. Ascidia
C. Eel fish
D. Toad

32. Ilium is a part of
A. Pelvic girdle
B. Small intestine
C. Stomach
D. Pectoral girdle

33. The pores in leaves through which liquid water Oozes Out at times are Called
A. Phyllopores
B. Stomata
C. Hydathodes
D. Lenticels

34. Some oil rich seeds can be stored for long periods without any change in their oil content because of the presence of
A. Proteins
B. Carbohydrates
C. Antioxidants
D. Fats

35. The planet nearest to the Sun is
A. Mercury
B. Jupiter
C. Venus
D. Mars

36. The least populated State in India is
A. Manipur
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Goa
D. Sikkim

37. The first Chief Election Commissioner of India was
A. T. Swaminathan
B. Sukumar Sen
C. K.V.K. Sundaram
D. S.P. Senvarma

38. The Indian Railways inaugurated the country’s first Green Station in 2011 at
A. Manwal
B. Gorakhpur
C. Belgaum
D. Darjeeling

39. Who is the author of the latest book ‘Journey of a Nation : Indian National Congress -125 Years’ ?
A. Sunil Shastri
B. Vijay Dutt
C. Anand Sharma
D. Ashok Sharma

40. Which of the following became the first country in Europe to apply a ban on the wearing of full face coverings in 2011 ?
A. Italy
B. France
C. Germany
D. Belgium

41. Who among the following was selected in 2011 for the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2010?
A. K. Balachander
B. V.K. Murthy
C. A.R. Rahman
D. Javed Akhtar

42. Who among the following won the Men’s Singles Title in the Wimbledon 2011 Championship ?
A. Roger Federer
B. Andy Murray
C. Novak Djokovic
D. Rafael Nadal

43. Which of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing ?
A. Chromium salt
B. Copper salt
C. Aluminium salt
D. All the above

44. Semiconductor materials are
A. Germanium and Carbon
B. Platinum and Carbon
C. Silicon and Platinum
D. Silicon and Germanium

45. Food chain is present in
A. Marine ecosystem
B. Forest ecosystem
C. Pond ecosystem
D. All the above

46. Green house effect in the environment is due to the increase of
A. Ozone
B. Sulphur dioxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Carbon monoxide

47. Which of the following phenomena is considered as associated with global warming ?
A. La Nina
B. Nino Modoki
C. Southern Oscillation
D. El Nino

48. Which one of the following countries has the highest natural gas reserves ?
A. Russia
B. Saudi Arabia
C. Iran
D. Qatar

49. The Book ‘Mein Kampf ‘ was written by
A. Benito Mussolini
B. Adolf Hitler
C. Alexander the Great
D. Sir Winston Churchill

50. The largest tiger reserve in India is
A. Pench
B. Corbett
C. Nagarjuna
D. Manas


In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (d). i.e. No error.

51. Raghav was unhappy to hear (a) the news of his son’s failure (b) / in the examination, (c)/ No error (a)
A. Raghav was unhappy to hear
B. the news of his son’s failure
C. in the examination.
D. No error

52. Either he (a) / or his wife (b) / are coming to attend the dinner, (c) / No error (d)
A. Either he
B. or his wife
C. are corning to attend the dinner.
D. No error

53. The launch of the first artificial satellite by the Russians (a) / took the world almost entirely unawares (b) / and provocation flood speculation about its significance, (c) / No Error (d)
A. The launch of the first artificial satellite by the Russians
B. took the world almost entirely unawares
C. and provocation flood speculation about its significance.
D. No error

54. When an university formulates (a) / new regulations, (b) / it must circulate its decision to the faculty. (c) / No error (d)
A. When an university formulates
B. new regulations,
C. it must circulate its decision to the faculty.
D. No error

55. The office with all its modern furniture (a)/ and equipments were sold (b) / for a meagre amount, (c)/ No error (d)
A. The office with all its modern furniture
B. and equipments were sold
C. for a meagre amount.
D. No error

In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

56. Because it does not aim to_____ to the masses and strives for an____ view, art is fated to be always under attack.
A. defer; individual
B. cater; alternate
C. appeal; universal
D. afford; independent

57. You must apologise_____ him_____ the wrong you have done.
A. from; on
B. to; against
C. from; against
D. to; for

58. After I_____ dinner, I____ T.V. for a while.
A. had finished; watched
B. finished; watching
C. had; had watching
D. had finished; will watch

59. I____ him because of his____
A. admire; hypocrisy
B. detest; generosity
C. love; impertinence
D. hate; rudeness

60. Enemies are almost always______ as they share the same_____ of hatred, suspicion and betrayal.
A. similar; intensity
B. common; features
C. different; feelings
D. disparate; qualities

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word as your answer.

61. Copious
A. abundant
B. enjoyable
C. capable
D. copiable

62. Prerogative
A. Formative
B. Prevention
C. Privilege
D. Protective

63. Aggravate
A. Increase
B. Big
C. angry
D. intensify

64. Sycophants
A. Advisors
B. flatterers
C. servants
D. sadists

65. Flout
A. Ignore
B. refuse
C. condemn
D. disregard

In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word as your answer.

66. Harbinger
A. Counsellor
B. Ascetic
C. miser
D. follower

67. Expeditious
A. Obscure
B. Barren
C. Leisurely
D. Speedy

68. Postponed
A. Adjourned
B. advanced
C. accredited
D. abdicated

69. Faded
A. Consistent
B. spirited
C. happy
D. bright

70. Heterogeneous
A. hilarious
B. illustrious
C. homogeneous
D. industrious

In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase as your answer.

71. To account for
A. speak the truth about
B. maintain accounts properly
C. give the accounts for
D. give a satisfactory explanation for

72. Gift of the gab
A. to win a prize
B. to be lucky
C. talent for speaking
D. to distribute gifts

73. Kicked the bucket
A. Played
B. collapsed
C. Fought
D. Died

74. A wolf in sheep’s clothing
A. a woman who looks younger than her age
B. a man of high birth but in poor condition
C. a wicked man who pretends to be good
D. a good for nothing person

75. She left him in the lurch
A. annoyed him
B. deserted him in difficult times
C. put him at ease
D. compromised him

In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).

76. I want to tidy my room but I had no time.
A. am having no time
B. have no time
C. did not have time
D. No improvement

77. My relative was living in that house during 1965 to 1975.
A. have been living in 1965 to 1975
B. had been living from 1965 to 1975
C. lived in that house from 1965 to 1975
D. No improvement

78. Contact for Clatterers and Decorators.
A. Cluttering and Decorating
B. Caterers and Decorators
C. Cutleries and Decorators
D. No improvement

79. After my long walk, I was pleased to have an iced drink. I found it lively.
A. refreshing
B. tiring
C. livid
D. No improvement

80. The revue at the theatre got excellent reviews from most newspapers.
A. Review
B. venue
C. revenue
D. No improvement

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words / sentence.

81. Having infinite power
A. Omnipotent
B. Omniscient
C. Impotent
D. Omnipresent

82. One who hates women
A. Misogynist
B. Polyandrist
C. Altruist
D. Celibate

83. A feeling of fondness, mixed with some sadness, for something in the past
A. Nostalgia
B. Nausea
C. Oblivion
D. Noxiousness

84. One who looks at the bright side of things in life
A. Misanthrope
B. Altruist
C. Optimist
D. Pessimist

85. Dying without making a will
A. Posthumous
B. Bequeath
C. Premature
D. Intestate

In the following questions, there are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

A. Transloosent
B. tranciant
C. aparent
D. transparent

A. Ornamentel
B. ornammental
C. ornemental
D. ornamental

A. Coleague
B. Collegue
C. colleague
D. colegue

A. Appreciasi on
B. apreciation
C. appreciation
D. appriciasion

A. Accommodation
B. Accommodation
C. accomudation
D. accommodation

In the following questions, you have a brief passages with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Once upon an unfortunate time, there was a hairy thing called ‘man’. Along with him was a hairier thing called ‘animal’. Man had a larger brain which made him think he was superior to animals. Some men thought they were superior to others. They became leader men.
Leader men said, ‘We have no need to work; we will kill animals to eat.’ So they did. Man increased and animals decreased. Eventually leader men said, There are not enough animals left to eat. We must grow our own food.’ So man grew food.
Everywhere man killed all wild life. Soon there was none and all the birds were poisoned. Leader men said, ‘At last we are free of pests.’ Man’s numbers increased. The world became crowded with men. They all had to sleep standing up. One day a leader man saw some new creatures eating his crops. The creature’s name was the starving people’. ‘These creatures are a menace!’ said the leader man.

91. ‘We have no need to work’ said the leader man because
A. they would kill animals and eat
B. they had no strength
C. they were rich
D. they were lazy

92. The hero of the story is
A. Leader man
B. Wild life
C. Man
D. Pests

93. Man thought he was superior to other creatures because
A. he did not have to work
B. he could kill other animals for food
C. he was able to grow food
D. he had a larger brain

94. Men had to sleep standing up as
A. they felt lazy to stretch themselves
B. they felt proud to sleep standing up
C. there was population explosion
D. they had no time to lie down

95. Pick out a suitable title for the passage.
A. Man, the dictator
B. Man, the roof of creation
C. Man, the supreme lord
D. The Tyrant Man

In the following questions, you have a brief passages with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
The great advantage of early rising is the good start it gives for one’s daily work. The early riser is able to complete a lot of work before others even get out of their bed. As the mind is fresh in the morning, free from distractions, one is able to do quality work. One is able, if so inclined, to have early morning exercises which keep one energetic throughout the day Thus one completes one’s work during the day without hurrying much and is left with time in the evening for play or entertainment or relaxation by a leisurely walk. This leads to a good night’s rest after which one is able to rise fresh the next morning to face another day.

96. An early riser is able to complete his work without hurrying because
A. he is energetic after morning exercises
B. he has time to complete his work
C. he has time to plan in the morning
D. he does not get distracted

97. An early riser gets ample time in the evening to
A. take a short nap
B. take a leisurely walk
C. chat with friends
D. be with the family

98. Going to bed early is good for health because
A. one feels energetic
B. one does feel sleepy in the morning
C. one feels healthy
D. one feels refreshed in the morning

99. How does early rising affect one’s day ?
A. Makes one energetic
B. Makes one enthusiastic
C. Makes one feel happy
D. Makes one finish one’s work

100. An early riser gets his work done well because
A. he is able to do a lot of work
B. his mind is fresh, free from distractions
C. he feels fresh
D. he is able to go for a morning walk


For the following questions answer them individually

101. The height of a tower is h and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is a. On moving a distance h/2 towards, the tower, the angle of elevation becomes 0. The value of cot α – cot β
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1/2
D. 2/3

102. If sec x + cos x = 3, then tan2x — sin2x is
A. 5
B. 13
C. 9
D. 4

103. Given that ∠ABC = 90°, BC is parallel to DE. If AB = 12, BD = 6 and BC = 10, then the length of DE is
A. 16
B. 15
C. 12
D. 14

104. AB and CD are two parallel chords drawn on two opposite sides of their parallel diameter such that AB = 6 cm, CD = 8 cm. If the radius of the circle is 5 cm, the distance between the chords, in cm, is
A. 2
B. 7
C. 6
D. 3

105. A chord AB of length 3√2 unit subtends a right angle at the centre 0 of a circle. Area of the sector AOB (in sq. units) is
A. 9/4 π
B. 5 π
C. 9 π
D. 9/2 π

106. If sin p + cosec p = 2, then the value of sin7p + cosec7 p is
A. 27
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2

107. If sin Ө + sin2 Ө + sin3 Ө = 1, then cos6Ө – 4cos4 Ө + 8cos2 Ө is equal to
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3

108. sin (45 + Ө) – cos (45 – Ө) is
A. 2 sin Ө
B. 1
C. 2 cos Ө
D. 0

109. A man is climbing a ladder which is inclined to the wall at an angle of 30°. If he ascends at a rate of 2 m/s, then he approaches the wall at the rate of
A. 1.5 m/s
B. 1 m/s
C. 2 m/s
D. 2.5 m/s

110. Value of 2(sin6Ө + cos6Ө) — 3(sin4Ө + cos4Ө) + 1 is
A. 4
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2

111. If tan Ө= a/b, then a sin Ө + b cos Ө/a sin Ө – b cos Ө is
A. a/a2+b2
B. b/a2+b2
C. a2-b2/a2+b2
D. a2+b2/a2-b2

112. The value of sin 39°/cos 51° + 2 tan11°tan31°tan45°tan59°tan79° – 3(sm2 21° + sin2 69°) is
A. 1
B. 2
C. -1
D. 0

113. If x = 27 and 3√x + 3√y = 3√729, the y =
A. 64
B. 125
C. 216
D. 81

114. The value of(√5 + √3)(3√3/√5+√2 – √5/√3+√2) is
A. 0
B. 2-√2
C. √2
D. 3

115. |f 3-5x/x + 3-5y/y + 3-5z/z = 0 the value of 1/x + 1/y + 1/z is
A. -5
B. 5
C. 2
D. 3

116. If ab > 0 and the point (a, b) lies in the third quadrant, the quadrant in which the point (5, – a) lies is
C. I

117. If x = √5-2/√5+2 , then x4 + x-4 is
A. a surd
B. a rational number but not an integer
C. an integer
D. an irrational number but not a surd

118. If x + 1/x =3, the value of x5 + 1/x5 is
A. 122
B. 40
C. 39
D. 30

119. ABC is a triangle with AC = BC and ∠ABC = 50°. The side BC is produced to D so that BC = CD. ∠BAD is
A. 50°
B. 45°
C. 75°
D. 90°

120. If a straight line L makes an angle Ө (Ө > 90°) with the positive direction of x axis, then the acute angle made by a straight line L 1 , perpendicular to L, with the y axis is
A. π/2 – Ө
B. π/2 + Ө
C. π + Ө
D. π – Ө

121. The radius of a circle is 6 cm. An external point is at a distance of 10 cm from the centre. Then the length of the tangent drawn to the circle from the external point upto the point of contact is
A. 8 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 6 cm
D. 12 cm

122. If G be the centroid of AABC and the area of AGBD is 6 sq. cm, where D is the midpoint of side BC, then the area of AABC is
A. 18 sq. cm
B. 12 sq. cm
C. 24 sq. cm
D. 36 sq. cm

123. A triangle is inscribed in a circle and the diameter of the circle is its one side. Then the triangle will be
A. right-angled
B. obtuse angled
C. equilateral
D. acute angled

124. AB and BC are two chords of a circle with centre O. If P and Q are the midpoints of AB and BC respectively, then the quadrilateral OQBP must be
A. a rhombus
B. concyclic
C. a rectangle
D. a square

125. In any triangle ABC, the base angles at B and C are bisected by BO and CO respectively. Then ∠BOC is
A. π/2 +A/2
B. π – A/2
C. (π-A)/2
D. π/2 +A

126. An article was sold ford 96. If percentage of profit was numerically equal to the cost price, the cost price of the article is
A. 70
B. 60
C. 90
D. 100

127. The average of 7 numbers is 8. If one number is added, their average is 9. Then the added number is
A. 12
B. 11
C. 16
D. 14

128. With an average speed of 40 km/ hr, a train reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an average speed of 35 km/hr, it is late by 15 minutes. The total journey is
A. 35 km
B. 60 km
C. 70 km
D. 50 km

129. Three students A, B and C play cricket. The runs scored by A and B respectively are in the ratio 3 : 2. B’s runs to C’s runs are also in the same ratio. Together they score 342 runs. Then the runs scored by B are
A. 216
B. 108
C. 90
D. 171

130. A trader fixes selling prices of commodities after increasing them by 10% and offers 10% rebate on selling prices. The per cent gain or loss is
A. 1 % gain
B. 0.9% gain
C. 1.2% loss
D. 1 % loss

131. If the area of the circle in the figure is 36 sq. cm. and ΔBCD is a square, then the area of ΔACD, in sq. cm, is
A. 12π
B. 36/π
C. 12
D. 18

132. If x2 — 3x + 1 = 0 and x > 1, then the value of (x — 1/x)
A. √5 only
B. 1
C. 5 only
D. ±√5

133. if the operation ‘o’ among real numbers is defined by x o y = x2 —2y, then values of x satisfying 2xo 4 =2 ox is
A. -1/2,3
B. -2,3/2
C. 2/3,2
D. 1/2,-2

134. If ax = (x + y + z)y ,ay = (x + y + z)z and az = (x + y + z)x then the value of x + y + z (given a ≠ 0) is
A. 0
B. a3
C. 1
D. a

135. If x = 2 + √3 , the value of
A. 65
B. 56
C. 69
D. 67

136. If 50% of (x – y) = 30% of (x + y), then what per cent of x is y?
A. 35%
B. 40%
C. 25%
D. 30%

137. B borrowed 5,000 from A at 6%, p. a. simple interest and lends it to C at compound interest of 10% p. a. If B collects the money back from C after 2 years and repays A, the profit made by B in the transaction is
A. 600
B. 1,050
C. 500
D. 450

138. Two trains starting at the same time from two stations 200 km apart and going in opposite directions cross each other at a distance of 110 km from one of the stations. The ratio of their speeds is
A. 11 : 20
B. 20 : 9
C. 9 : 20
D. 11 : 9

139. The least number which when divided by 25, 40 and 60 leaves the remainder 7 in each case
A. 609
B. 593
C. 1207
D. 607

140. The least number which is divisible by all the natural numbers upto and including 10 is
A. 7560
B. 1260
C. 5040
D. 2520

141. The value of (32-22)2 + (52-42)2 +(62-52)2 is
A. 216
B. 206
C. 236
D. 227

142. The value of 2 x (2.11 + 2.23 + 2.16) is
A. 15
B. 16
C. 13
D. 14

143. 40 men can finish a work in 15 days. If the work is to be completed 3 days earlier, how many more people should be employed ?
A. 8
B. 3
C. 15
D. 10

144. A father is 7 years older than the mother and the mother’s age now is 3 times the age of the daughter. The daughter is 10 years old now. What was the father’s age when the daughter was born?
A. 27 years
B. 37 years
C. 15 years
D. 40 years

145. Of the three numbers, the first is twice the second and is half of the third. If the average of these numbers is 56, the numbers in order are
A. 96, 24, 48
B. 96, 48, 24
C. 48, 96, 24
D. 48, 24, 96

Study the graph carefully and answer the following questions. Profit Earned by a company (in crore rupees) during certain years (Q. No. 146 to 150)

146. If the income in the year 2003 was 60 crores and the expenditure of that year equals the expenditure of the year 2005, the income of the company (in crore rupees) in 2005 was
A. 75
B. 80
C. 65
D. 70

147. If the expenditure in the year 2007 was 60 crores, then the income (in crore rupees) in that year was
A. 115
B. 120
C. 85
D. 90

148. The year in which the percentage increase in the profit from that of the previous year is the highest is
A. 2006
B. 2008
C. 2002
D. 2004

149. What is the approximate per cent (to the nearest integer) r,r it of the year 2006, if the inc. — ne of that year was? 120 crores ?
A. 42%
B. 51%
C. 41%
D. 43%

150. What is the approximate per cent (to nearest integer) increase in the profit in the year 2009 from that of the previous year ?
A. 9%
B. 10%
C. 7%
D. 8%


In each of the following questions, select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives:

151. PQR:CBA: : ?

152. 2 : 12 : 80
A. 36
B. 48
C. 6
D. 25

153. 3:10:: 08: ?
A. 25
B. 14
C. 20
D. 13

154. ?: 233345: : 51119 : 91523
A. 203042
B. 192840
C. 182840
D. 192941

155. Finger: Hand :: ?
A. Chair: Table
B. Cycle : Wheels
C. Money: Bank
D. Month :Year

156. Newspaper: Reader:: Bread : ?
A. Wheat
B. Buyer
C. Consumer
D. Baker

157. Axis : Earth :: Hub : ?
A. Wheel
B. Watch
C. Tyre
D. Car

158. AZBY : ? : : EVFU : GTHS

159. ZXVT : ? : : MKIG : NPRT

160. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/ letters / word / name / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. B.G. Tilak
B. Madan Mohan Malviya
C. V.D. Savarkar
D. Lajpat Rai

161. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/ letters / word / name / number pair from the given alternatives.

162. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/ letters / word / name / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Yearly
B. Quickly
C. Weekly
D. Monthly

163. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/ letters / word / name / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Horse
B. Ox
C. Dog
D. Cow

164. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/ letters / word / name / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 572
B. 963
C. 532
D. 761

165. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/ letters / word / name / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. (35, 56)
B. (44, 68)
C. (24, 44)
D. (32, 26)

166. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/ letters / word / name / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Radiation
B. Concentration
C. Confluence
D. Concourse

167. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/ letters / word / name / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Tttxxxbbb
B. Mmmqqqttt
C. Cccgggkkk
D. kkkooosss

168. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/ letters / word / name / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Godan and Munshi Premchand
B. Bhagwat Gita and Ved Vyas
C. Freedom at Midnight and Jawahar Lai Nehru
D. Geetanjali and Ravindranath Tagore

For the following questions answer them individually

169. Find out a set of numbers amongst the alternatives given which is most unlike the set given below.
3, 7,100
A. 11,12,365
B. 13,17,900
C. 1, 2,9
D. 6,7,169

In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

170. AZ ,YB ,CX ,?

171. 1763, 1992, 2221, ?, 2679, 2908
A. 2474
B. 2512
C. 2314
D. 2450

172. 10,43, 175,7,2815
A. 703
B. 1320
C. 315
D. 633

173. A G L P__?__ UV
A. R
B. S
C. Q
D. T

174. cdeb, ceed, cfef, cgeh, ?
A. chef
B. chik
C. chJk
D. cghj


For the following questions answer them individually

176. Which of the given letter groups follows the same principle on which the numbers are arranged in the given number group ?
(5, 8,13, 20, 29)

177. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
_bcc_ ac_ aabb_ ab_ cc
A. Abaca
B. bcaca
C. aabca
D. bacab

178. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. ECCENTRICITY

179. The word TRADE is coded as XVEHI. How should the word PUBLIC be coded ?

180. If4x6x9x 1=4196, 2x3x7x2 = 2273, then 1 x4x8x9=?
A. 1984
B. 9841
C. 1489
D. 8149

181. Anil had to travel 900 km. He hired a taxi for the first 350 km at the rate of 4.00 per km. Then he travelled by bus for 250 km and purchased a ticket of 70. He travelled the next 250 km by train and purchased a ticket of 50. Rest of the journey was performed by boat at 2 per km. What is the average cost of his journey per km ?
A. 1.80
B. 1.70
C. 2.90
D. 2.67

182. The day before the day before yesterday is three days after Saturday. What day is it today?
A. Thursday
B. Friday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday

183. From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word. RAPPROCHEMENT

184. Ravi is facing East. He turns 90° in the anticlockwise direction and then another 180° turn in the same direction, finally he turns 45° in the clockwise direction. In which direction is he facing now ?
A. Southwest
B. East
C. Northwest
D. South

185. A s house is in Chennai and faces the sea. To visit his friend’s house, he turns to the left, walks 50 metres and turns to the right and walks 50 metres. In which direction is his friend’s house from his own house ?
A. North East
B. South East
C. Northwest
D. Southwest

186. If A stands for ‘+’, D for ‘-‘ for ‘x’, V for ‘÷’, G for ‘>’, E for ‘=’ and L for ‘<‘ then 20A4 is
A. L (21 D 3)
B. G (30 D 3)
C. G (21 V 3)
D. E (15 M 2)

187. If the numbers from 4 to 55 which are divisible by 3 and also the numbers which contain 3 as one of the digits are removed, then how many numbers will be left ?
A. 25
B. 26
C. 23
D. 24

188. The sum of the squares of two consecutive positive numbers is 1861. What are the two numbers ?
A. 28 and 29
B. 26 and 27
C. 30 and 31
D. 32 and 33

189. Select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 7
B. 5
C. 11
D. 9

In these questions, two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

190. Statements :
I. All the educated persons follow the “public” rules.
II. Some of the educated persons follow the “Govt.” rules.
Conclusions :
I. Educated persons who follow Govt. Rules also follow the public rules.
II. Some do not follow Govt, rules but follow the public rules.
A. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
B. Both conclusions I and II follow
C. Only conclusion I follows
D. Only conclusion II follows

191. Statements :
I. All lawyers are liars.
II. Some women are lawyers.
Conclusions :
I. Some women are liars.
II. All liars are women.
A. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
B. Both conclusions I and II follow
C. Only conclusion I follows
D. Only conclusion II follows

192. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.
3 + 8 + 5 + 5 = 36,
6 + 2 + 8+ 1 = 16,
8 + 5 + 9 + 5 = 58,
7 + 4 + 3 + 8 = ?
A. 35
B. 54
C. 34
D. 32

193. Find three consecutive even numbers, the sum of whose squares is 116.
A. 8, 10, 12
B. 6, 8, 10
C. 2, 4, 6
D. 4, 6, 8

194. If A denotes +, B denotes —, C denotes x and D denotes +, then which of the following statements is true ?
A. 9C9 B9 D9 A9 = 17
B. 3A3B3C3A3D3=4
C. 8B6D2A4C3 = 15
D. 8 A 8 B 8 C 8 =— 48

195. In a certain code of numbers, GREEN is written as 20, 9, 22, 22,13. How would YALLOW be written in the code ?
A. 2,26,15,15,12,4
B. 2,5,4,14,14,10
C. 2,2,5,12,12,3
D. 2,9,17,17,3,7

196. For the following questions answer them individually

197. For the following questions answer them individually

198. For the following questions answer them individually

199. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. 7 can be represented by 31, 76, etc. and ‘S’ can be represented by 14, 99, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word GOVERN.

A. 59, 89, 67, 22, 98, 21
B. 13, 78, 01, 67, 55, 79
C. 59, 11, 56, 22, 44, 65
D. 00, 11, 56, 02, 10, 58

200. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the question figure if a mirror is placed on the line MN?


1. B
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. D
19. D
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. B
24. B
25. D
26. C
27. B
28. C
29. D
30. B
31. C
32. A
33. B
34. C
35. A
36. D
37. B
38. A
39. C
40. B
41. A
42. C
43. A
44. D
45. D
46. C
47. B
48. A
49. B
50. C
51. D
52. C
53. C
54. A
55. B
56. B
57. D
58. A
59. D
60. B
61. A
62. C
63. D
64. B
65. D
66. D
67. C
68. B
69. D
70. C
71. D
72. C
73. D
74. C
75. B
76. B
77. C
78. B
79. A
80. D
81. A
82. A
83. A
84. C
85. D
86. D
87. D
88. C
89. C
90. D
91. A
92. A
93. D
94. C
95. D
96. B
97. B
98. D
99. D
100. B
101. C
102. A
103. B
104. B
105. A
106. D
107. C
108. D
109. B
110. B
111. D
112. D
113. C
114. A
115. B
116. C
117. C
118. C
119. D
120. D
121. A
122. D
123. A
124. B
125. A
126. A
127. C
128. C
129. B
130. D
131. B
132. D
133. B
134. D
135. B
136. C
137. D
138. D
139. D
140. D
141. D
142. C
143. D
144. A
145. D
146. B
147. A
148. D
149. A
150. C
151. D
152. A
153. A
154. D
155. D
156. C
157. A
158. B
159. B
160. B
161. D
162. B
163. C
164. D
165. B
166. A
167. B
168. C
169. A
170. A
171. D
172. A
173. B
174. A
175. B
176. C
177. D
178. B
179. A
180. A
181. A
182. B
183. B
184. A
185. C
186. C
187. A
188. C
189. B
190. C
191. C
192. A
193. D
194. D
195. A
196. B
197. D
198. B
199. A
200. A