2012 SSC CGL Tier 1
8 July Shift – 1
Question Paper with Answer Key
PART – A GENERAL AWARENESS
For the following questions answer them individually
1. A movement along the demand curve of a commodity occurs due to change in
A. income of the consumers
B. its own price
C. taste of the consumers
D. expectations of the consumers
2. GNP calculation through Expenditure Method does not include
A. Gross Domestic Private Investments
B. Net Foreign Investments
C. Depreciation Expenditures
D. Private Consumption Expenditure
3. The Cobb Douglas Production function Q = ALak1-a is based on
A. increasing returns to scale
B. decreasing returns to scale
C. constant returns to scale
D. fluctuating returns to scale
4. Find the odd one out of the following :
A. Delhi Transport Corporation
B. Indian Railways
C. Kingfisher Airlines
D. Reliance Industries Limited
5. Monetary Policy in India is laid down and executed by
A. Union Government
B. ASSOCHAM
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. FICCI
6. Which one of the following subjects is not available on the Union List ?
A. Census
B. Banking
C. Trade Union
D. Foreign Loans
7. The term “closure” in Parliamentary terminology implies
A. the end of session of Parliament
B. stoppage of debate on a motion
C. end of a day’s proceedings
D. None of the above
8. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
A. Article 14 — Equality before law
B. Article 16 — Equal opportunities
C. Article 17 — Abolition of titles
D. Article 18 — Permission of military titles
9. Which of the following Presidents held office for two consecutive terms ?
A. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
B. Dr. Zakir Hussain
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D. Both (a) and (b)
10. Which Amendment Act reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 ?
A. 42nd
B. 44th
C. 52nd
D. 61st
11. Match the Following:
a) Vikrama Era
b) Saka Era
c) Kalachuri Era
d) Gupta Era
1. AD 248
2. AD 320
3. 58 BC
4. AD 78
A. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-3, b-4, c-1 ,d-2
C. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
D. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
12. Mahavira was the
A. 21st Tirthankara
B. 24th Tirthankara
C. 23rd Tirthankara
D. 22nd Tirthankara
13. Which one among the following woman scholars challenged the invincible Yajnavalkya in debate?
A. Ghosa
B. Apala
C. Maitreyi
D. Gargi
14. Which one of the following event made the crown of England to take over the Indian Administration?
A. Battle of Plassey
B. Battle of Buxar
C. The Carnatic Wars
D. The Sepoy Mutiny
15. Who built the famous Dilwara temple at Mount Abu in Rajasthan in the 13th century ?
A. Mahendrapala
B. Mahipala
C. Rajyapala
D. Tejapala
16. GIS stands for
A. Global Institute for Soils
B. Geographical International Studies
C. Geographical information system
D. Global Information Statistics
17. Which of the following is a Trans Himalayan river ?
A. Ganga
B. Yamuna
C. Sutlej
D. Ravi
18. Match the following using codes given below :
List I (Forest Type)
a) Tropical Evergreen
b) Monsoon
c) Temperate
d) Mangrove
List II (Regions)
1. Siwaliks
2. Shillong
3. West Bengal
4. Nilgiris
A. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
B. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
C. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
D. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
19. On which river is the Nagarjunasagar Project located ?
A. Krishna
B. Godavari
C. Cauvery
D. Tapti
20. Suez Canal joins
A. Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea
B. Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
C. Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
D. Red Sea and Arabian Sea
21. Drug which helps to reduce anxiety and brings about calmness is
A. tranquiliser
B. diuretic
C. analgesic
D. antihistamine
22. A keel is absent in
A. Chicken
B. Ostrich
C. Duck
D. Peacock
23. Broad spectrum antibiotics are produced by
A. Streptomyces
B. Aspergillus
C. Pencillium
D. Bacillus
24. The pigment that protect plants from harmful effect of ultraviolet rays is
A. Chlorophyll
B. Carotenoid
C. Phycocyanin
D. Plastid
25. Glycogen, starch and cellulose are polymers of
A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Lactose
D. Maltose
26. Black death is
A. Cancer
B. Plague
C. AIDS
D. Gonorrhoea
27. Stars appear to move from east to west because the
A. whole universe is moving from east to west
B. earth is revolving round the sun
C. earth is rotating from east to west
D. earth is rotating from west to east
28. On the moon, an astronaut cannot drink lemonade with the help of a straw because
A. acceleration due to gravity on the moon is less
B. there is no atmosphere on the moon
C. lemonade evaporates instantaneously on the moon
D. None of the above
29. A particle moving with uniform speed
A. must have uniform velocity
B. cannot have uniform velocity
C. may have uniform velocity
D. will have no velocity
30. Device which uses sound waves for detection and ranging is called
A. Radar
B. Sonar
C. Pukar
D. None of the above
31. What is the name of the network topology in which there are bidirectional links between each possible node ?
A. Ring
B. Star
C. Tree
D. Mesh
32. LAN stands for
A. Local Area Nodes
B. Large Area Network
C. Large Area Nodes
D. Local Area Network
33. Dry Ice is nothing but
A. Gaseous carbon dioxide
B. Washing soda
C. Solid carbon dioxide
D. Carbon monoxide
34. Which one of the following is obtained as slag in a blast furnace?
A. Calcium Carbonate
B. Calcium Sulphate
C. Calcium Chloride
D. Calcium Silicate
35. When Hydrogen gas is allowed to expand from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure, the temperature of the gas
A. decreases to a small extent
B. increases
C. does not change
D. decreases suddenly
36. In the industrial production of vegetable ghee, the process involved is
A. Dissociation
B. reduction
C. oxidation
D. ionisation
37. Which of the following weeds has been found useful to check water pollution caused by industrial affluent ?
A. Parthenium
B. Elephant grass
C. Water hyacinth
D. Both (a) and (b)
38. In which year the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant of the former USSR had accident that caused escape of radio nuclides into atmosphere?
A. 1979
B. 1980
C. 1984
D. 1986
39. Certain desert lizards excrete their wastes in dry form. This serves as a means of
A. protective mechanism against their predators
B. limiting factor of the organism
C. adaptation of the organism to the environment
D. countering the problem of food scarcity
40. Which one is regarded as “World heritage forest” ?
A. Nandan Kanan in Odisha
B. Kaziranga in Assam
C. Sundarbans in West Bengal
D. Indian Botanical Garden
41. Shibpur in West Bengal Kidney can be taken from a dying person who has the
A. cessation of neurological function only
B. cessation of cardiac function only
C. cessation of respiratory function only
D. cessation of kidney function only
42. There is no life on moon because it has no
A. Nitrogen
B. Sulphur
C. Oxygen
D. Water
43. Losoong is a festival celebrated in
A. Tibet
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Sikkim
D. Kerala
44. The commodity for which India spends the largest amount to import is
A. Food grains
B. Crude petroleum
C. Fertilisers
D. Iron and Steel
45. In which categories did Marie Curie win her two different Nobel Prizes ?
A. Physics and Chemistry
B. Chemistry and Medicine
C. Physics and Medicine
D. Chemistry and Peace
46. Michael Phelps won gold medals in swimming events in the Beijing Olympics.
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
47. Spot the odd one from the following :
A. Tarapur
B. Trombay
C. Kalpakkam
D. Narora
48. Which one of the following players has the unique distinction of winning 50 Doubles Titles in ATP tour history ?
A. Leander Pees
B. Andy Roddick
C. Novak Djokovic
D. Roger Federer
49. As per the 2011 census, the state with the largest gap in male and female literacy is
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Kerala
50. Which among the following is termed ‘Hot Money’?
A. Fll
B. FDI
C. ADR
D. GDR
PART – B ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (d) i.e. No error.
51. I could (a)/ hardly believe (b)/ what he said, (c)/ No error (d)
A. I could
B. hardly believe
C. what he said
D. No Error
52. The Government wanted to play the role (a)/ of a felicitator only and was (b)/ keen on optimal development, (c)/ No error (d)
A. The Government wanted to play the role
B. of a felicitator only and was
C. keen on optimal development.
D. No Error
53. Admittance for (a)/ the inaugural ceremony was (b)/ only by special tickets, (c)/ No error (d)
A. Admittance for
B. the inaugural ceremony was
C. only by special tickets.
D. No Error
54. Pulses when well cooked (a)/ are not only appetizing (b)/ as well as nutritious, (c)/ No error (d)
A. Pulses when well cooked
B. are not only appetizing
C. as well as nutritious.
D. No Error
55. Martin Luther king was one of the leaders (a)/ who (b)/ has followed Mahatma Gandhi.(c)/ No error (d)
A. Martin Luther king was one of the leaders
B. Who
C. has followed Mahatma Gandhi.
D. No Error
In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.
56. In certain traditions, the husband is______ as the breadwinner and the wife is expected to play a_____ role.
A. counted; unequal
B. treated; unique
C. perceived; subordinate
D. believed; subservient
57. The two parties have to_____ each other’s sensibilities and_____ towards a win win merger.
A. seek; move
B. develop; look
C. respect; work
D. accept; develop
58. I _______ that my pocket picked.
A. realized; had been
B. had realized; was
C. realized; is
D. had realized; has been
59. Joseph______ from his job because he was______ for promotion.
A. left; declined ,
B. gave up; refused
C. left; asked
D. resigned; sidelined
60. Only_____ people are_____ after death.
A. virtual; known
B. virtuous; remembered
C. brave; forgotten
D. vicious; admired
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word as your answer.
61. Fallacy
A. smart move
B. unfounded fear
C. famous invention
D. mistaken belief
62. Diligent
A. conceited
B. great
C. hard working
D. proud
63. Garrulous
A. Grumpy
B. Important
C. friendly
D. talkative
64. Zenith
A. Hope
B. Ideal
C. Pinnacle
D. Reality
65. Proximity
A. Nearness
B. Affinity
C. Prospect
D. Rapport
In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word as your answer.
66. Gregarious
A. Delight
B. unsociable
C. social
D. stern
67. Taciturn
A. talkative
B. yielding
C. tactful
D. foolish
68. Archaic
A. updated
B. antediluvian
C. modern
D. obsolete
69. Inadvertent
A. Advertise
B. Pretend
C. Indifferent
D. Deliberate
70. Verbose
A. Bogus
B. Brief
C. Written
D. Rubbish
In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase as your answer.
71. In spite of his recent financial troubles, Ashok has not learnt to cut his coat according to his cloth.
A. overcome his problems
B. wear modest clothes
C. improve his tailoring abilities
D. live within his income
72. She keeps blowing hot and cold and therefore, nobody can befriend her for long.
A. being friendly at one moment and unfriendly the next
B. trying to cool the situation down and then raking it up again
C. being unfriendly and critical
D. being good and bad alternately
73. The secretary had the information at her fingertips.
A. on her typewriter
B. readily available
C. in the compact disc
D. not accessible
74. To take the bull by the horns
A. to check rumours from spreading
B. to inflict a crushing defeat upon the enemy
C. to face danger
D. to restrain anger
75. Consoling her daughter, the mother said that there was no use crying over spilled milk.
A. to slip and spill milk
B. complaining about an event that cannot be changed
C. worrying about the milk that was spilled
D. to cry having a glass of milk
In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
76. It rained bitterly throughout the day, spoiling all our plans to go out.
A. Strongly
B. Fiercely
C. intermittently
D. No improvement
77. Hardly had he finished the novel, than the principal called him.
A. then the principal called him
B. and the principal called him
C. when the principal called him
D. No improvement
78. It is rumoured that the road will be closed tomorrow.
A. has been told
B. has been announced
C. has been talked
D. No improvement
79. You should meet the concerned programme coordinators for registration.
A. programme coordinators
B. programme coordinators concerned
C. respected programme coordinators
D. No improvement
80. The patient was writhing in depression on the bed.
A. Pain
B. Sorrow
C. Happiness
D. No improvement
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
81. The book won the prestigious award after the death of its author.
A. inordinately
B. successively
C. vicariously
D. posthumously
82. Spending too much time thinking about and admiring one’s own appearance or abilities
A. Narcissism
B. Nepotism
C. Aphorism
D. Euphemism
83. Socioeconomic order that existed in medieval Europe
A. Socialism
B. Feudalism
C. Communism
D. Democracy
84. Scholarly and learned
A. Wise
B. Vivacious
C. Stoic
D. Erudite
85. A system of government in which the laws of the State are believed to be the laws of God.
A. Theocracy
B. Democracy
C. Secularism
D. Socialism
In the following questions, there are four different words out of which one is misspelt. Find the misspelt word as your answer.
86.
A. tern to real
B. pharmacy
C. rapture
D. remainder
87.
A. cartilage
B. marriage
C. privilege
D. carriage
88.
A. Autocracy
B. Hypocrisy
C. democracy
D. idiosyncrasy
89.
A. Laboratory
B. dispensary
C. foundry
D. observatory
90.
A. Gauge
B. Gauze
C. Gaudy
D. Guarantee
In the following questions, you have a brief passage with 5 questions folioing it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Modernity snobbery, though not exclusive to our age, has come to assume an unprecedented importance. The reasons for this are simple and of a strictly economic character. Thanks to modern machinery, production is outrunning consumption.
Organized waste among consumers is the first condition of our industrial prosperity. The sooner a consumer throws away the object he has bought and buys another, the better for the producer. At the same time the producer must do his bit by producing nothing but the most perishable articles.
91. The expression ‘production is outrunning consumption’ means
A. production is falling short of consumption
B. consumption is much more than production
C. production is in excess of consumption
D. production and consumption are running close to each other
92. The best definition of the term ‘Modernity snobbery’ is
A. paying too much attention to use things of the latest design
B. giving undue attention to social position
C. better status for those who are up-to-date
D. those who are modern get more respect in the society
93. According to the author, ‘modern machinery’ is giving rise to
A. more waste
B. industrial prosperity.
C. More markets
D. Variety to the consumers
94. The production of more dispensable articles is necessary because it will
A. satisfy the immediate needs of the customers
B. compel the customers to go in for new articles
C. attract more customers
D. Keep the factories working
95. For industrial prosperity, ‘modernity snobbery’ is important because it induces people to
A. buy only the most expensive articles to maintain social position
B. help in the production of duplicate articles
C. buy articles which are perishable
D. discard old things for new ones
In the following questions, you have a brief passage with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Reality television is a genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted dramatic or humorous situations, documents, actual events, and features ordinary people rather than professional actors. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000. Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, in talent and performance programmes such as Pop Idd, though frequently ‘Survivor’ and ‘Big Brother’ participants also reach some degree of celebrity. Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for several styles of programmes included in the genre. In competition based programmes such as ‘Survivor’ and other specialising environment shows like The Real World’, the producers design the format of the show and control the day today activities and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition is worked out. Producers specifically select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviour and conflicts.
96. The participants in the Reality Shows are
A. Comedians
B. national celebrities
C. professional actors
D. ordinary people
97. The format of competition based programmes is decided by the
A. writer of the script
B. professional actors
C. producer
D. participants
98. In the first sentence, the writer says, ‘it is claimed’ because
A. some people insist on the statement
B. he wants to distance himself from the statement
C. he agrees with the statement
D. everyone agrees with the statement
99. Reality television
A. has only been popular since 2000
B. has been popular approximately since 2000
C. has been popular since the start of television
D. has been popular since well before 2000
100. Reality TV appeals to some because it
A. shows average people in exceptional circumstances
B. can turn ordinary people into celebrities
C. shows eligible males dating women
D. uses exotic locations
PART – C QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
For the following questions answer them individually
101. If cot A + 1/cot A= 2, then cot2 A + 1/cot2 A is equal to
A. 4
B. 5
C. 1
D. 2
102. If f(x) = sin2x + cosec2 x, then the minimum value of f(x) is
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 3
103. A car is travelling on a straight road leading to a tower. From a point at a distance of 500 m from the tower, as seen by the driver, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 30°. After driving towards the tower for 10 seconds, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower as seen by the driver is found to be 60°. Then the speed of the car is
A. 135 km/hr
B. 110 km/hr
C. 120 km/hr.
D. 90 km/hr.
104. If Ө is a positive acute angle and tan Ө+ cot Ө = 2, then the value of sec Ө is
A. 1/√2
B. √2
C. 1
D. 0
105. The value of x in the following figure is
A. 40°
B. 70°
C. 50°
D. 60°
106. The angle of depression of a point from the top of a 200 m high tower is 45°. The distance of the point from the tower is
A. 200/√3
B. 200m
C. 200√3 m
D. None of these
107. If sin Ө + cos Ө = √2sin(90° – Ө), then cot Ө is equal to
A. √2+1
B. 1/√2+2
C. √20-1
D. None of these
108. If A and B are positive acute angles such that sin (A – B) =1/2 and cos (A+ B) = 1/2 , then A and B are given by
A. A = 45°, B = 15°
B. A = 15°, B = 45°
C. A = 30°, B = 30°
D. None of these
109. If 7sin2 + 3cos2 = 4, and Ө is a positive acute angle, then tan Ө is equal to
A. 1/3
B. 1/7
C. 1/√3
D. √3
110. A wheel makes 360 revolutions in a minute. The number of radians through which it turns in one second is
A. 12 πc
B. 11 πc
C. 10 πc
D. 8 πc
111. 
A. 0
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
112. If P denotes the perimeter and S denotes the sum of the distances of a point within a triangle from its angular points, then
A. P<S
B. P = S
C. S<P
D. Can’t be determined
113. Two circles touch each other externally at a point P and a direct common tangent touches the circles at the points Q and R respectively. Then ∠QPR is
A. 45°
B. 180°
C. 90°
D. 60°
114. In triangle ABC, AB = 12 cm, ∠B = 60°, the perpendicular from A to BC meets it at D. The bisector of ∠ABC meets AD at E. Then E divides AD in the ratio
A. 3 : 1
B. 6 : 1
C. 1:1
D. 2:1
115. If a : b = 2 : 3, b :c = 4 : 5 and c : d=6:7,then a : d=
A. 12 : 35
B. 24 : 35
C. 16 : 35
D. 24 : 25
116. 
A. 0.03
B. 0.09
C. 0.9
D. 0.52
117. If the average of x and 1/x be 1, then the value of x10 + 1/x10 is
A. -2
B. 2
C. 0
D. 1
118. If the operation Ө is defined for all real numbers a and b by the relation a Φ b = a2 b/3 then 2Ө {3Ө(-1)} = ?
A. 2
B. 4
C. -4
D. -2
119. O is the centre of a circle. AB is a chord of the circle but not its diameter. OC is perpendicular to AB. If OC = CB and radius of the circle be 7 cm, then the length of AB is
A. 7√2 cm
B. 14 cm
C. 7 cm
D. 7/√2 cm
120. In ΔABC, D, E, F are midpoints of AB, BC, CA respectively and ∠B = 90°, AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm. Then area of A DEF (in sq. cm) is
A. 24
B. 28
C. 6
D. 12
121. If in a triangle ABC, the angles at B and C are 1.5 and 2.5 times of the angle at A respectively, then angle at B is
A. 36°
B. 54°
C. 48°
D. 72°
122. In xy plane, a straight line L1 bisects the 1st quadrant and another straight line L2 trisects the 2nd quadrant being closer to the axis of y. The acute angle between L1 and L2 is
A. 60°
B. 120°
C. 90°
D. 75°
123. If ABCDEF is a regular hexagon, then ΔACE is
A. a right-angled triangle
B. an obtuse angled triangle
C. an isosceles triangle
D. an equilateral triangle
124. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral whose vertices are equidistant from the point 0 (centre of the circle). If ∠COD = 120° and ∠BAC = 30°, then the measure of ∠BCD is
A. 180°
B. 150°
C. 60°
D. 90°
125. P owns 2/3 shares of a company and the rest of the shares is equally divided among Q and R. If the profit on each share increases from 5% to 7%, P earns an extra 800 rupees. The investment of R on the shares is
A. Rs. 20,000
B. Rs. 15,000
C. Rs. 10,000
D. Rs. 40,000
126. A sum of money lent at compound interest for 2 years at 20% per annum would fetch Rs. 482 more, if the interest was payable half yearly than if it was payable annually. The sum is
A. Rs. 30,000
B. Rs. 40,000
C. Rs. 10,000
D. Rs. 20,000
127. A man travels 2/15 of the total journey by rail, 9/20, by car and the remaining 10 km on foot. His total journey in km is
A. 36
B. 40
C. 30
D. 24
128. A merchant bought 140 cupboards at an auction. He sold 80 of them at a profit of Rs. 4,000 and the rest at a loss of Rs. 1,200. On the whole, he gained 10%. Then the cost of each cupboard is
A. Rs. 210
B. Rs. 190
C. Rs. 200
D. Rs. 180
129. If 3×2 – 4x – 3 = 0, then the value of x-1/x is
A. 3
B. 4
C. ¾
D. 4/3
130. a:b for the greatest possible value of 5-(3a-b)2 is
A. 3:5
B. 1:5
C. 1 : 3
D. 3:1
131. If a + b + c = 6, a2 + b2 + c2 = 14, find the value of be + ca + ab.
A. 22
B. 25
C. 20
D. 11
132. Find the value of the expression x5 — 12×4 + 12×3 – 12×2 + 12x – 1 when x = 11.
A. 12
B. 0
C. 10
D. 11
133. If x + 1/x = 2, find the value of (x2 + 1/x2)(x3 + 1/x3)
A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 4
134. 
A. 0
B. m – 1/m
C. m + 1/m
D. 1
135. A can finish a work in 24 days, B in 9 days and C in 12 days. B and C start the work but they are forced to leave after 3 days. The remaining work was done by A in
A. 10 days
B. 10 ½ days
C. 5 days
D. 6 days
136. When 7 is subtracted from thrice a number, the result is 14. What is the number ?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 6
D. 7
137. The least number which should be multiplied to 243 to get a perfect cube is
A. 6
B. 9
C. 2
D. 3
138. In a basket, there are 125 flowers. A man goes to worship and offers as many flowers at each temple as there are temples in the city. Thus he needs 5 baskets of flowers. Find the number of temples in the city.
A. 25
B. 24
C. 27
D. 26
139. Product of the three consecutive numbers whose sum is 15,
A. 120
B. 150
C. 126
D. 105
140. The simplified value of 999 1/7 + 999 2/7 + 999 3/7 + 999 4/7 + 999 5/6 + 999 6/7 is
A. 10009 2/7
B. 5994 6/7
C. 9999 2/7
D. 5997
141. 50 boxes with equal weights were loaded in a ship. 5 more boxes each weighing 105 kg were later added, making the average weight of all the 55 boxes as 95 kg. The weight of each of the 50 boxes first loaded is
A. 98 kg
B. 94 kg
C. 95 kg
D. 92 k9
142. In a club, the average age of the members is 30 years, the average age of the male members is 34 years and that of the female members is 26 years. The percentage of the male members is
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 30%
D. 40%
143. In 60 litres beverage, the ratio of syrup and water is 3 : 7. If the ratio of the syrup and water is to be made 2 : 5, then the amount of water to be further added is
A. 5 litres
B. 2.5 litres
C. 2 litres
D. 3 litres
144. If a trader sold an article at Rs.3,060 after allowing 15% and 10% successive discounts on marked price, then the marked price is
A. Rs. 5,000
B. Rs. 6.000
C. Rs. 3,000
D. Rs. 4,000
145. The area of a trapezium is 105 sq. m and, the lengths of its parallel sides are 9m and 12m respectively. Then the height of the trapezium is
A. 15 m
B. 12m
C. 5m
D. 10 m
The following pie chart shows the marks obtained by a student in an examination, who scored 720 marks in all. Study the diagram and answer the questions given below. (Q. No. 146 to 150)
146. The marks scored in Science are
A. 200
B. 300
C. 75
D. 150
147. The subject in which the student scored 16 2/3 % of his total score is
A. Bengali
B. History
C. English
D. Mathematics
148. The subject in which the student scored 180 marks is
A. Mathematics
B. Bengali
C. English
D. Science
149. The marks scored in Mathematics and English together differ from the total marks scored in Bengali, History and Science by
A. 85
B. 61
C. 120
D. 72
150. The marks scored in English, differ from the marks scored in Science by
A. 75
B. 15
C. 30
D. 60
PART – D GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING
In the following questions, select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.
151. Length : Metre :: Power: ?
A. Calories
B. Degree
C. Watt
D. Kilogram
152. Square : Cube :: Circle : ?
A. Ellipse
B. Parabola
C. Cone
D. Sphere
153. Paper: Tree :: Glass: ?
A. Window
B. Sand
C. Stone
D. Mirror
154. ACFJ : ZXUQ : : EGIN : ?
A. VUSQ
B. VRPM
C. UTRP
D. VTRM
155. AC EG : DFHJ :: QSUW : ?
A. TVXZ
B. TQST
C. MNPR
D. EGIJ
156. EGIK : FILO :: FHJL : ?
A. JGMP
B. JGPM
C. GJPM
D. GJMP
157. 10:91 :: 9: ?
A. 69
B. 82
C. 89
D. 97
158. 7:56::9: ?
A. 63
B. 81
C. 90
D. 99
159. 20 : 50 : : 100 : ?
A. 150
B. 250
C. 200
D. 156
160. In the following questions, find the odd number/letters /number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Pathology
B. Geology
C. Cardiology
D. Radiology
161. In the following questions, find the odd number/letters /number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Rivulet
B. Stream
C. River
D. Pond
162. In the following questions, find the odd number/letters /number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Konark
B. Madurai
C. Dilwara
D. Ellora
163. In the following questions, find the odd number/letters /number pair from the given alternatives.
A. RTW
B. QOM
C. IKG
D. IKM
164. In the following questions, find the odd number/letters /number pair from the given alternatives.
A. EFH
B. OPQ
C. BCE
D. IJL
165. In the following questions, find the odd number/letters /number pair from the given alternatives.
A. DH
B. FJ
C. HK
D. PR
166. In the following questions, find the odd number/letters /number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 24
B. 49
C. 80
D. 15
167. In the following questions, find the odd number/letters /number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 121
B. 324
C. 523
D. 729
168. In the following questions, find the odd number/letters /number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 704, 11
B. 256, 4
C. 832, 13
D. 310,5
For the following questions answer them individually
169. Arrange the following words in their ascending order, as in a dictionary :
1. Pick
2. Pith
3. Pile
4. Perk
5. Pour
A. 4, 1,2, 3,5
B. 4, 1,3, 2,5
C. 4, 3, 2, 1,5
D. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
170. Arrange the following words in their ascending order:
1. Millennium
2. Diamond Jubilee
3. Silver Jubilee
4. Centenary
5. Golden Jubilee
A. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
B. 2, 5, 3, 1,4
C. 3, 5, 2, 4,1
D. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
171. Arrange the following words in their descending order:
1. Weekly
2. Biannual
3. Fortnightly
4. Monthly
5. Annual
A. 1 3, 4, 2, 5
B. 2, 5, 4, 1,3
C. 4, 1,2, 3,5
D. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
172. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ? a _ cbc _ ca _ab _ bca _ ab
A. babcc
B. bcabb
C. abcbc
D. bcabc
In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
173. BCFG JKNO, RSVW, ?
A. ZADE
B. HIKL
C. STUX
D. MNPQ
174. CIM, HNR, MSW, _ ?
A. SXA
B. RXB
C. UYB
D. ZEH
175. 2, 3, 6, 7,14,15,?
A. 16
B. 30
C. 31
D. 32
176. 3120, ?, 122, 23,4
A. 488
B. 621
C. 610
D. 732
177. 0, 5,60, 615,?
A. 6030
B. 6170
C. 6130
D. 6000
For the following questions answer them individually
178. Nitya is Sam’s sister. Mogan is Sam’s father. Selvan is Rajan’s son. Rajan is Mogan’s brother. How is Nitya related to Selvan ?
A. Daughter
B. Sister
C. Cousin
D. Wife
179. A boy’s age is one fourth of his father’s age. The sum of the boy’s age and his father’s age is 35. What will be father’s age after 8 years ?
A. 15
B. 28
C. 35
D. 36
180. A man said to a lady “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt”. How is the lady related to man ?
A. Sister
B. Mother
C. Daughter
D. Granddaughter
181. If South East becomes North, then what will South West become ?
A. North
B. West
C. East
D. North West
182. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
CONTENTION
A. TONIC
B. NOTE
C. NATION
D. NOTION
183. In a certain code language, GRAPE is written as 27354 and FOUR is written as 1687. How is GROUP written in that code?
A. 27384
B. 27684
C. 27685
D. 27658
184. WAYIN is written as TXVFK. How LBUK can be written in that code ?
A. IYRII
B. KATJ
C. JZSI
D. NDWM
185. In a certain code language, if the word PARTNER is coded as OZQSMDQ, then what is the code for the word SEGMENT ?
A. TFHNFOU
B. RDFLDMS
C. RDELDMS
D. RDFEDNS
186. If DOCTOR is written as FQEVQT, how PATIENT can be written in that code ?
A. RVKGPV
B. RCKPGW
C. RCVKGPV
D. RVCKGVP
187. (3738): In the following questions, find the missing number.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
188. (3738): In the following questions, find the missing number.
A. 9
B. -4
C. 4
D. -8
For the following questions answer them individually
189. If + means ÷, – means x, x means +, ÷ means then90+18-6×30 ÷ 4 = ?
A. 64
B. 65
C. 56
D. 48
190. If 73 + 46 = 42 and 95 + 87 = 57, then 62 + 80 = ?
A. 32
B. 48
C. 64
D. 36
191. Based on the given data, estimate the number of ‘Television buyers’ for the year 1990.
1982 1984 1986 1988 1990
447 458 489 540 ?
A. 611
B. 591
C. 571
D. 601
192. A man coming out of the backdoor of his house which is facing East, walked for one kilometre, turned to his right and walked for another kilometre. Then he turned to his right and walked a kilometre again. Where was he from his house at the end?
A. 1 km away in north
B. 1 km away in south
C. 1 kin away in east
D. 1 km away in west
193. Two squads of soldiers A and B, facing East and West respectively received the following commands – Left Turn, About Turn, Right Turn, Left Turn. Which directions would the squads A and B face at the end ?
A. East, West
B. West, East
C. North, South
D. South, North
In the following questions, two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
194. Statements :
1. Due to contamination of water, large number of people were admitted to hospital.
2. The symptoms were of Typhoid.
Conclusions :
I. Contamination of water may lead to Typhoid.
II. Typhoid is a contagious disease.
A. Only conclusion I is true
B. Only conclusion II is true
C. Both conclusions I and II are true
D. Both conclusions I and II are false
195. Statements :
1. 60% of the government employees went on strike.
2. Mr. Gopal is a government employee.
Conclusions :
I. Mr. Gopal went on strike.
II. Mr. Gopal did not participate in the strike.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Both conclusions I and II follow
D. Either conclusion I or II follows
196. For the following questions answer them individually
197. For the following questions answer them individually
198. For the following questions answer them individually
199. For the following questions answer them individually
200. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., T.’ can be represented by 13, 22, etc. and ‘V can be represented by 67, 76, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word SHRI.
A. 58, 02, 13, 01
B. 85, 42, 31, 14
C. 68, 20, 13, 32
D. 85, 02, 44, 30
ANSWER KEY
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. D
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. C
17. C
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. A
22. C
23. C
24. C
25. B
26. B
27. D
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. D
32. D
33. C
34. D
35. B
36. B
37. D
38. D
39. C
40. C
41. A
42. D
43. C
44. B
45. A
46. C
47. B
48. A
49. C
50. A
51. D
52. B
53. A
54. C
55. C
56. C
57. C
58. A
59. D
60. B
61. D
62. C
63. D
64. C
65. A
66. B
67. A
68. C
69. D
70. B
71. D
72. A
73. B
74. C
75. B
76. C
77. C
78. B
79. B
80. A
81. D
82. A
83. B
84. D
85. A
86. A
87. C
88. D
89. B
90. D
91. C
92. A
93. B
94. D
95. D
96. D
97. C
98. B
99. B
100. A
101. D
102. C
103. C
104. B
105. A
106. B
107. A
108. A
109. C
110. A
111. C
112. C
113. C
114. D
115. C
116. D
117. B
118. C
119. A
120. C
121. B
122. D
123. D
124. D
125. C
126. D
127. D
128. C
129. D
130. C
131. D
132. C
133. D
134. A
135. A
136. D
137. D
138. A
139. A
140. D
141. B
142. A
143. D
144. D
145. D
146. D
147. C
148. A
149. C
150. C
151. C
152. D
153. B
154. D
155. A
156. D
157. B
158. C
159. B
160. B
161. D
162. D
163. A
164. B
165. C
166. B
167. C
168. D
169. B
170. C
171. D
172. A
173. A
174. B
175. B
176. B
177. B
178. C
179. D
180. A
181. C
182. C
183. C
184. A
185. B
186. C
187. C
188. B
189. C
190. D
191. A
192. A
193. D
194. A
195. D
196. D
197. B
198. D
199. C
200. C