2013 SSC CGL Tier 1
19 May Shift – 1
Question Paper with Answer Key
PART – A GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING
Select the related letters/ words / numbers from the given alternatives.
1. Tanning : Leather:: Pyrotechnics : ?
A. Bombs
B. Fireworks
C. Wool
D. Machinery
2. King : Throne :: Rider: ?
A. Chair
B. Horse
C. Seat
D. Saddle
3. F : 216 : : L : ?
A. 1728
B. 1700
C. 1600
D. 1723
4. MOUSE : KPSTC : : LIGHT : ?
A. MGHFU
B. JGEFR
C. JJEIR
D. MJHIU
For the following questions answer them individually
5. If 264 * 2 = 6, 870 * 3 = 11, then what should 735 * 5 be?
A. 12
B. 16
C. 03
D. 05
6. Which one of the given response would be a meaningful order of the following?
1. Implementation
2. Conceptual Modelling
3. Requirements Analysis
4. Logical Modelling
5. Physical Model
6. Schema Refinement
A. 3, 2, 4, 6, 5, 1
B. 1, 3, 2, 6, 5, 4
C. 3, 2, 5, 4, 6, 1
D. 3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5
Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
7. b_ ab_ b_aab_ b
A. abbb
B. abba
C. baaa
D. aabb
8. _ bcab_ cabc_ abca_ b
A. abca
B. aabc
C. bbca
D. abac
9. Find the odd word/number/number-pair from the given alternative.
A. Head
B. Heed
C. Led
D. Heap
10. Find the odd word/number/number-pair from the given alternative.
A. Scurvy
B. Rickets
C. Night-blindness
D. Influenza
11. Find the odd word/number/number-pair from the given alternative.
A. Rain
B. Shower
C. Sleet
D. Raisin
12. Find the odd word/number/number-pair from the given alternative.
A. 547-563
B. 71 – 55
C. 517-533
D. 248-231
13. 10, 13, 234, 681, 997
A. 10
B. 234
C. 13
D. 681
A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
14. AFI, JOR, MRU, ?
A. GJN
B. HMP
C. PMO
D. RJL
15. be, cde, de, efg, fg, ?
A. ghi
B. fgh
C. hij
D. ijk
16. C – 3, E – 5, G – 7, I – 9, ?,
A. X- 24, M – 21
B. K- 11, M – 13
C. O – 15, X-24
D. M – 18, K- 14
17. 5, 16, 51, 158,?
A. 1452
B. 483
C. 481
D. 1454
18. 9*2:9*9::9*5: ?
A. 9×4
B. 9X6
C. 9×7
D. 9×8
For the following questions answer them individually
19. Priti scored more than Rahul. Yamuna scored as much as Divya. Lokita scored less than Manju. Rahul scored more than Yamuna. Manju scored less than Divya. Who scored the lowest?
A. Manju
B. Yamuna
C. Lokita
D. Rahul
20. A man showed a boy next to him and said ‘He is the son of my wife’s sister-in-law but I am the only child of my parents’. How is my son related to him?
A. Cousin
B. Brother
C. Uncle
D. Nephew
21. Find the correct group of signs to solve the equation. 24 * 16 * 8 * 32
A. – – =
B. – + =
C. x – =
D. + – =
22. Sunil is the son of Kesav. Simran, Kesav’s sister, has a son Maruti and daughter Sita. Prem is the maternal uncle of Maruti. How is Sunil related to Maruti?
A. Cousin
B. Maternal Uncle
C. Brother
D. Nephew
From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
23. MANUSCRIPT
A. PRIMUS
B. SMART
C. RUSTIC
D. MASTER
24. SEGREGATION
A. NATION
B. GREAT
C. GREETINGS
D. SEATING
25. CONSTITUTIONAL
A. TUITION
B. TALENT
C. LOCATION
D. CONSULT
For the following questions answer them individually
26. If each of the letters in the English alphabet is assigned an even numerical value by giving A = 2, B = 4 and so on, what would be the total value of the letters for the word ‘LADY’ when similarly coded?
A. 74
B. 72
C. 80
D. 82
27. If the word ‘LEADER’ is coded as 20 -13 – 9 -12 -13 – 26, how would you write ‘LIGHT’?
A. 20- 16- 17- 15-27
B. 20-15-16- 18-23
C. 20- 17- 15- 16-28
D. 20-16-15- 17-22
28. If the first and second letters in the word ‘COMMUNICATIONS’ were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the fifth and sixth letters and so on, which letter would be the tenth letter counting from your right?
A. U
B. A
C. T
D. N
29. Which of the following interchanges of numbers would make the given equation correct? 8X20 ÷3 + 9- 5 = 38
A. 3, 8
B. 8, 9
C. 3, 5
D. 3, 9
30. Put the correct mathematical signs in the following equation from the given alternatives.
33? 11 ?3?6 = 115
A. +, -, x
B. x, ÷, –
C. ÷, x, x
D. -, x, +
31. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation.
15*24*3*6* 17
A. + ÷ – =
B. + x = ÷
C. -x = +
D. – ÷ + =
32. Select the missing number from the given responses.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
33. Select the missing number from the given responses.
A. 126
B. 122
C. 128
D. 124
34. Select the missing number from the given responses.
A. 30
B. 20
C. 50
D. 54
35. Raj is standing in the middle of a square field. He starts walking diagonally to North-East. Then, he turns right and reaches the far end of the field. Then, he turns right and starts walking. In the midway, he again turns right and starts walking. In halfway, he turns to his left and reaches new far end. In what direction is Raj now?
A. North
B. South
C. North-West
D. South-West
36. A boy starts from home in early morning and walks straight for 8 km facing the Sun. Then, he takes a right turn and walks for 3 km. Then, he turns right again and walks for 2 km and then turns left and walks for 1 km. Then, he turns right, travels 1 km and then turns right and travels for 4 km straight. How far is he from the starting point?
A. 5 km
B. 6 km
C. 2 km
D. 4 km
One / two statements are given, followed by two / three conclusions I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
37. Statement:
Sick people need medicine.
Conclusions:
I. Healthy people do not need medicine.
II. People keep medicine in their home.
A. Only Conclusion I follows
B. Only Conclusion II follows
C. Both Conclusions I and II follow
D. Neither conclusion l nor II follows
38. Statements :
I. Some years are decades.
II. All centuries are decades.
Conclusions :
I. Some centuries are years.
II. Some decades are years.
III. No century is a year.
A. Conclusions I and II follow
B. Conclusions I and III follow
C. Only Conclusion I follows
D. Only Conclusion II follows
39. There is a ball and a rectangular jar. Four positions are shown below to keep then balanced. Which of the following will not be balanced easily?
40. Which one of the four boxes given below is created by folding the given key design in the question figure?
41. How many cubes are there in the group?
A. 10
B. 16
C. 18
D. 20
42. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Earth, Sea and Sun?
43. Read the figure and find the region representing persons who are educated and employed but not confirmed.
A. ac
B. abc
C. bd
D. adc
44. In the given diagram, circle represents professionals, square represents dancers, triangle represents musicians and rectangle represents Europeans. Different regions in the diagram are numbered 1 to 11. Who among the following is neither a dancer nor a musician but is professional and not a European?
A. 8
B. 11
C. 1
D. 10
45. In this question which answer figure completes the pattern in the question figure?
46. In these questions which answer figures will complete the pattern in the question figure?
47. Which of the answer figures includes the separate components found in the question figure?
48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
49. Which number comes next?
1,2,5,26,?
A. 677
B. 47
C. 626
D. 59
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can he represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘D’ can be represented by 02,14 etc. and ‘R’ can be represented by 57, 76 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘BEST’
A. 24, 22, 76, 97
B. 24,21,77,97
C. 24, 22, 77, 97
D. 24, 22, 77, 96
PART – B GENERAL AWARENESS
51. Social accounting system in India classified into is
A. enterprise, households and government
B. assets, liabilities and debt position
C. public sector, private sector, joint sector
D. income, product and expenditure
52. Forced savings refer to
A. taxes on individual income and wealth
B. compulsory deposits imposed on income tax payers
C. provident fund contribution of private sector employees
D. reduction of consumption consequent to a rise in prices
53. The demand for labour is called
A. direct demand
B. derived demand
C. factory demand
D. market demand
54. Which of the following is not an investment expenditure in goods and services?
A. Purchase of a house
B. Purchase of a machinery
C. An increase in business inventories
D. Expansion of the main plant of a company
55. Which one of the following represents the savings of the private corporate sector?
A. Total profits of a company
B. Undistributed profits
C. Excess of income over expenditure
D. Dividends paid to share holders
56. Who presides over the joint session of Indian Parliament?
A. President of India
B. Chairperson of Rajya Sabha
C. Senior most Member of Parliament
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
57. Division of powers and independent Judiciary are the two important features of
A. Unitary form of Government
B. democratic form of Government
C. federal form of Government
D. socialist form of Government
58. Which article of the Indian Constitution did Dr BR Ambedkar term as the ‘Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution’?
A. Article 19
B. Article 356
C. Article 32
D. Article 14
59. Who was the first to use the term ‘State’?
A. Plato
B. Aristotle
C. Machiavelli
D. Hobbes
60. Under which article of the Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the members of the Armed Forces be specifically restricted?
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 25
D. Article 33
61. Pulakesin II was the greatest ruler of the
A. Chvalukyas of Badami
B. Chalukyas of Kalyani
C. Pallavas of Kanchi
D. Cholas of Tamil Nadu
62. The Uttaramerur inscription provides information on the administration of the
A. Satavahanas
B. Pallavas
C. Cholas
D. Chalukyas
63. Pitts India Act of 1784 was a/an
A. regulating act
B. ordinance
C. resolution
D. white paper
64. Which one of the following statements is not true in respect of AO Hume?
A. He was a member of the Indian Civil Service
B. He founded the Indian National Congress
C. He presided over the Congress Annual Sessions twice
D. He was an ornithologist
65. Which of the following movements saw the biggest peasant guerrilla war on the eve of independence?
A. Tebhaga Movement
B. Punnapra Vayalar Movement
C. Telangana Movement
D. Noakhali Movement
66. Maps on large scale, representing both natural and man-made features are called
A. Topographic maps
B. Thematic maps
C. Atlas maps
D. Wall maps
67. Which river in India flows in a rift-valley?
A. Tapti
B. Narmada
C. Krishna
D. Cauvery
68. A narrow strip of land that connects two larger land masses is called
A. Peninsula
B. Cape
C. isthmus
D. strait
69. Tiny marine animals which constitute limestone skeletons are called
A. foraminifera
B. coral reefs
C. diatoms
D. clamitomonous
70. Apatanis are the major tribal group of
A. Nagaland
B. Sikkim
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Jharkhand
71. Which of the following plant pigments absorbs in red and far-red region of light?
A. Chlorophyll
B. Phytochrome
C. Crypto chrome
D. Carotenoids
72. The process through which excess of light energy is dissipated in photosynthesis is known
A. scavenging
B. photolysis
C. photophosphorylation
D. quenching
73. AIDS virus destroys
A. Monocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. basophils
D. lymphocytes
74. Teeth and Bones acquire strength and rigidity from
A. fluorine
B. chlorine
C. sodium
D. calcium
75. The type of tail found in Shark is
A. homocercal
B. heterocercal
C. diphycercal
D. protocercal
76. The Sigmoid Colon is part of
A. anal canal
B. large Intestine
C. ileum
D. small Intestine
77. A good conductor while carrying current is
A. Negatively charged
B. Positively charged
C. electrically neutral
D. alternately charged positive and negative
78. The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographical meridian at a place is
A. Clip
B. declination
C. latitude
D. azimuth
79. The device used for measuring the wavelength of X-rays is
A. cyclotron
B. Bragg spectrometer
C. mass spectrometer
D. GM counter
80. Alpha particle is the nucleus of an atom of
A. hydrogen
B. helium
C. oxygen
D. Lithium
81. Who is the founder of ‘Face book’ which is currently the No.1 social networking website in India?
A. Martin Cooper
B. Orkut Buyukkokten
C. Mark Zuckerberg
D. Bill Gates
82. In programming, repeating some statements is usually called
A. Structure
B. Looping
C. control structure
D. compiling
83. Silicon is a polymer of
A. Silicon tetrachloride
B. Dialkyl dichloro silane
C. Silane
D. Tetraalkyl silane
84. Which is a natural colloid?
A. Urea
B. Cane-sugar
C. Blood
D. Sodium chloride
85. Which one of the following does not contain silver?
A. Lunar caustic
B. German silver
C. Horn silver
D. Ruby silver
86. The presence of cobalt in vitamin B12 was established for the first time by
A. Spectroscopy
B. borax-Bead test
C. sodium nitroprusside test
D. hydrolysis test
87. Which bacterial strain developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations can be used for treating oil spills?
A. Agro bacterium
B. Clostridium
C. Nitrosomonas
D. Pseudomonas
88. Coating of solid waste with impervious material is known as
A. Chemical fixation
B. landfill
C. capping
D. encapsulation
89. Ultraviolet rays can used in water treatment as
A. Precipitator
B. hydrolyser
C. disinfectant
D. flocculator
90. Thiamidine dimer formation in DNA is caused by
A. X-rays
B. b and g –rays
C. UV-rays
D. IR-rays
91. Winner of the Australian Open Men’s Singles Title in 2013 is
A. Andy Murray
B. Rogaer Federer
C. Novak Djokovic
D. David Ferrer
92. Who among the following Presidents of MCC was a non-professional cricketer?
A. Colin Cowdrey
B. Peter May
C. Christopher Martin Jenkin
D. Ted Dexter
93. Who won the Nobel Prize for Peace in 2012?
A. UN Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
B. International Atomic Energy Agency
C. Liu Xiaobo
D. European Union
94. Who won the Jnanpith Award for 2011 ?
A. Sitakant Mahapatra
B. Sachidananda Routray
C. Pratibha Ray
D. Gopinath Mohanty
95. Who is the author of the book ‘No Full Stops in India’?
A. Ved Mehta
B. Nirad C Choudhuri
C. MarkTully
D. RK Narayan
96. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
A. Red Square – Moscow
B. Tiananmen Square – Beijing
C. Tahrir Square – Abu Dhabi
D. Trafalgar Square – London
97. The term of a non-permanent member of the UN Security Council is
A. 6 months
B. 1 yr
C. 2 yr
D. 3yr
98. Who is the Chairman of the 20th Law Commission?
A. Justice JS Verma
B. Justice KG Balakrishnan
C. Justice DK Jain
D. Justice Usha Mehra
99. Julia Gillard is the Prime Minister of
A. Belgium
B. Canada
C. Australia
D. New Zealand
100. Which is the first state in India to pass the Food Security Law?
A. Kerala
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Gujarat
D. Punjab
PART – C QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
101. A and B together can complete a piece of work in 12 days, B and C can do it in 20 days and C and A can do it in 15 days. A, B and C together can complete it in
A. 6 days
B. 8 days
C. 10 days
D. 12 days
102. A and B together can complete a work in 3 days. They start together but, after 2 days, B left the work. If the work is completed after 2 more days, B alone could do the work in
A. 4 days
B. 6 days
C. 8 days
D. 10 days
103. A does 20% less work than B. If A can complete a piece of work in 15/2 h, then B can do it in
A. 4 h
B. 6 h
C. 8 h
D. 10 h
104. A rational number between 3/4 and 3/8 is
A. 7/3
B. 16/9
C. 9/16
D. 1/7
105. Product of two coprime numbers is 117. Then their LCM is
A. 9
B. 13
C. 39
D. 117
106. The diameters of two circles are the side of a square and the diagonal of the square. The ratio of the areas of the smaller circle and the larger circle is
A. 1:4
B. √2 : √3
C. 1 : √2
D. 1 : 2
107. The total surface area of a sphere is 8π square unit. The volume of the sphere is
A. 8/3π
B. 8√3π
C. 8√3/5π
D. 8√2/3π
108. A conical flask is full of water. The flask has base radius r and height h. This water is poured into a cylindrical flask of base radius mr. The height of water in the cylindrical flask is
A. h/2 m2
B. 2h/m
C. h/3m2
D. m/2h
109. A dozen pairs of socks quoted at Rs. 180 are available at discount of 20%. How many pairs of socks can be bought for Rs. 48?
A. 4 pairs
B. 2 pairs
C. 5 pairs
D. 3 pairs
110. The marked price of a table is Rs. 12000. If it was sold for Rs. 10500 after allowing a certain discount, then the rate of discount is
A. 10%
B. 12.5%
C. 15%
D. 17.5%
111. The marked price of a radio set is Rs. 480. The shopkeeper allows discount of 10% and gains 8%. If no discount is allowed, his gain percent would be
A. 18%
B. 18.5%
C. 20%
D. 25%
112. The prices of a school bag and a shoe are in the ratio 7 : 5. The price of school bag is Rs. 200 more than the price of a shoe. Then, the price of a shoe is
A. Rs. 700
B. Rs. 500
C. Rs. 1200
D. Rs. 200
113. A sum of Rs. 300 is divided among P, Q and R in such a way that Q gets Rs. 30 more than P and R gets Rs. 60 more than Q. The ratio of their shares is
A. 2:3:5
B. 3:2:5
C. 2:5:3
D. 5:3:2
114. The average of nine numbers is 50. The average of the first five numbers is 54 and that of the last three numbers is 52. Then, the sixth number is
A. 34
B. 24
C. 44
D. 30
115. The average of the first nine integral multiples of 3 is
A. 12
B. 15
C. 18
D. 21
116. An article is sold for Rs. 300 at a profit of 20%. Had it been sold for Rs. 235, the loss percentage would have been
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 16
117. A box has 100 blue balls, 50 red balls and 50 black balls. 25% of blue balls and 50% of red balls are taken away. Then, percentage of black balls at present is
A. 25%
B. 100/3%
C. 40%
D. 50%
118. Two cars are moving with speeds v1 and v2 towards a crossing along two roads. If their distance from the crossing be 40 m and 50 m at an instant of time, then they do not collide, if their speeds are such that
A. v1 : v2 ≠ 4 : 5
B. v1 : v2 ≠ 5 : 4
C. v1 : v2 = 16 : 25
D. v1 : v2 = 25 : 16
119. A certain distance is covered at a certain speed. If half of this distance is covered in double the time, the ratio of the two speeds is
A. 4:1
B. 1:4
C. 2 : 1
D. 1 : 2
120. The simple interest on Rs. 4000 in 3 yr at the rate of x% per annum equals to the simple interest on Rs. 5000 at the rate of 12% per annum in 2 yr. The value of x is
A. 6%
B. 8%
C. 9%
D. 10%
121. If x2 -3x + 1, then value of x2 + x +1/x + 1/x2 is
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
122. If 4x-3/x + 4y-3/y + 4z-3/z = 0, then the value of 1/x + 1/y + 1/z is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9
123. Find the simplest value of 2√50 + √18 – √72 is __? (√2 = 1.414).
A. 9.898
B. 10.312
C. 8.484
D. 4.242
124. If a2 + b2 + 4c2 = 2(a + b – 2c – 3) and a, b, c are real, then the value of (a2 + b2 + c2) is
A. 13/4
B. 2
C. 9/4
D. 3
125. A number x when divided by 289 leaves 18 as the remainder. The same number when divided by 17 leaves y as a remainder. The value of y is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 5
126. An equation of the form ax + by + c = 0. Where, a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0 and c = 0 represents a straight line which passes through
A. (2, 4)
B. (0, 0)
C. (3,2)
D. None of these
127. The numerator of a fraction is 4 less than its denominator. If the numerator is decreased by 2 and the denominator is increased by 1, then the denominator becomes eight times the numerator. Find the fraction.
A. 3/7
B. 4/8
C. 2/7
D. 3/8
128. If x2 = y + z,y2 = z + x, z2 = x + y, then the value 1/1+x +1/1+y + 1/1+z
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. -1
129. In a triangle ABC, ∠A = 90°, ∠C = 55°, AD is perpendicular to BC. What is the value of ∠BAD?
A. 60°
B. 45°
C. 55°
D. 35°
130. If G is the centroid of triangle ABC and area of triangle ABC = 48cm2, then the area of triangle BGC is
A. 8 cm2
B. 16 cm2
C. 24 cm2
D. 32 cm2
131. The diagonals AC and BD of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD intersect each other at the point P. Then, it is always true that
A. AP . CP = BP . DP
B. AP . BP = CP . DP
C. AP . CD = AB . CP
D. BP . AB = CD . CP
132. N is the foot of the perpendicular from a point P of a circle with radius 7 cm, on a diameter AB of the circle. If the length of the chord PB is 12 cm, the distance of the point N from the point
A. 12 2/7
B. 3 5/7
C. 10 2/7
D. 6 5/7
133. If O be the circum centre of a triangle PQR and ∠QOR = 110°, ∠OPR = 25°, then the measure of ∠PRQ is
A. 50°
B. 55°
C. 60°
D. 65°
134. A vertical stick 12 cm long casts a shadow 8 cm long on the ground. At the same time, a tower casts a shadow 40 m long on the ground. The height of the tower is
A. 60 m
B. 65 m
C. 70 m
D. 72 m
135. A, B, C, D are four points on a circle. AC and BD intersect at a point such that ∠BEC = 130° and ∠ECD = 20°. Then, ∠BAC is
A. 90°
B. 100°
C. 110°
D. 120°
136. In a triangle, if three altitudes are equal, then the triangle is
A. Equilateral
B. Right
C. Isosceles
D. obtuse
137. The tops of two poles of height 24 m and 36 m are connected by a wire. If the wire makes an angle of 60 ° with the horizontal, then the length of the wire is
A. 8√3
B. 8
C. 6√3
D. 6
138. The value of 1/cosec Ө-cot Ө – 1/sin Ө
A. cot Ө
B. cosec Ө
C. tan Ө
D. 1
139. If cos Ө + sin Ө = √2 cos Ө, then cos Ө — sin Ө is
A. -√2cos Ө
B. -√2 sin Ө
C. √2 sin Ө
D. √2 tan Ө
140. If tan α = n tan β and sin α = m sin β, then cos2 α is
A. m2/n2
B. m2-1/n2-1
C. m2+1/n2+1
D. m2/n2-1
141. If cos4 Ө — sin4 Ө = 2/3, then the value of 1 – 2 sin2 Ө is
A. 0
B. 2/3
C. 1/3
D. 4/3
142. If tan Ө = 3/4 and Ө is acute, then cosec Ө is equal to
A. 5/3
B. 2
C. ½
D. 4
143. The value of 1/1+tan2 Ө + 1/1+cot2 Ө is
A. 1
B. 2
C. ½
D. ¼
144. The selling price of 20 articles is equal to the cost price of 22 articles. The gain percentage is
A. 12%
B. 9%
C. 10%
D. 11%
145. A man gains 10% by selling an article for a cetain price. If he sells it at double the price, then the profit made is
A. 120%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. 100%
146. A number increased by 75/2% and the increment is 33. The number is
A. 27
B. 22
C. 24
D. 25
The following pie chart shows the marks scored by a student in different subjects- viz. Physics (Ph), Chemistry (Ch), Mathematics (M), Social Science (SS) and English (E) in an examination. Assuming that total marks obtained for the examination is 810, answer the questions given below. (Q. No. 147 to 150)
147. The marks obtained in English, Physics and Social Science exceed the marks obtained in Mathematics and Chemistry by
A. 10%
B. 10 1/9 %
C. 11 %
D. 11 1/9%
148. The difference of marks between Physics and Chemistry is same as that between
A. Physics and English
B. Mathematics and English
C. English and Social Science
D. Chemistry and Social Science
149. The marks obtained in Mathematics and Chemistry exceed the marks obtained in Physics and Social Science by
A. 30
B. 40
C. 45
D. 50
150. Thu subject in which the student obtained 135 marks is
A. Physics
B. Chemistry
C. Mathematics
D. English
PART – D ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
For the following questions answer them individually
151. We have been knowing/each other/since we were children./No error
A. We have been knowing
B. each other
C. since we were children.
D. No error
152. Neither of the teams/are sensible enough/to do this task./No error
A. Neither of the teams
B. are sensible enough
C. to do this task.
D. No error
153. If I was he/’I wouldn’t accept/this project/’No error
A. If I was he
B. I wouldn’t accept
C. this project.
D. No error
154. The teacher advised to/the student to borrow/a book from the library within three days ./No error
A. The teacher advised to
B. the student to borrow
C. a book from the library within three days.
D. No error
155. I insisted/on his going/there immediately ./No error
A. I insisted
B. on his going
C. there immediately.
D. No error
156. The Information and Communication Technology has_____ age and employees very highly paid technocrats.
A. come of
B. come upon
C. come out of
D. come through
157. They reached the railway station before the train____
A. had left
B. B had been left
C. left
D. was leaving
158. He slipped____ his old ways and started drinking again.
A. into
B. off
C. by
D. in
159. All is not well______ the automobile sector.
A. of
B. down
C. in
D. to
160. Many premier educational institutions come forward to have a_____ with flourishing industries.
A. tie-down
B. tie-up
C. tie-in
D. tie-on
In these questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
161. Stern
A. Lenient
B. Young
C. Stem
D. Strict
162. Citadel
A. Metropolis
B. Mansion
C. Fortress
D. Palace
163. Aberration
A. Justification
B. Intensification
C. Deviation
D. Rationality
164. Dormant
A. Active
B. Inactive
C. Dorsal
D. Domestic
In these questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it
165. Tranquillity
A. Disturbance
B. Quiet
C. Serenity
D. Peace
In these questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
166. Dwindle
A. Decrease
B. Diminish
C. Shrink
D. Increase
In these questions four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
167. Acquiring a job is a cakewalk for a student who has good academic performance coupled with the good attitude.
A. walk away with a cake
B. a difficult achievement
C. a walkway made with cakes
D. an easy achievement
168. Let sleeping dogs lie.
A. Do not bring up an old controversial issue
B. Dogs can raise tempers
C. Do not allow dogs to stand
D. Prevent dog mobility
169. To get admission in present day educational institutions, all children should be born with a silver spoon in the mouth.
A. be born to silver spoon manufacturer
B. always hold a silver spoon
C. be born with silver spoon
D. be born in a rich family
170. A man of straw means
A. a worthy fellow
B. an unreasonable person
C. a man of no substance
D. a very active person
171. Children complain about their parents’ gifts. They should learn not to look gift horse in the mouth.
A. not to look at a horse’s mouth
B. not to find fault with the gifts received
C. not to ask for more gift
D. not to find goodness in the gifts
In these questions a sentence/ part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternative to the bold sentence/part of the sentence at a, b and c which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternatives. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is d.
172. If I had the money I would have bought the house.
A. If I had had the money I would have bought the house
B. If I have the money I would have bought the house
C. If I have had the money I would have bought the house
D. No improvement
173. I wish I knew what is wrong with my car.
A. I wish I had know what is wrong with my car
B. I wish I know what is wrong with my car
C. I wish I knew what was wrong with my car
D. No improvement
174. Just before he died, Amar, who is a poet, wrote this poem.
A. Just before he died, Amar, who was a poet, wrote this poem
B. Amar, who is a poet, wrote this poem just before he died
C. Amar wrote this poem, who is poet, just before he died
D. No improvement
175. The flag will be risen on the 15th of August.
A. The flag will be roused on the 15th of August
B. The flag will be rising on the 15th August
C. The flag will be raised on the 15th of August
D. No improvement
176. Sushma has wisdom, charm and she has a good sense of humour.
A. had a good sense of humour
B. a good sense of humour
C. has a good sense of humour
D. No improvement
177. They knocked down ten houses when they built the new road.
A. ruptured
B. removed
C. pulled down
D. No improvement
178. Don’t sit in the grass. It’s wet.
A. by the side of
B. on
C. beside
D. No improvement
179. The game is more important than the winning of the prize.
A. The gaming is more important than the winning of the prize
B. The game is more important than winning of the prize
C. Gaming is more important than winning of the prize
D. No improvement
180. The actor is out of jail, and not exactly a free man, since he will be under house arrest for an additional 90 days.
A. but not exactly a free man
B. though exactly a free man
C. if not exactly a free man
D. No improvement
181. Some players on the team suffer from chronic knee problems and will not play in the next playoff.
A. Some player on the team suffered
B. Some player on the team suffer
C. Some players on the team suffers
D. No improvement
182. To reduce to nothing
A. Cull
B. Lull
C. Null
D. Annul
183. An obviously true or hackneyed statement
A. Truism
B. Syllogism
C. Iconic
D. Imagism
184. Words inscribed on a tomb
A. Epilogue
B. Epitaph
C. Epitome
D. Epistle
185. The act of producing beautiful handwriting using a brush or a special pen
A. Hieroglyphics
B. Calligraphy
C. Stencilling
D. Graphics
186. A word composed of the first letters of the words in a phrase.
A. Acronym
B. Abridgement
C. Almanac
D. Anachronism
187. A person of obscure position who has gained wealth.
A. Extravagant
B. Promiscuous
C. Parvenu
D. Sumptuary
188. A study of sounds is known as
A. Semantics
B. Stylistics
C. linguistics
D. phonetics
In these questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
189.
A. Busyness
B. Bussyness
C. Business
D. Bussiness
190.
A. Questionnaire
B. Questionnair
C. Questionaire
D. Questionnare
In these questions you have a passage with 10 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four.
The postmaster first took up his duties in the village of Ulapur. Though the village was a small one, there was an indigo factory nearby and the proprietor an Englishman, had managed to get a post office established. Our postmaster belonged to Calcutta. He left like a fish out of water in this remove village. His office and living-room were in a dark thatched shed, not far from a green, slimy pond, surrounded on all sides by a dense growth. The men employed in the indigo factory had no leisure, moreover they were hardly desirable companions for decent folk. Nor is a Calcutta boy an adept in the art of associating with others. Among strangers he appears either proud or ill at ease. At any rate the postmaster had but little company, nor had he much to do. At times he tried his hand at writing a verse or two. That the movement of the leaves and clouds of the sky were enough to fill life with joy – such were the sentiments to which he sought to give expression. But God knows that the poor fellow would have felt it as the gift of a new life, if some genie of the Arabian Nights had in one night swept away the trees, leaves and all, and replaced them with a macadamised road, hiding the clouds from view with rows of tall houses.
191. What does the idiom ‘fish out of water’ suggest?
A. In unfamiliar surroundings
B. can die any moment
C. grasping for breath
D. amphibious creature
192. Find a word in the passage which is the opposite of ‘near’.
A. Convenient
B. Unknown
C. Close
D. Remote
193. Find a word in the passage which means ‘the owner of a business’.
A. Constructor
B. Businessman
C. Entrepreneur
D. Proprietor
194. The adjective used to describe the postmaster’s living-room is
A. bright
B. dark
C. light
D. deep
195. What does the phrase ‘ill at ease’ in the passage mean?
A. Forward
B. Disease
C. Comfortable
D. Uneasy
196. What does the phrase ‘little company’ in the passage mean?
A. Bad friendship
B. Hardly any friends
C. Small business
D. Business-like
197. At times, the postmaster wrote
A. poems
B. novels
C. short stories
D. dramas
198. The postmaster wrote on the
A. beauty of nature
B. beauty of himself
C. beauty of the weather
D. beauty of the village
199. The word ‘genie’ means
A. Monster
B. Spirit
C. ghost
D. soul
200. Which factory was situated near the village Ulapur?
A. Chemical
B. Rubber
C. Clothes
D. Dyes
ANSWER KEY
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. D
12. D
13. D
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. C
18. B
19. C
20. A
21. D
22. B
23. D
24. A
25. B
26. C
27. C
28. D
29. C
30. B
31. A
32. D
33. D
34. C
35. D
36. A
37. D
38. D
39. B
40. C
41. D
42. B
43. C
44. D
45. C
46. D
47. B
48. C
49. A
50. C
51. C
52. D
53. C
54. C
55. A
56. D
57. C
58. C
59. C
60. D
61. A
62. C
63. B
64. C
65. A
66. A
67. B
68. C
69. B
70. C
71. A
72. B
73. D
74. D
75. B
76. B
77. A
78. C
79. B
80. B
81. C
82. B
83. A
84. B
85. B
86. B
87. A
88. B
89. C
90. C
91. C
92. C
93. D
94. C
95. C
96. C
97. C
98. C
99. C
100. B
101. C
102. B
103. B
104. C
105. D
106. D
107. D
108. C
109. A
110. B
111. C
112. B
113. A
114. B
115. B
116. C
117. B
118. A
119. B
120. D
121. D
122. B
123. A
124. C
125. C
126. B
127. A
128. A
129. C
130. B
131. B
132. C
133. C
134. A
135. C
136. A
137. A
138. A
139. C
140. B
141. B
142. A
143. A
144. C
145. A
146. C
147. D
148. D
149. C
150. D
151. A
152. B
153. A
154. A
155. B
156. A
157. C
158. A
159. C
160. B
161. D
162. C
163. C
164. A
165. D
166. D
167. D
168. A
169. D
170. C
171. B
172. A
173. C
174. A
175. B
176. B
177. C
178. B
179. B
180. A
181. D
182. C
183. A
184. B
185. B
186. A
187. C
188. D
189. C
190. A
191. A
192. D
193. D
194. B
195. D
196. B
197. A
198. A
199. B
200. D