2013 SSC CGL Tier 1
19 May Shift – 2
Question Paper with Answer Key


1. Which of the following high dignitaries, who are not members of Parliament, has the right to address it?
A. Chief Justice of India
B. Attorney General of India
C. Solicitor General of India
D. Chief Election Commissioner of India

2. The Declaration of American Independence was based on the theory of
A. Civil Rights
B. Moral Rights
C. Legal Rights
D. Natural Rights

3. For which tax, was constitutional status given much later after its introduction in a small way in 1994 – 95?
A. Customs Duty
B. Corporation Tax
C. Taxes on Services
D. Income Tax

4. The first Sultan who requested and obtained letters of investiture from the Caliph (Khalifa) was
A. Lltutmish
B. Daiuai
C. Balban
D. Alauddin Khilji

5. The Buddhist monk who spread Buddhism in Tibet was
A. Nagarjuna
B. Ananda
C. Asanga
D. Padmasambhava

6. In 1937, an educational conference endorsing Gandhi’s proposals for ‘basic education’ through the vernacular medium was held at
A. Surat
B. Bombay
C. Ahmadabad
D. Wardha

7. ‘What is the Third Estate ?“ pamphlet associated with the French Revolution, was written by :
A. Marquis Lafayette
B. Edmund Burke
C. Joseph Foulon
D. Abbe Sieyes

8. Gandhi’s Salt Satyagraha was a part of—
A. Champaran Satyagraha
B. Quit India Movement
C. Non Cooperation Movement
D. Civil Disobedience Movement

9. Stagflation refers to a situation which is characterised by
A. stagnant employment and deflation
B. deflation and rising unemployment
C. inflation and rising employment.
D. inflation and rising unemployment

10. The demand for necessities is
A. Elastic
B. perfectly inelastic
C. inelastic
D. perfectly elastic

11. The balance of payments of a country Is In equilibrium when the
A. demand as well as supply of the domestic currency are the highest
B. demand for the domestic currency Is equal to Its supply
C. demand for the domestic currency Is the highest
D. demand for the domestic currency Is the lowest

12. Value added means value of
A. output at factor cost
B. output at market prices
C. goods and services less depreciation
D. goods and services less cost of Intermediate goods and services

13. The difference between GNP and NNP equals
A. corporate profits
B. personal taxes
C. transfer payments
D. depreciation

14. Who decides a ‘bill’ is a money bill ?
A. Prime Minister
B. Speaker of LokSabha
C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D. President

15. Which of the following countries is regarded as the home of ‘Fabian Socialism’?
A. Russia
B. England
C. France
D. Italy

16. In plant water relationships, symbol ‘ is used to represent
A. Osmotic pressure
B. Water potential
C. Solute potential
D. Osmosis

17. A molecule in plants comparable to haemoglobin in animals is
A. Cytochrome
B. Cellulose
C. Chlorophyll
D. Carotene

18. An Antigen is
A. the result of Antibody
B. the opposite of Antibody
C. the stimulus for Antibody formation
D. the residue of an Antibody

19. Blood does not coagulate inside the body due to the presence of
A. Plasma
B. Haemoglobin
C. Heparin
D. Fibrin

20. The atmospheric layer farthest from the Earth’s surface is known as
A. Stratosphere
B. Exosphere
C. Ionosphere
D. Mesosphere

21. The temperate grasslands of South America are called
A. Prairies
B. Pampas
C. Downs
D. Steppes

22. Contours are the lines which are drawn joining places having
A. equal height from mean sea level
B. equal rainfall
C. equal air pressure
D. equal temperature

23. Soil formed by leaching and oxidation is
A. Black soil
B. Late rite soil
C. Red soil
D. Montane soil

24. Which strait separates Australia and Tasmania?
A. Bass
B. Babel Mandeb
C. Palk
D. Bering

25. Photon is the fundamental unit/quantum of
A. Gravitation
B. Electricity
C. magnetism
D. light

26. A liquid disturbed by stirring comes to rest due to
A. Density
B. surface tension
C. viscosity
D. centripetal force

27. The nuclear particle having no mass and no charge, but only spin is
A. Proton
B. neutrino
C. meson
D. electron

28. The technology that is used to establish wireless networking is
D. Bluetooth

29. What is USB ?
A. Ultimate Service Bit
B. Universal Sent Bit
C. Universal Serial Bus
D. Urgent Sent Bit

30. In a period from Li to F, ionisation potential
A. cannot be predicted
B. increases
C. decreases
D. remains same

31. Which of the following metals can deposit copper from copper sulphate solution ?
A. Platinum
B. Mercury
C. Iron
D. Gold

32. Leech is an ectoparasite on cattle, which is
A. Carnivorous
B. Omnivorous
C. Sanguivorous
D. Herbivorous

33. How many chambers does a mammalian heart have ?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

34. When Arsenic atoms are added to Germanium lattice, it becomes a/an
A. Insulator
B. Superconductor
C. Intrinsic semiconductor
D. Extrinsic semiconductor

35. Who won the “Miss World” title for 2012?
A. Alexandria Mills
B. Vanya Mishra
C. Wenxia Yu
D. Ivian Sarcos

36. Who was the first Hindi writer to receive Jnanpith Award?
A. Mahadevi Verma
B. Sumitranandan Pant
C. Dr. Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
D. S.H. Vatsyayan

37. Who is the author of the book Cricketing Life ?
A. Christopher Martin Jenkins
B. Sunil Gavaskar
C. Kapil Dev
D. Tony Greig

38. Which country has three capitals viz. Administrative, Legislative and Judicial?
A. Chile
B. Malaysia
C. Canada
D. South Africa

39. How many countries in Africa are members of the Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?
A. Four
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

40. Who is the Chairman of the 14th Finance Commission ?
A. D. Subba Rao
B. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
C. M. Govinda, Rao
D. Dr. YV Reddy

41. The largest coral reef in the world is found near the coast of
A. Brazil
B. Australia
C. Sri Lanka
D. Cuba

42. Which one of the following Indian World Heritage Sites is not in Madhya Pradesh ?
A. Khajuraho Temples
B. Sun Temple Konark
C. Sanchi Stupa
D. Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka

43. Which among the following is used to dilute oxygen in the gas cylinders used by divers?
A. Krypton
B. Argon
C. Helium
D. Neon

44. Which one of the following does not form ox acid?
A. Sulphur
B. Chlorine
C. Nitrogen
D. Fluorine

45. The release of which of the following into ponds and wells helps in controlling mosquitoes?
A. Snail
B. Crab
C. Dogfish
D. Gambusia fish

46. The ambient air is stable when the ambient lapse rate is
A. Neutrally stable
B. Hyperadlabatlc
C. Subadlabatlc
D. Superadlabatlc

47. Exposure to mixtures of chemicals are greater than expected on the basis of effects of exposure to each chemical individually. This is known as
A. Additives
B. Antagonism
C. Synergism
D. Independent

48. The filter over which sewage is sprinkled is called as
A. Trickling filter
B. Percolating filter
C. Contact bed
D. Intermittent sand filter

49. Who was the captain of the West Indies Cricket team, which won the T20 World Cup 2012?
A. Ravi Rampaul
B. Chris Gayle
C. Marlon Samuels
D. D. Bravo

50. Which football player has won the FIFA World Player Award (FIFA Ballon d’Or) for four years in a row?
A. Andres Iniesta
B. Christiano Ronaldo
C. Lionel Messi
D. Michel Platini


In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is d: i.e. No error.

51. Being a holiday (a) we went out (b) for a picnic, (c) No error, (d)
A. Being a holiday
B. we went out
C. for a picnic.
D. No error

52. If we have no definite aim before us (a) we would only wonder about in aimless pursuits (b) and achieve nothing, (c) No error, (d)
A. If we have no definite aim before us
B. we would only wonder about in aimless pursuits
C. and achieve nothing
D. No error

53. He is anxious not only (a) to acquire knowledge (b) but also eager to display it. (c) No error, (d)
A. He is anxious not only
B. to acquire knowledge
C. but also eager to display it.
D. No error

54. I went to (a) see the Taj Mahal (b) in a moonlit night, (c) No error, (d)
A. I went to
B. see the Taj Mahal
C. in a moonlit night.
D. No error

55. Having found a piece of cheese, (a) two cats went to a dog (b) to divide it among them, (c) No error, (d)
A. Having found a piece of cheese
B. two cats went to a dog
C. to divide it among them.
D. No error

In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are £ question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

56. There is a______ amount of fatty acids and carbohydrates in some of the imported chocolates.
A. neglecting
B. negligent
C. negligible
D. neglected

57. I’m not as successful…………..she is.
A. Then
B. As
C. Like
D. Than

58. Many Tamil-speaking Sri Lankans______ from the island to escape the military and its atrocities.
A. Flown
B. Flee
C. Fled
D. Flew

59. ………….. the new Safari Storme, Mahindra has more leverage in increasing the sales.
A. With
B. At
C. On
D. In

60. The passenger car sales showed a decline……….. .7% to 5.6%.
A. From
B. For
C. Of
D. To

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the moaning of the given word.

61. Hallucination
A. Delusion
B. Habitat
C. Dress
D. Deception

62. Salacious
A. Angry
B. Unhappy
C. Satisfied
D. Lustful

63. contain
A. attain
B. Derive
C. Sustain
D. obtain

In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

64. Retrench
A. Revamp
B. Belle
C. Deviate
D. Recruit

65. Aggravate
A. depreciate
B. extinguish
C. subsidise
D. alleviate

66. Indelible
A. Decorous
B. surprising
C. concerted
D. temporary

In the following questions, four alternatives are given, for the Idiom/Phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase.

67. My ten year-old son is an incredible live-wire.
A. Lazy
B. dangerous
C. naughty
D. energetic

68. He had to cool his heels before he could get an appointment with the doctor.
A. to be kept waiting
B. to make publicly known
C. to exercise Influence
D. to lose one’s temper

69. The captains of the rival teams should, try to bury the hatchet.
A. put up a stiff competition
B. make peace
C. win the game
D. forget the past

70. He stopped at the bar to wet his whistle.
A. have a nap
B. be happy
C. have a problem
D. have a drink

71. Over the years, we remained loyal through thick and thin.
A. to our principles
B. to employers and subordinates
C. in married life
D. in spite of all the difficulties

In the following questions, a sentence/ part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold sentence/part of the sentence at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose, the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).

72. New hires in this laboratory should anticipate excellent research opportunities and getting valuable clinical, experience.
A. as well as
B. and also getting
C. and obtaining
D. No Improvement

73. It is more better to take this route than the other one.
A. Good
B. Better
C. more good
D. No Improvement

74. She is absent; she must be sick again.
A. She Is absent; she has been sick again
B. She Is absent: she Is sick again
C. She Is absent; she must have been sick again
D. No Improvement

75. Jackie has already gone to the airport she will meet us at the check-in counter.
A. gone to the airport and Jackie will meet us
B. gone to the airport and she will meet us
C. gone to the airport she ought to meet us
D. No Improvement

76. The place at which the two roads meet, you will find a small log cabin.
A. Where the two roads meet
B. At the place where the two roads meet
C. The place where the two roads meet
D. No Improvement

77. The vivid photos of majestic animals and colourful birds from the wild-life park is a graphic depiction of what is beautiful in the continent of Africa.
A. Is a graphic depiction of what was beautiful In
B. are graphic depictions of what Is beautiful In
C. is a beautiful and graphic depiction of
D. No improvement

78. Although I was initially apprehensive, I found the eating of snails to be a rather pleasant experience.
A. I ate the pleasant snail’s experience
B. I found the snails experienced
C. I found it to be a more pleasant experience
D. No improvement

79. The man ate an apple, an orange, and washed his hands.
A. an apple and an orange, and washed his hands
B. an apple, an orange, washed his hands
C. an apple, an orange and his washed hands
D. No improvement

80. After we ate a spectacular nine-course dinner, three television shows were watched by us.
A. we were watching three television shows
B. we engaged in the watching of three shows
C. we watched three television shows
D. No improvement

81. The Blue Whale, weighing more than 150 tons, the largest known animal on Earth.
A. weighing more than 150 tons, it is
B. weighing more than 150 tons, is the
C. which weighs more than 150 tons, being the
D. No improvement

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

82. More like a woman than a man in manners and habits
A. Unmanly
B. Effeminate
C. Womanish
D. Delicate

83. Handwriting which is difficult or impossible to read
A. Unintelligible
B. Eligible
C. Illegible
D. Illogical

84. To play the part of, and function as, some other person
A. Imitate
B. Pretend
C. Impersonate
D. Act

85. Not easily pleased by anything
A. Fastidious
B. Maiden
C. mediveval
D. Precarious

86. To die without having made a will
A. Intaglio
B. Inveterate
C. Intestate
D. Insolvent

87. One who enjoys inflicting pain on himself
A. masochist
B. nihilist
C. egoist
D. sadist

88. Murder of a brother
A. Fratricide
B. Patricide
C. Regicide
D. Homicide

In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

A. anihilate
B. Annihilate
C. Anihillate
D. Annihillate

A. embarased
B. embarassed
C. embarrassed
D. embarrassed

In the following questions, you have a passage with 10 questions Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Many people who are looking to get a pet dog get a puppy. There are many reasons why people get puppies. After all, puppies are cute, friendly, and playful. But even though puppies make good pets, there are good reasons why you should consider getting an adult dog instead. When you get a puppy, you have to teach it how to behave. You have to make sure that the puppy is housebroken so that it does not go to the bathroom inside the house. You have to teach the puppy, not to jump up on your guests or chew on your shoes. You have to train the puppy to walk on a leash. This is a lot of work.
On the other hand, when you get an adult dog there is a good chance that it will already know how to do all of the previously mentioned things. Many adult dogs have already been housebroken. Many adult dogs will not jump on or chew things that you do not want them to jump on or chew. Many adult dogs will be able to walk on a leash without pulling you to the other side of the street.
Puppies also have a lot of energy and want to play all of the time. This can be fun, but you might not want to play as much as your puppy does. Puppies will not always sleep through the night or let you relax as you watch television.
On the other hand, most adult dogs will wait on you to play. What is more, they will sleep when you are sleeping and are happy to watch television on the couch right beside you. There is one last reason why you should get an adult dog instead of a puppy. When most people go to the pound to get a dog, they get a puppy. This means that many adult dogs spend a lot of time in the pound and some never find good homes. So if you are looking to get a dog for a pet, you should think about getting an adult dog. They are good pets who need good homes.

91. Which is the best example of a dog that is housebroken?
A. Muffin chews on people’s shoes
B. Spot goes outside to use the bathroom
C. Rex always breaks things Inside the house
D. Rover never jumps on guests

92. The author apparently thinks that puppies are
A. not as playful as adult dogs
B. hardworking
C. friendly and playful
D. not as cute as adult dogs

93. Which is the best synonym for ‘behave’ as applicable to this passage?
A. act
B. listen
C. understand
D. train

94. The passage speaks of
A. the work involved in training puppies
B. the immature acts of puppies
C. how puppies do not make good pets
D. how puppies can be very destructive

95. As used in paragraph 3, which is the best synonym for relax ?
A. Rest
B. Work
C. Leave
D. play

96. The author begins paragraphs 2 and 4 with the phrase, “On the other hand”. This phrase is used to
A. support the following paragraph
B. highlight an example
C. contradict previous information
D. contradict a later statement

97. In the final paragraph, the author says “many adult dogs spend a lot of time in the pound, and some never find good homes,” Based on the passage, why is this most likely?
A. People do not want to get a dog that does not have much time left to live
B. People see adult dogs as unhappy and dangerous, while they see puppies as cute and friendly
C. People understand that most adult dogs still need a lot of training before they understand how to behave properly
D. People think that puppies are cute and playful and do not always think about how much work it will take to train them

98. Based on the information in the passage, it can be understood that someone who owns a puppy must be very
A. Responsible
B. strict
C. serious
D. optimistic

99. According to the passage, why is it easier to take care of adult dogs than puppies?
I. Puppies need to learn how to walk well on a leash.
II. Adult dogs have less energy than puppies.
III. It is harder for adult dogs to find a home than it is for puppies.
A. I, II and III
B. I only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only

100. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following statements is false?
A. Adult dogs do not, need to eat very much.
B. Puppies have a lot of energy
C. Puppies need a lot of attention
D. Adult dogs do not like to play


101. The radius of a circle is a side of a square. The ratio of the areas of the circle and the square is
A. 1 : π
B. π : 1
C. π : 2
D. 2 : π

102. How much percent more than the cost price should a shopkeeper mark his goods so that after allowing a discount of 25% on the marked price, he gains 20%?
A. 70%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 55%

103. An article is marked at 5,000. The shopkeeper allows successive discounts of x%, y%, z% on it. The net selling price is
A. (100-x) (100+y) (100+z)/ 200
B. (100+x) (100+y) (100-z)/ 200
C. (100-x) (100-y)( 100-z)/ 200
D. (100-x) (100+y)( 100-z) /200

104. A shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% on his articles. The marked price of the article is 450. The selling price should be
A. 395
B. 410
C. 405
D. 400

105. The ratio of number of balls in bags x,y is 2 : 3. Five balls are taken from bag y and are dropped In bag x. Number of balls are equal in each bag now. Number of balls in each bag now is
A. 45
B. 20
C. 30
D. 25

106. Divide 2,600 among A. B,C in the ratio 1/2 : 1/3:1/4 Find the share of each.
A. 1,200, 600, 800
B. 1,200, 800, 600
C. 600, 800, 1,200
D. 800, 600, 1,200

107. A positive integer when divided by 425 gives a remainder 45. When the same number is divided by 17, the remainder will be
A. 11
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10

108. (256)^0.16 X (256)^0.09 is
A. 256.25
B. 4
C. 16
D. 64

109. A can do a piece of work in 6 days. B is 25% more efficient than A. How long would B alone take to finish this work?
A. 4 4/5 days
B. 3 1/3 days
C. 5 ¼ days
D. 2 2/3 days

110. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
A. 10 days
B. 12 days
C. 15 days
D. 20 days

111. 2 men and 3 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 3 men and 2 boys can do the same work in 8 days. In how many days can 2 men and 1 boy do the work ?
A. 8 days
B. 7 days
C. 12.5 days
D. 2 days

112. The perimeter of a rectangular plot is 48 m and area is 108 m2. The dimensions of the plot are
A. 36 m and 3 m
B. 12 m and 9 m
C. 27 m and 4 m
D. 18 m and 6 m

113. If the total surface area of a hemisphere is 27π square cm, then the radius of the base of the hemisphere is
A. 9√3 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 3√3 cm
D. 9 cm

114. A fraction becomes 9/11, if 2 is added to both the numerator and the denominator. If 3 is added to both the numerator and the denominator it becomes 5/6. What is the fraction?
A. 7/9
B. 3/7
C. 5/9
D. 7/10

115. If x = 1 – √2 , then the value of (x – 1/x)^3
A. -8
B. 8
C. 2√2
D. 1

116. If a/b + b/a -1 = 0, then the value of a^3 + b^3 is
A. 3
B. 0
C. 1
D. -1

117. If x + 1/x = 99, find the value of 100x/2x^2 +102x +2
A. 1/6
B. ½
C. 1/3
D. ¼

118. If x = 3 + 2√2 , then find the value of x^2 + 1/x^2
A. 36
B. 30
C. 32
D. 34

119. If (a + b + c) = 0, then (a^2/bc + b^2/ca + c^2/ab)
A. 3
B. -1
C. 0
D. 1

120. If x and y are positive real numbers and xy = 8, then the minimum value of 2x + y is
A. 9
B. 17
C. 10
D. 8

121. The graphs of 2x + 1 = 0 and 3y- 9 = 0 intersect at the point
A. (-1/2, -3)
B. (-1/2, 3)
C. (1/2, -3)
D. None of these

122. In triangle ABC, ∠BAC = 75°, ∠ABC = 45°. BC is produced is D. if ∠ACD = x°, then X/3 % of 60° is
A. 30°
B. 48°
C. 15°
D. 24°

123. Out of four numbers, the average of the first three is 15 and that of the last three is 16. If the last number is 19, the first is
A. 19
B. 15
C. 16
D. 18

124. In a family of 5 members, the average age at present is 33 years. The youngest member is 9 years old. The average age of the family just before the birth of the youngest member was
A. 30 years
B. 29 years
C. 25 years
D. 24 years

125. A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at the cost price but uses a false weight of 850 g instead of 1 kg. His gain percent is
A. 17 12/17%
B. 17 11/17%
C. 71 11/17%
D. 11 11/17%

126. In a college, 40% of the students were allotted group A, 75% of the remaining were given group B and the remaining 12 students were given group C. Then the number of students who applied for the groups is
A. 100
B. 60
C. 80
D. 92

127. A train 150 meters long crosses a milestone in 15 seconds and crosses another train of the same length travelling in the opposite direction in 12 seconds. The speed of the second train in km/hr is
A. 52
B. 56
C. 54
D. 58

128. A person can row a distance of one km upstream in ten minutes and downstream in four minutes. What is the speed of the stream?
A. 4.5 km/h
B. 4 km/h
C. 9 km/h
D. 5.6 km/h

129. A certain sum of money will be doubled in 15 years at the rate of simple interest percent per annum
A. 25
B. 5 ½
C. 6
D. 6 2/3

130. In an isosceles triangle, if the unequal angle is twice the sum of the equal angles, then each equal angle is
A. 120°
B. 60°
C. 30°
D. 90°

131. At an instant, the length of the shadow of a pole is , √3 times the height of the pole. The angle of elevation of the Sun at that moment is
A. 75°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 60°

132. If Ө is positive acute angle and 3 (sec^2 Ө + tan^2 Ө) = 5, then which one is true?
A. cos 2Ө = sin 2Ө
B. cos 2Ө = sin Ө
C. cos 2Ө = tan Ө
D. cos 2Ө = cos Ө

133. Two circles touch each other externally. The distance between their centres is 7 cm. If the radius of one circle is 4 cm, then the radius of the other circle is
A. 3.5 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 4 cm
D. 2 cm

134. In a ΔABC, AB = AC and BA is produced to D such that AC = AD. Then the ∠BCD is
A. 100°
B. 60°
C. 80°
D. 90°

135. In a right-angled triangle ABC, ∠ABC = 90°, AB = 5 cm and BC = 12 cm. The radius of the circum circle of the triangle ABC is
A. 7.5 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 6.5 cm
D. 7 cm

136. If the circum radius of an equilateral triangle ABC be 8 cm, then the height of the triangle is
A. 16 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 12 cm

137. Two circles intersect at A and B. P is a point on produced BA. PT and PQ are tangents to the circles. The relation of PT and PQ is
A. PT = 2PQ
B. PT < PQ
C. PT > PQ
D. PT = PQ

138. If 0 is the circumcentre of triangle ABC and OD ⊥ BC, then ∠BOD must be equal to
A. ∠A
B. 1/2 ∠A
C. 1/2∠B
D. 1/2∠C

139. The numerical value of 1/1+cot^2 Ө +3/1+tan^2 Ө + 2sin^2 Ө is
A. 2
B. 5
C. 6
D. 3

140. The value of 4/1+tan^2Ө + 1/1+cot^2Ө + 3sin^2Ө
A. 4
B. -1
C. 2
D. 3

141. The value of 3(sin x – cos x)^4 +6(sin x + cos x)^2 + 4(sin^6x + cos^6x) is
A. 14
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

142. The value of cosec Ө sec Ө(1+sinӨ/cosӨ – cosӨ/1+sinӨ) – 2tan^2Ө
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0

143. If sin Ө + cosec Ө = 2 then the value of sin^5 Ө + cosec^5 Ө is
A. ½
B. 1
C. 0
D. 2

Study the chart carefully and answer the questions.
The chart shows production of an item (in tonnes) during certain years

144. The production in 2006-07 in comparison to the production in 2002-03 increased by
A. 150%
B. 110%
C. 120%
D. 125%

Study the chart carefully and answer the questions.
The chart shows production of an item (in tonnes) during certain years

145. The production decreased from 2004-05 to 2005-06 by 1
A. 11 1/9%
B. 8 1/9%
C. 9 1/9%
D. 10 1/9%

Study the chart carefully and answer the questions.
The chart shows production of an item (in tonnes) during certain years

146. The year in which production increased the lowest as compared to the previous year is
A. 2007 – 08
B. 2003 – 04
C. 2004 – 05
D. 2006 – 07

Study the chart carefully and answer the questions.
The chart shows production of an item (in tonnes) during certain years

147. The production from 2003 – 04 to 2007 – 08 increased by
A. 125%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

The following bar diagram shows the percentage of Hindus, Sikhs and Muslims in a state during the years from 2004 to 2007. Examine the bar diagram and answer the following questions.

148. The ratio between the Hindu and Sikh population in 2004 was
A. 3:5
B. 1 :2
C. 2:3
D. 3:4

The following bar diagram shows the percentage of Hindus, Sikhs and Muslims in a state during the years from 2004 to 2007. Examine the bar diagram and answer the following questions.

149. If the total population of the state in 2004 was 5 lakhs, then the Hindu and Muslim population in that year was
A. 200000
B. 275000
C. 250000
D. 225000

The following bar diagram shows the percentage of Hindus, Sikhs and Muslims in a state during the years from 2004 to 2007. Examine the bar diagram and answer the following questions.

150. If the total population of the state in 2005 was 5 million, then the Hindu population was [1 million = 10,00,000] A. 2000000
B. 1250000
C. 1500000
D. 1750000


In each of the following questions, select the related letters/ word/ number from the given alternatives.

151. Wine: Grape:: Whiskey : ?
A. Orange
B. Potato
C. Oats
D. Apple

152. 600: 2000:: ? : 9000
A. 3000
B. 3600
C. 5400
D. 5600

153. XZG : CAT:: DOG : ?

In each of the following questions, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

154. _aabab_ ab_ ab_bba
A. Bbaa
B. Baaa
C. Abaa
D. Abba

155. aa_baa aaa_ba_ba
A. abba
B. abab
C. abaa
D. babb

In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete

156. C2E, E5H, G12K, I27N, ?
A. I58P
B. J58Q
C. K58Q
D. 157Q

157. BEH, DGJ, NQT, ?
A. 111

In each term of the given series the second letter of each term is obtained by moving first letter of each term 3 steps forward , similarly the third letter of each term is obtained by moving second letter of each term three steps forward Among the given options only option C satisfies the given criteria hence option C is correct.

158. ZA5,Y4B, XC6, W3D, ?
A. VE7
B. E7V
C. V2E
D. VE5

159. deb, ijg, nol,? , xyv
A. stq
B. rsp
C. rsq
D. stp

160. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 543,453
B. 243,432
C. 234,342
D. 354,543

161. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Vedanthangal
B. Bandipur
C. Mudumalai
D. Thekkady

162. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Internet Explorer
B. Chrome
C. Google
D. Firefox

163. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Opponent
B. Adversary
C. Ally
D. Antagonist

164. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Pentagon
B. Circle
C. Rhombus
D. Diagonal

165. Find the correct set of numbers from the given alternatives.
(4, 3, 2), (16, 9, 4), (256, 81, 16), (65536, ? , ? )
A. 6651,286
B. 6561,256
C. 1486, 97
D. 190, 20

166. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 77
B. 72
C. 74
D. 76

167. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.
2311,4529,7 , 8989
A. 7243
B. 6353
C. 5662
D. 6755

168. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.
21,30, 38,7 , 51,56,60
A. 80
B. 35
C. 55
D. 45

169. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.
6, 14, 30, ?
A. 54
B. 29
C. 27
D. 33

170. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 144
B. 55
C. 100
D. 64

171. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 10
B. 9
C. 3
D. 4

172. Six girls are standing in such a way that they form a circle, facing the centre. Subbu is to the left of Pappu, Revathi is between Subbu and Nisha, Aruna is between Pappu and Keerthana. Who is to the left of Pappu ?
A. Subbu
B. Keerthana
C. Nisha
D. Aruna

173. Naseebah runs for 10 km in the eastern direction. She then turns left and starts walking for 6 km. Again, she turns left and starts running for 6 km. Then she turns left and walks again for 6 km. How far is she from the starting point?
A. 4 km
B. 5 km
C. 6 km
D. 3 km

174. In the following problem,
= stands for ÷
+ stands for –
x stands for =
– stands for >
> stands for +
< stands for x
÷ stands for <
When these new symbols are substituted, only one will be wrong. Identify the wrong one.
A. 4<2+5+8×5
B. 4=2+5>8×5
C. 4<2>5+8×5
D. 4>2<5+8-5

In each of the following questions, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.




178. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation.
8 * 6 * 96 * 2 =0
A. x ÷ –
B. x – ÷
C. – x ÷
D. ÷ – x

179. If P denotes +, Q denotes x. R denotes + and S denotes then 12Q15P3R4S6
A. 70
B. 57
C. 58
D. 68

180. You have to follow the symbolic interpretation to solve the question.
+ = Greater than
x = Equal to
– = Not less than
L = Not equal to
| = Less than
Φ = Not greater than
Then if A – B Φ C, which of the following is implied?
A. A | B + C
B. A | B | C
C. A+B -C
D. A Φ B | C

181. If A stands for +, Q stands for -, V stands for x, R stands for ÷, then what is the value of the given equation ? 225 R 5 A 64 Q 13 V 6=?
A. 376
B. 31
C. 476
D. 576

182. If each of the letters in the English alphabet is assigned an even numerical value beginning A = 2, B = 4 and so on, what will be the total value of the letters for the word INDIA?
A. 72
B. 86
C. 74
D. 94

183. If ‘STYLE’ is written as PQVIB, how can ‘SMELL’ be written in that code ?

184. Ram walks 10 m South from his house, turns left and walks 25 m, again turns left and walks 40 m, then turns right and walks 5 m to reach the school. In which direction is the school from his house?
A. North
B. South-West
C. North-East
D. East

185. A boy was misdirected from his way while returning to his home from his school. In order to reach his home, he first moved 3 km in south direction and then turned to his left and moved 2 km in straight direction on the road leading to the east. From there, he moved to his left and walked 3 km. After this, he again turned to his left and moved 1 km. Finally he reached his home. The home of the boy was in which direction from his school?
A. South
B. West
C. North
D. East

186. If SENT is written as’+ ^ x –‘and ANT is written as ” x –‘ then how is TEN written in that code ?
A. x + –
B. – ^ x
C. *- x
D. – x ^

In each of the following questions, a statement is given followed by two conclusions/ assumptions. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have todecide which of the given conclusions/ assumptions, if any, follow from the given statement.

187. Statement: If people are intelligent they should be creative.
Assumptions :
I. Creativity and intelligence are related.
II. Creative people are intelligent.
A. Both assumptions I and II are Invalid.
B. Only assumption I Is valid
C. Only assumption II Is valid
D. Both assumptions I and II are valid.

188. Statement: A friend in need is a friend indeed.
Conclusions :
I. All are friends in good times.
II. Enemies in bad times are not friends.
A. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
B. Only Conclusion 1 follows.
C. Only Conclusion H follows.
D. Both Conclusions I and II follow.

189. Which of the four cubes given in the answer figure can be created by folding the design in question figure?

190. The figure below is a drawing of a pile of blocks. When taken apart, how many blocks would be there?

A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

191. In the following diagram, the triangle represent mothers, circle represents teachers and the rectangle stands for women. Which letter (out of A,B,C and D) represent women who are mothers as also teachers?

A. B
B. D
C. C
D. A

192. Which of the answer figures is not made up of only the components of the key figure

193. Which one of the following diagrams represents the correct relationship among Poison, Bio-products and Food?

194. In the given figure the triangle represents people who visited Mysore; the circle represents people who visited Ooty, the square represents people who visited Munnar. The portion which represents people who visited both Mysore and Ooty is

A. D
B. G
C. B
D. C

195. In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
Find out which answer figures will exactly make up the question figure?

196. In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

197. For the following questions answer them individually
From the answer figures, find out the figure which is the exact mirror image of the question figure, when the mirror is placed on the line ‘MN’.

198. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the matrix given below. Identify the set for the word ‘SNOW’.

A. 21, 14, 22,56
B. 21, 56, 62, 44
C. 16, 56, 46, 35
D. 21, 23, 54, 52

199. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

200. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how. it will appear when opened.


1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. D
8. D
9. D
10. B
11. B
12. D
13. D
14. B
15. B
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. A
23. B
24. A
25. D
26. C
27. B
28. D
29. C
30. A
31. C
32. D
33. A
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. D
39. A
40. D
41. B
42. B
43. C
44. D
45. D
46. C
47. C
48. A
49. D
50. C
51. A
52. B
53. A
54. D
55. C
56. C
57. B
58. C
59. A
60. A
61. A
62. D
63. C
64. D
65. D
66. D
67. D
68. A
69. B
70. D
71. D
72. A
73. B
74. D
75. B
76. A
77. B
78. C
79. A
80. C
81. B
82. B
83. C
84. C
85. A
86. C
87. A
88. A
89. B
90. C
91. B
92. C
93. A
94. B
95. A
96. C
97. D
98. A
99. A
100. A
101. B
102. C
103. C
104. C
105. B
106. B
107. A
108. B
109. A
110. C
111. C
112. D
113. B
114. A
115. B
116. B
117. C
118. D
119. A
120. D
121. B
122. D
123. C
124. A
125. B
126. C
127. C
128. A
129. D
130. C
131. B
132. B
133. B
134. D
135. C
136. D
137. D
138. A
139. D
140. A
141. D
142. C
143. D
144. A
145. A
146. A
147. D
148. C
149. B
150. D
151. C
152. D
153. D
154. A
155. A
156. C
157. C
158. A
159. A
160. A
161. D
162. C
163. C
164. D
165. B
166. B
167. D
168. D
169. A
170. A
171. C
172. A
173. A
174. A
175. A
176. D
177. B
178. B
179. C
180. C
181. B
182. C
183. A
184. C
185. D
186. B
187. B
188. A
189. B
190. A
191. C
192. A
193. B
194. D
195. D
196. B
197. C
198. D
199. A
200. C