2013 SSC CGL Tier 1
21 Apr Shift – 1
Question Paper with Answer Key

 

PART – A GENERAL AWARENESS

For the following questions answer them individually

1. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development – 2012 was awarded to :
A. Sunita Williams
B. Chanda Kochhar
C. Ellen Johnson Sirieaf
D. Tereza Fajksova

2. In dicots the pollen-grains possess :
A. two germ pores
B. three germ pores
C. four germ pores
D. one germ pore

3. Acceptable “Noise Pollution Level” in India range between:
A. 16 – 35 dec
B. 40 – 45 dec
C. 70- 100 dec
D. 10.- 15 dec

4. Externality theory is the basic theory of the following branch of Economics:
A. Environomics
B. Fiscal Economics
C. International Economics
D. Macro Economics

5. Multi-purpose river valley projects are the “New temples of modern India”. The above statement is made by :
A. Motilal Nehru
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Rajiv Gandhi
D. Jawaharlal Nehru

6. What type of information system would be recognised by digital circuits ?
A. Binary system
B. Both hexadecimal and binary system
C. Only Roman system
D. Hexadecimal system

7. Who was not a politician ?
A. I. K. Gujral
B. S.L. Bahuguna
C. J. Jayalalitha
D. H.N. Bahuguna

8. Who gave the title of “Mahamana” to Madan Mohan Malviya ?
A. Dada Bhai Naurozi
B. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

9. First Hindu-American to enter in the US House of Representative as senator is :
A. Sunita Williams
B. Jyoti Sengupta
C. Ami Hera
D. Tulsi Gabbard

10. Pick out the correct match:
A. Fleshy foods – Calcium and Protein
B. Fish – Starch and Vitamin
C. Milk – Fibre and Minerals
D. Egg yolk – Protein and Fat

11. Who was the Viceroy at the time of Quit India Movement ?
A. Lord Mountbatten
B. Lord Wavell
C. Lord Lin Lithgow
D. Lord Irwin

12. Expand the term IPCC
A. International Panel of Climate Control
B. Interim Panel of Climate Change
C. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
D. International Pollution Control Council

13. Who described the Government of India Act, 1935 as a new charter of bondage?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Rajendra Prasad
C. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. B.R. Ambedkar

14. Endosulfan spray on cashew crop resulted in the pollution to the tune of tragedy in:
A. Kerala
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Karnataka
D. Tamil Nadu

15. “Functional Finance” is associated with:
A. Adolph Wogner
B. Adam Smith
C. Adams
D. Abba ‘P’ Lerner

16. Farad’ is the unit of:
A. Capacitance
B. Inductance
C. Resistance
D. Conductance

17. Which of the following is an impact printer ?
A. Ink-jet printer
B. Bubble jet printer.
C. Laser printer
D. Daisy wheel printer

18. The percentage of nitrogen present in ammonium sulphate is:
A. 27%
B. 25%
C. 30.5%
D. 18%

19. Identify the odd term amongst the following group:
A. Optical fibre
B. Twisted pair wire
C. Microwaves
D. Coaxial cable

20. Who was the other Congress leader who joined with Motilal Nehru to start the Swaraj Party in 1923?
A. B.G. Tilak
B. Chittaranjan Das
C. M.K. Gandhi
D. G.K. Gokhale

21. In which part of the Indian Constitution, the fundamental duties are enshrined ?
A. IV A
B. IV B
C. V
D. IV

22. Who of the following enjoys the rank of Cabinet Minister in Union Cabinet ?
A. Judge of Supreme Court
B. Secretary to Government of India
C. Political Advisor to PM
D. Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission

23. India and Japan inked two agreements during November 2012 to enable Tokyo to import from India:
A. Rare earth minerals
B. Basmati type rice
C. Rubber based products
D. Leather goods

24. Aung San Sun Kyi is a native to:
A. China
B. Myanmar
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Tibet

25. DPT vaccine is administered to prevent diseases like:
A. Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus
B. Dengue, Pertussis and Typhoid
C. Dengue, Polio and Tetanus
D. Diphtheria, Pertussis and Typhoid

26. The WISE Prize-2012, also known as the “Nobel Prize for Education” was conferred by the WISE Summit in Doha on :
A. Dr. Madhav Chavan
B. Dr. Yash Pal
C. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
D. Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam

27. Diamonds are priced higher than water because :
A. they are sold by selected firms with monopolistic powers.
B. their marginal utility to buyers is higher than that of water.
C. their total utility to buyers is higher than that of water.
D. consumers do not buy them at lower prices.

28. Ethanol containing 5% water is known as :
A. Dilute alcohol
B. Power alcohol
C. Rectified spirit
D. Absolute alcohol

29. Of the following land uses, which is restricted to Special Economic Zones ?
A. Educational Institutions
B. Free trade Centres
C. Marketing Centres
D. Information Technology Companies

30. The eastward continuation of the Brazil current is called:
A. South Atlantic drift
B. Counter Equatorial drift
C. West Atlantic drift
D. North Atlantic drift

31. The most powerful woman in business in India as rated by the “Fortune” for the year 2012 is :
A. Prabha Pararneswaran
B. Debjani Ghosh
C. Anjali Bansal
D. Chanda Kochhar

32. Communication satellites are used to :
A. receive communication signal only
B. receive and redirect communication signal
C. provide information of natural resources only
D. transmit communication signal only

33. What is the first sermon of Buddha Called as ?
A. Brahmajalasutta
B. Dhammachakkapabattanasutta
C. Kachchayanagottasutta
D. Mahaparinirvansutta

34. Where are the Todas found ?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Rajasthan
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Madhya Pradesh

35. The “One Straw Revolution’ was written by :
A. Richael Carlson
B. M.S. Swaminathan
C. Norman Borlaug
D. Masanobu Fukuoka

36. Who wrote the book “Why Socialism”?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Acharya Narendra Dev
C. M.N. Roy
D. Jayaprakash Narayan

37. Hypothermia occurs due to loss of excessive heat from body due to sudden low body temperature in:
A. Frogs
B. Human beings
C. Lizards
D. Snakes

38. The disease that has been eradicated from the world is:
A. Leprosy
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Chicken pox
D. Small pox

39. The vacancy of the office of the President must be filled within :
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 1 month
D. 3 months

40. Non Resident Indians (NRI) Day is marked on:
A. January 9
B. January 17
C. January 19
D. January 7

41. Blood is a:
A. connective tissue
B. epithelial tissue
C. muscular tissue
D. reproductive tissue

42. The natural disaster in which carbon-di-oxide suddenly erupts from a deep lake water is known as
A. Lacaustrine
B. Fluvial
C. Glacial
D. Liminic

43. Steel is more elastic than rubber because it:
A. requires larger deforming force
B. is never deformed
C. is deformed very easily
D. is harder than rubber

44. The hormone used as an oral contraceptive is :
A. Cortisone
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone
D. Aldesterone

45. Transboundary pollution (or) Acid rain is caused by :
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Hydrocarbon
D. Nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide

46. Stains of rust on clothes can be removed by :
A. Oxalic acid
B. Petrol
C. Alcohol
D. HO

47. From which of the following banks did Madan Mohan Malaviya take loans for financing “The Hindustan Times” ?
A. Punjab National Bank
B. Bank of Maharashtra
C. Bank of Baroda
D. State Bank of India

48. Which of the following is an endemic species ?
A. Horn bill
B. Indian Rhino
C. Pink head duck
D. Nicobar pigeon

49. Blood group was discovered by :
A. William Harvey
B. Landsteiner
C. Pavlov
D. Alexander Fleming

50. “Whether I earned your vote or not, I have listened to you, have learned from you. You have made me a better President’, as said by:
A. Barack Obama
B. George Bush
C. APJ Abdul Kalam
D. Pranab Mukherjee

PART – B ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is d: i.e. No Error.

51. My sister asked me/a that how long b/I would stay there, c/ No Error. D
A. My sister asked me
B. that how long
C. I would stay there
D. No Error

52. The teacher, as well as the students, a/ have gone on an excursion b/ to Oooty during their summer vacation, c/ No Error. D:
A. The teacher, as well as the students
B. have gone on an excursion
C. to Oooty during their summer vacation
D. No Error

53. The US a/ don’t want b/India in the Security Council, c/ No Error. D
A. The US
B. don’t want
C. India in the Security Council.
D. No Error

54. The cruel lady made a/her step daughter to do b/ all the household chores, c/ No Error. D
A. The cruel lady made
B. her step daughter to do
C. all the household chores
D. No Error

55. You can eat a/as much as you like b/at the newly lunch bar. c:/ No Error. D
A. You can eat
B. as much as you like
C. at the newly lunch bar
D. No Error

In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

56. ………… the people looked well enough, but when one looked more closely one saw that their faces were filled with despair.
A. At first looking
B. At first observation
C. On first sight
D. At first sight

57. He was assured by his friends………. every type of help, in an emergency.
A. By
B. Of
C. with
D. about

58. The work……………., he left his office.
A. having completed
B. having been completed
C. on being finished
D. having been over

59. Our monthly expenditure………… by five hundred rupees when we decided to buy milk from the milkman.
A. shot up
B. got up
C. lifted up
D. grew up

60. He was not a man………. intelligence.
A. lacking of
B. devoid of
C. absent of
D. empty of

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

61. Students are asked to collate for an important programme by the principal.
A. Describe
B. narrate
C. prescribe
D. assemble

62. Advocate
A. Pronounce
B. support
C. determine
D. predict

63. Preamble
A. Mediation
B. Conclusion
C. introduction
D. definition

In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

64. Wary
A. Conscientious
B. Daring
C. thrifty
D. rash

65. Ambiguous
A. Plain
B. clear
C. simple
D. easy

66. Accolade
A. blame
B. reticent
C. decorate
D. permeate

In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase printed in bold. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

67. To play second fiddle.
A. to reduce the importance of one’s senior
B. take a subordinate role
C. to do back seat driving
D. to be happy, cheerful and healthy

68. Mary broke a dining-room window and had to face the music when her father got home.
A. listen carefully
B. ask a lot of questions
C. listen to music
D. accept the punishment

69. Villagers always call a spade a spade.
A. to speak in a straight forward manner
B. to call someone a spade
C. to speak ill about someone
D. to speak about spades

70. I am out of my wits and therefore cannot find a way to solve the problem immediately.
A. greatly confused
B. helpless without power
C. totally ignorant
D. no intelligent enough

71. Why are you jumping down my throat? I wasn’t even in the house when it happened.
A. making a joke
B. scolding me
C. forcing me to cat
D. running away

In the following questions, a sentence/ part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold sentence/part of the sentence at a:, b: and c: which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is d.

72. He may have grown taller when I last saw him.
A. from when I last saw him
B. since I last saw him
C. before I last saw him
D. No improvement

73. While crossing the highway, a five year old child was knocked out by a passing car.
A. Away
B. Up
C. Down
D. No improvement

74. We are looking forward to see you tomorrow.
A. looking forward towards seeing
B. looking forward for seeing
C. looking forward to seeing
D. No improvement

75. The clients are waiting outside since morning and will continue to wait until you meet them.
A. have waited
B. have been waiting
C. were waiting
D. No improvement

76. The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.
A. hell bent on getting
B. hell bent for getting
C. hell bent upon getting
D. No improvement

77. During his long discourse, he did not touch that point.
A. touch upon
B. touch in
C. touch of
D. No improvement

78. They could not tell me why did he not eat his lunch.
A. why not had he eaten
B. why he did not eat
C. why had he not eaten
D. No improvement

79. He who will bid the highest will get the product.
A. who bids the highest
B. who the highest bids
C. who would bid the highest
D. No improvement

80. If he had time he will call you.
A. would have
B. would have had
C. has
D. No improvement

81. John had told me that he hasn’t done it yet.
A. Told
B. Tells
C. Was telling
D. No improvement

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.

82. A general pardon granted by the Government to political offenders
A. Excuse
B. Honesty
C. Amnesty
D. Pardon

83. One who hates women
A. Misogamist
B. Ambivert
C. Misanthrope
D. Misogynist

84. One who cannot be corrected
A. Incorrigible
B. Hardened
C. Invulnerable
D. Incurable

85. A school boy who cuts classes frequently is a
A. Sycophant
B. truant
C. Martinet
D. Defeatist

86. Detailed plan of a journey
A. Travel kit
B. Schedule
C. Itinerary
D. Travelogue

87. Stealing of ideas or writings of someone else
A. scepticism
B. mesmerism
C. plagiarism
D. autism

88. A person who consumes human flesh
A. Javage
B. Captor
C. Carnivore
D. Cannibal

In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

89. The laboratories are______ with high-tech electronic gadgets.
A. equpped
B. equipped
C. equepped
D. equipped

90. Software companies have ushered in_______ culture along with advanced technology.
A. Foreign
B. Forigen
C. Foreign
D. Foreign

In the following questions, you have two passages with 5 questions in each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
The World Health Organisation is briefly called W.H.O. It is a specialised agency of the United Nations and was established in 1948. International health workers can be seen working in all kinds of surroundings: in deserts, jungles, mountains, coconut groves, and rice fields. They help the sick to attain health and the healthy to maintain their health. This global health team assists the local health workers in stopping the spread of what are called communicable diseases, like cholera. These diseases can spread from one country to another and so can be a threat to world health. W.H.O. assists different national health authorities not only in controlling diseases but also in preventing them altogether. Total prevention of diseases is possible in a number of ways. Everyone knows how people, particularly children, are vaccinated against one disease or another. Similarly, most people are familiar with the spraying of houses with poisonous substances which kill disease-carrying insects.

91. “It is a specialised agency of the United Nations and was established in 1948.” Here specialised means :
A. expert
B. extraordinary
C. uncommon
D. made suitable for a particular purpose

92. “Total prevention of diseases is possible in a number of ways”. The author has given illustrations of
A. only two such ways
B. only one such way
C. more than two such ways
D. none of these ways

93. “international health workers can be seen working in all kinds of surroundings : in deserts, jungles, mountains, coconut groves, and rice fields”. Here International means:
A. drawn from all countries of the world
B. believing in cooperation among nations
C. belonging to an organisation which has something to do with different nations.
D. belonging to the whole world

94. “W.H.O. assists different national health authorities not only in controlling diseases but also in preventing them, altogether’’. The above sentence implies that:
A. W.H.O. assists more in preventing diseases than in controlling them.
B. W.H.O: assists in controlling diseases only if they have not been prevented.
C. W.H.O. assists both in controlling diseases and in preventing them.
D. W.H.O. assists many others in addition to the national health authorities

95. “They help the sick to attain health and the healthy to maintain their health”. Here they stands for:
A. rice fields
B. international health workers
C. jungles
D. deserts

In the following questions, you have two passages with 5 questions in each passage.
Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Why don’t I have a telephone? Not because I pretend to be wise or pose as unusual.
There are two chief reasons; because I don’t really like the telephone, and because I find I can still work and play, eat, breathe, and sleep without it. Why don’t I like the telephone? Because I think it is a pest and time waster. It may create unnecessary suspense and anxiety, as when you wait for an expected call, that doesn’t come; or irritating delay, as when you keep ringing a number that is always engaged. As for speaking in a public telephone booth, it seems to me really horrible. You would not use it unless you were in a hurry, and because you are in a hurry, you will find other people waiting before you. When you do get into the booth, you are half suffocated by the stale, unventilated air, flavoured with cheap face-powder and chain smoking; and by the time you have begun your conversation your back is chilled by the cold looks of somebody who is moving about restlessly to take your place.
If you have a telephone in your house, you will admit that it tends to ring when you least want it to ring: when you are asleep, or in the middle of a meal or a conversation, or when you are just going out, or when you are in your bath. Are you strong minded enough to ignore it, to say to yourself. “Ah well, it will be all the same in hundred years time”. You are not. You think there may be some important news or message for you. Have you never rushed dripping from the bath, of chewing from the table, or dazed from bed, only to be told that you are a wrong number? You were told the truth. In my opinion all telephone numbers are wrong numbers. IL of course, your telephone rings and you decide not to answer it, then you will have to listen to an idiotic bell ringing and ringing in what is supposed to be the privacy of your own home. You might as well buy a bicycle bell and ring it Yourself.

96. The author does not have a telephone because
A. he poses as unusual
B. he would prefer to do something else
C. he thinks that it can create unnecessary suspense and anxiety.
D. he pretends to be wise

97. ………..your back is chilled by the cold looks of somebody’ means:
A. you feel cold at the back
B. you feel uneasy because the person next in the queue looks at you restlessly
C. people are very cold
D. others look at you angrily

98. ‘All telephone numbers are wrong numbers’, because:
A. the author always gets wrong calls
B. whenever he tries it always goes wrong.
C. he doesn’t give much importance to telephone and telephone numbers
D. none of the statements given above.

99. ‘Ah well, it will be all the same in hundred years time’. This sentence means :
A. Things have not changed for the past 100 years.
B. Things will remain the same for 100 years to come.
C. One should be strong minded.
D. Nothing is going to change even if you don’t answer the telephone bell.

100. He hates speaking in a public telephone booth because:
A. he is suffocated by the stale, unventilated air, flavoured with cheap face powder and chain-smoking.
B. others look at him angrily
C. the other side may not know your number
D. it is costlier

PART – C QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

101. A person distributes his pens among four friends A, B. C, D in the ratio 1/3 :1/4 :1/5 :1/6 .What is the minimum number of pens that the person should have?
A. 60
B. 65
C. 75
D. 45

102. If x, y, z ≠ 0 and 1/x^2 + 1/y^2 + 1/z^2 = 1/xy + 1/yz + 1/zx then the relation among x, y, z is
A. x+ y+ z= 0
B. x+y=z
C. x-y=0
D. x=y = z

103. If a sin Ө + b cos Ө = c then the value of a cos Ө – b sin Ө is :
A. ±√-a^2 + b^2 + c^2
B. ±√a^2 + b^2 – c^2
C. ±√a^2 – b^2 – c^2
D. ±√a^2 – b^2 + c^2

104. If x= a sec Ө cos Φ, y = b sec Ө sin Φ z = c tan Ө, then, the value of x^2/a^2 +y^2/b^2 – z^2/c^2 is :
A. 1
B. 4
C. 9
D. 0

105. Mohan gets 3 marks for each correct sum and loses 2 marks for each wrong sum. He attempts 30 sums and obtains 40 marks. The number of sums solved correctly is
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 10

106. If sec Ө + tan Ө/ sec Ө – tan Ө = 5/3 ’ then sin Ө is equal to:
A. ¼
B. 1/3
C. 2/3
D. ¾

107. The marked price of a watch was 720. A man bought the same fort 550.80 after getting two successive discounts, the 1st being 10%. What was the 2nd discount?
A. 14%
B. 15%
C. 18%
D. 12%

108. Two pipes, P and Q can fill a cistern in 12 and 15 minutes respectively. If both are opened together and at the end of 3 minutes, the first is closed, how much longer will the cistern take to fill?
A. 5 minutes
B. 8 1/2 minutes
C. 8 1/4 minutes
D. 8 3/4 minutes

109. The average age of 14 girls and their teacher’s age is 15 years. If the teacher’s age is excluded, the average reduces by 1. What is the teacher’s age?
A. 32 years
B. 30 years
C. 29 years
D. 35 years

110. The square root of 33 – 4√35 is :
A. ±(2√7+√5)
B. ±(√7+2√5)
C. ±(√7-2√5)
D. ±(2√7-√5)

111. The cost of manufacture of an article was 900. The trader wants to gain 25% after giving a discount of 10%. The marked price should be :
A. 1250
B. 1200
C. 1000
D. 1500

112. Three sides of a triangular field are of length 15 m, 20 m and 25 m long respectively. Find the cost of sowing seeds in the field at the rate of 5 rupees per sq.m.
A. 300
B. 600
C. 750
D. 150

113. If a^2 + 1 = a, then the value of a^12 + a^6 + 1 is :
A. -3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

114. A, B, C and D purchase a gift worth 60. A pays 1/2 of what others are paying, B pays 1/3 rd of what others are paying and C pays 1/4 th of what others are paying. What is the amount paid by D?
A. 16
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15

115. If a*b = a + b + a/b, then the value of 12 * 4 is:
A. 20
B. 21
C. 43
D. 19

116. If the median drawn on the base of a triangle is half its base, the triangle will be:
A. right-angled
B. acute-angled
C. obtuse-angled
D. equilateral

117. Taking any three of the line segments out of segments of length 2 cm, 3 cm, 5 cm and 6 cm, the number of triangles that can be formed is :
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4

118. If x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 2(x – y – z) – 3, then the value of 2x – 3y + 4z is [Assume that x, y, z are all real numbers):
A. 9
B. 1
C. 3
D. 0

119. A swimmer swims from a point A against a current for 5 minutes and then swims backwards in favour of the current for next 5 minutes and comes to the point B. If AB = 100 metres, the speed of the swimmer (in km per hour) is :
A. 0.4
B. 0.2
C. 1
D. 0.6

120. Two circles of same radius 5 cm, intersect each other at A and B. If AB = 8 cm, then the distance between the centres is :
A. 6 cm
B. 8 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 4 cm

121. ABCD is a rhombus. AB is produced to F and BA is produced to E such that AB = AE = BF. Then:
A. ED > CF
B. ED ⊥ CF
C. ED^2 + CF^2 = EF^2
D. ED II CF

122. The radius of the circum circle of a right angled triangle is 15 cm and the radius of its inscribed circle is 6 cm. Find the sides of the triangle.
A. 30, 40, 41
B. 18, 24, 30
C. 30, 24, 25
D. 24, 36, 20

123. Find the maximum number of trees which can be planted, 20 metres apart, on the two sides of a straight road 1760 metres long
A. 180
B. 178
C. 174
D. 176

124. A contractor undertook to finish a certain work in 124 days and employed 120 men. After 64 days, he found that he had already done 2/ 3 of the work. How many men can be discharged now so that the work may finish in time ?
A. 96
B. 108
C. 80
D. 50

125. If the lengths of the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 4:5:6 and the inradius of the triangle is 3 cm, then the altitude of the triangle corresponding to the largest side as base is :
A. 7.5 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 10cm
D. 8 cm

126. Each of the two circles of same radius a passes through the centre of the other; If the circles cut each other at the points A and Band 0, 0′ be their centres, area of the quadrilateral AOBO’
A. √3/2 a^2
B. a^2
C. ¼ a^2
D. ½ a^2

127. The arithmetic mean of the scores of a group of students in a test was 52. The brightest 20% of them secured a mean score of 80 and the dullest 25%, a mean score of 31. The mean score of remaining 55% is :
A. 50%
B. 51.4% approx.
C. 54.6% approx.
D. 45%

128. In a ΔABC ∠A : ∠B : ∠C = 2 : 3 : 4. A line CD drawn || to AB, then the ∠ACD is :
A. 40°
B. 60°
C. 80°
D. 20°

129. The curved surface area and the total surface area of a cylinder are in the ratio 1:2 If the total surface area of the right cylinder is 616 cm , then its volume is :
A. 1232 Cm^3
B. 1848 Cm^3
C. 1632 Cm^3
D. 1078 Cm^3

130. A person observed that he required 30 seconds less time to cross a circular ground along its diameter than to cover it once along the boundary. If his speed was 30 m/minute, then the radius of the circular ground is (Take π = 22/7)
A. 5.5 m
B. 7.5 m
C. 10.5 m
D. 3.5 m

131. If a + b+ c= 0, then the value (a+b/c + b+c/a + c+a/b) (a/b+c +b/c+a + c/a+b) is:
A. 8
B. -3
C. 9
D. 0

132. A sum of money is sufficient to pay A’s wages for 21 days and B’s wages for 28 days. The same money is sufficient to pay the wages of both for
A. 12 ¼ days
B. 14 days
C. 24 ¼ days
D. 12 days

133. Arvind purchased a wrist watch with 30% discount on the labelled price. He sold it with 40% profit on I he price he bought. What was his percent loss on the labelled price?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 4
D. 8

134. ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC. A circle through B touching AC at the middle point intersects AB at P. Then AP : AB is :
A. 4:1
B. 2 : 3
C. 3 : 5
D. 1 : 4

135. A man standing in one corner of a square football field observes that the angle subtended by a pole in the corner just diagonally opposite to this corner is 60°. When he retires 80 m from the corner, along the same straight line, he finds the angle to be 30°. The length of the field, in m, is :
A. 40
B. 20√2
C. 20
D. 40√2

136. If a, b, c are non-zero, a + 1/b = 1 and b+1/c = 1 then the value of abc is :
A. -1
B. 3
C. -3
D. 1

137. A, B, C walk 1 km in 5 minutes, 8 minutes and 10 minutes respectively. C starts walking from a point, at a certain time, B starts from the same point 1 minutes later and A starts from the same point 2 minutes later than C. Then A meets B and C at times.
A. 5/3 min, 2 min
B. 1 min, 2 min
C. 2 min, 3 min
D. 4/3min, 3 min

138. Value of (tan 1 ° tan2 ° tan3°……….. tan 89°) is :
A. 1
B. 89
C. Undefined
D. 0

139. 
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3^3^333 + 1
D. 20

140. The value of a machine depreciates every year at the rate of 10% on its value at the beginning of that year. If the current value of the machine is r 729, its worth 3years ago was:
A. 1000
B. 750.87
C. 947.10
D. 800

141. A person bought two bicycles for 1600 and sold the first at 10% profit and the second at 20% profit. If he sold the first at 20% profit and the second at 10% profit, he would get 5 more. The difference of the cost price of the two bicycles was
A. 50
B. 40
C. 25
D. 75

142. If cos x + cos^2 x = 1, the numerical value of (sin^12 x+ 3 sin^10 x + 3 sin^5 x + sin^6 x – 1) is:
A. -1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1

143. The price of. sugar having gone down by 10%, a consumer can buy 5 kg more sugar for 270.The difference between the original and reduced price per kg is :
A. 75 paise
B. 53 paise
C. 62 paise
D. 60 paise

144. The table given below shows production of five types of cars by a company from the year 1998 to 2003. Study the table and answer the question.

In which year the production of cars of all types taken together was approximately equal to the average of the total production during the period :
A. 1999
B. 2000
C. 2002
D. 1998

145. The adjoining diagram is frequency polygon for the scores of students in a test. What is the total number of students appeared in the test ?

A. 180
B. 200
C. 250
D. 150

A health drink company prepares the drinks of three different flavours P, Q, R. The production of three flavours over a period of six years has been expressed on bar graph provided below. Study the graph and answer the questions.
(Production of 3 different flavours of health drinks of a company in 6 years in Lakh bottles)
(Q.No. 146 to 150)

146. In which of the following years the percentage of rise or fall in production from the previous year is maximum for the flavour of Q?
A. 2007
B. 2009
C. 2010
D. 2006

147. The percentage of the total production of flavour R in 2007 and 2008 with respect to the production of flavour P in 2005 and 2006 is :
A. 102.25%
B. 115.35%
C. 133.33%
D. 97.67%

148. The average annual production of which flavour was maximum in the given period?
A. P and Q both
B. Q only
C. P and R both
D. P only

149. What was the approximate decline in the production of flavour R in 2010 as compared to the production of 2008 in percentage?
A. 43.33%
B. 33.33%
C. 30.33%
D. 53.33%

150. What is the difference between the average production of flavour Q in 2008. 2009 and 2010 from that of flavour P in 2005, 2006 and 2007 in lakh bottles is :
A. 50
B. 0.5
C. 5.5
D. 5

PART – D GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

For the following questions answer them individually

151. UMPIRE : GAME : : ?
A. Legislator: election
B. Moderator: debate
C. Prodigy: wonder
D. Chef: banquet

152. HCM : FAK : SGD : ?
A. ESQ
B. GES
C. QEB
D. QIB

153. FILM: ADGH :: MILK : ?
A. HDGE
B. HDGF
C. HEGF
D. ADGF

154. AHOP:CKSU::BJMF : ?
A. DQKM
B. CJWM
C. EZUQ
D. DMQK

155. 583 : 488 : : 293 : ?
A. 378
B. 487
C. 581
D. 291

156. 25 : 625 :: 35 : ?
A. 875
B. 635
C. 1575
D. 1205

157. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary
(i) Ambitious
(ii) Ambiguous
(iii) Ambiguity
(iv) Animation
(v) Animals
A. (iii), (ii), (i), (v), (iv)
B. (iii), (ii), (iv), (v), (i)
C. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i), (v)
D. (iii). (ii). (v), (iv), (i)

158. In the following questions find the odd word/ number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 240
B. 304
C. 272
D. 210

159. In the following questions find the odd word/ number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Silver
B. Platinum
C. Zinc
D. Bronze

160. In the following questions find the odd word/ number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. MTF
B. SLE
C. RKD
D. UNG

161. In the following questions find the odd word/ number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. CENT
B. JLOS
C. MORV
D. CEHL

162. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following ?
(i) Pupa
(ii) Larva
(iii) Moth
(iv) Eggs
A. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
B. (iv), (iii), (I), (ii)
C. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
D. (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

163. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following continents in descending order of area ?
(i) South America
(ii) Africa
(iii) Europe
(iv) Australia
(v) North America
A. (ii), (v), (i), (iv), (iii)
B. (ii), (i), (v) (iv), (iii)
C. (ii), (i), (v), (iii), (v)
D. (ft), (v), a:, (iii), (iv)

164. In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones.
17,43, 81, 131,?
A. 300
B. 193
C. 375
D. 468

165. In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones.
X, Q, K, F, ?
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. B

166. In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones.

A. 120
B. 51
C. 12
D. 56

167. In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones.

A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 11

168. In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones.
5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ?
A. 161
B. 169
C. 190
D. 191

169. In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones.
BEAG, DGCI, FIEK, ?
A. HGKJ
B. HKLJ
C. HMIE
D. HKGM

170. In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones.
20, 29, 38, 47, ?
A. 52
B. 58
C. 59
D. 56

171. In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones.

A. 3 and 2
B. (-3) and 2
C. 3 and (-2)
D. (-3) and (-2)

172. A man travels 4 km due north, then travels 6 km due east and further travels 4km due north. How far he is from the starting point?
A. 8 km
B. 10 km
C. 6 km
D. 14 km

173. If MUSICAL is written as KWQKACJ, how can SPRINKLE be written?
A. QRPKLMJG
B. UKTKPMNG
C. QRBKCNJG
D. QNPGLIJC

174. Ram and Sam start walking towards North and cover 20 metres. Ram turns to his left and Sam to his right. After sometime, Rain walks 10 metres, in the same direction in which he turned. On the other hand, Sam walks only 7 metres. Later, Ram turns towards his left and Sam to his right. Both walk 25 metres forward. How far is Ram from Sam now?
A. 17 metres
B. 5 metres
C. 10 metres
D. 20 metres

175. N is more intelligent than M. M is not as intelligent as Y. X is more intelligent than V but not as good as N. Who is the most intelligent of all?
A. M
B. Y
C. N
D. X

176. In the following questions, from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using letters of the given word.
COURAGEOUS
A. COURSE
B. GRACE
C. SECURE
D. ARGUE

177. SPECIFICATION
A. FAINTING
B. TONIC
C. PACIFIC
D. FACTION

178. If MEAT is written as TEAM, then BALE is written
A. EBLA
B. EALB
C. ELAB
D. EABL

179. If ‘P’ means ‘+”Q’ means ‘x” FT means ‘÷’ and ‘S’ means ‘-‘ then :44Q9R12S6Q4P16 =
A. 25
B. 112
C. 36
D. 124

180. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day, 14 were wearing the hockey shirts prescribed. None of them were without either hockey pants or shirts. Eleven were wearing the prescribed hockey pants. How many were in complete uniform?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 7
D. 8

181. If – stands for addition, ÷ for multiplication, x for subtraction, and + for division, then which of the following is correct?
A. 25-15 + 5 ÷ 4×16 = 21
B. 25 + 11-4 ÷ 10×6 = 20
C. 25 x 12 -4 ÷4 +6 = 16
D. 25 – 12 +14 ÷ 2 x 4 = 15

182. A direction pole was situated on the Road Crossing. Due to an accident, the pole turned in such a manner that the pointer which was showing East, started showing South. Sita, a traveller went to the wrong direction thinking it to be West. In what direction actually she was travelling?
A. East
B. South
C. North
D. West

183. Ram cycled 10 km southward from his home, turned right and cycled 6 km, turned right, cycled 10 km, turned left and cycled 15 km. how many km will he have cycled to reach straight home ?
A. 16 km
B. 20 km
C. 10 km
D. 21 km

184. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct ?
5 + 3 x 8-12 ÷ 4 = 3
A. – and ÷
B. + and x
C. + and ÷
D. + and –

185. Which of the following interchange of sign would make the given equation correct ? (20 – 4) x 4 + 16 = 36
A. + and –
B. 5 and 5
C. 16 and 6
D. x and +

186. If WATER is written as YCVGT, then what is written as HKTG?
A. REFI
B. ERIF
C. IRFE
D. FIRE

In the following questions, two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

187. Statements :
I. Some keys are locks, some locks are numbers.
II. All numbers are letters, all letters are words.
Conclusions :
I. Some words are numbers.
II. Some locks are letters.
A. Conclusion I follows
B. Conclusion II follows
C. Conclusions I and II follow
D. None of the conclusion follows

188. Statements :
I. The constitution assures the fundamental rights.
II. Parliament has right to amend the constitution.
Conclusions :
I. Parliament included fundamental rights in the constitution.
II. Parliament did not assure the fundamental rights.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Both conclusions I and II follow
D. None of them

For the following questions answer them individually

189. A cube which is painted red on the outer surface is of 2 inches height, 2 inches wide and 2 inches across. If it is cut into one-inch cubes as shown by dotted lines, indicate the number of cubes which are red on two sides only?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 0

190. Four positions of dice are given below. Which letter will be opposite to D ?

A. B
B. C
C. D
D. A

191. In the given figure, Circle represents persons having Car, triangle represents persons having Motor Cycle, square represents persons having Auto rickshaws, rectangle represents persons having Cycle. Find the region where persons having Car, Motor Cycle, Cycle but not Auto rickshaw.

A. V
B. W
C. X
D. U

192. Identify the response figure in which the figures given are found.

In the following questions, study the following diagram carefully and answer the questions based on it.

193. The diagram shows the survey on a sample of 1000 persons with reference to their knowledge of English, Hindi and Marathi. How many know all the languages ?

A. 105
B. 85
C. 87
D. 175

194. The diagram shows the survey on a sample of 1000 persons with reference to their knowledge of English, Hindi and Marathi. 105 people know………… languages.

A. Marathi, English
B. Hindi, Marathi, English
C. Marathi, Hindi
D. English, Hindi

195. In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

196. In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

For the following questions answer them individually

197. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate now it win appear when opened.

198. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9 A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘N’ can be represented by 02, 24 etc. and ‘Q’ can be represented by 56, 78 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘SPORTS’.

A. 67, 55, 31, 57, 69, 87
B. 58, 77, 20, 85, 79, 97
C. 24, 66, 40, 85, 89, 58
D. 87, 20, 23, 85, 75, 67

199. If a mirror is placed on the line XY then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

200. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded.

ANSWER KEY

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. D
11. C
12. C
13. C
14. A
15. D
16. A
17. D
18. A
19. C
20. B
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. A
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. A
31. D
32. B
33. B
34. A
35. D
36. D
37. B
38. D
39. A
40. A
41. A
42. D
43. C
44. B
45. D
46. A
47. A
48. A
49. B
50. A
51. B
52. B
53. A
54. B
55. C
56. D
57. B
58. B
59. A
60. B
61. D
62. B
63. C
64. D
65. B
66. A
67. B
68. D
69. A
70. A
71. B
72. B
73. C
74. C
75. B
76. A
77. A
78. B
79. A
80. C
81. B
82. C
83. D
84. A
85. B
86. C
87. C
88. D
89. D
90. C
91. A
92. A
93. C
94. C
95. B
96. C
97. B
98. D
99. D
100. A
101. A
102. D
103. B
104. A
105. B
106. A
107. B
108. C
109. C
110. D
111. A
112. C
113. D
114. B
115. D
116. A
117. B
118. B
119. D
120. A
121. B
122. B
123. B
124. B
125. A
126. A
127. B
128. A
129. D
130. D
131. C
132. D
133. A
134. D
135. B
136. A
137. A
138. A
139. C
140. A
141. A
142. C
143. D
144. B
145. A
146. A
147. C
148. B
149. B
150. D
151. B
152. C
153. B
154. D
155. A
156. A
157. A
158. D
159. D
160. A
161. A
162. C
163. B
164. B
165. D
166. A
167. A
168. D
169. D
170. D
171. C
172. B
173. A
174. A
175. C
176. C
177. A
178. B
179. A
180. A
181. A
182. C
183. D
184. A
185. D
186. D
187. C
188. D
189. D
190. D
191. D
192. D
193. D
194. A
195. B
196. C
197. B
198. A
199. C
200. D