2013 SSC CGL Tier 1
21 Apr Shift – 3
Question Paper with Answer Key


For the following questions answer them individually

1. Which of the following metals is used in Space Craft’s to withstand high temperatures?
A. Fe
B. Ti
C. Ni
D. Pb

2. Over use of resource is called “Tragedy of Commons”. It was propounded by:
A. Garett Hardin
B. Seligman
C. Adolph Wagner
D. A.P Lemier

3. ‘ National Youth Day” is marked on :
A. January 15
B. January 9
C. January 18
D. January 12

4. The highest altitude (4411 meters above sea level) is of:
A. Daocheng Yading Airport
B. Heathrow Airport
C. Kathmandu Airport
D. Bangala Airport

5. Which of the following is protected under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
A. Porcupine
B. Gerbil
C. Bandicoot rat
D. Squirrel

6. Brass gets discoloured in air due to constant exposure in presence of:
A. Aluminium phosphide
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Hydrogenated wafers
D. Aluminium sulphide

7. A NOT gate can be implemented by:
A. a single diode
B. two diodes
C. a single resistor
D. single transistor

8. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution declares “India that is Bharat” is a:
A. Union of States
B. Federal State with Unitary features
C. Unitary State with federal features
D. Federal State

9. Plantation of trees on a large scale to check soil erosion are called:
A. Shelter belts
B. Contour ploughing
C. Strip cropping
D. Afforestation

10. Persistence of vision is the Principle behind:
A. Binocular
B. Cinema
C. Periscope
D. Camera

11. Thinner particles responsible for deteriorating the air-quality resulting in the damage of vital body organs are referred as PM:
A. 15.5
B. 10.5
C. 2.5
D. 20.5

12. What is Milindapanho’?
A. Buddhist place
B. One of the names of Buddha
C. A Buddhist Specimen of Art
D. A Buddhist text

13. Of the following, in which did Napoleonic France suffer final defeat?
A. Battle of Trafalgar
B. Battle of Wag ram
C. Battle of Pyramids
D. Battle of Austerlitz

14. An example of protein which acts as a hormone is :
A. Trypsin
B. Oxytocin
C. Keratin
D. Casein

15. The fat of a common mussel-secretes a sticky glue that can be used to make heart implants. The unique chemical compound present in the glue is:
A. Amino phenyl alanine
B. Hydroxy phenyl alanine
C. Dihydroxy phenyl alanine
D. Phenyl alanine

16. Tick the correct option of GDP (Gross Domestic Product) contributed by sen/ice sector in the past:
A. During 2000-01 (GDP-65.54%)
B. During 1980 – 81 (GDP 50.00%)
C. During 1950 – 51 (GDP 34.63%)
D. During 2011 – 12 (GDP 57.00%)

17. Which was the first super computer purchased by India for medium range weather forecasting?
A. CrayXMP-14
B. Medha – 930
C. CDC Cyber 930-11
D. Param

18. The study of population is called :
A. Cartography
B. Anthropology
C. Demography
D. Biography

19. Well preferred tree fossil supposed to be from Jurassic Age in India is reported from:
A. Pithauragarh
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Ramgarh
D. Bahadurgarh

20. The primary producer in an ecosystem are;
A. Women
B. Men
C. Plants
D. Bacteria

21. The Vice-President is:
A. A member of Lok Sabha
B. A member of Rajya Sabha
C. A member of either House
D. Not a member of the Parliament

22. In <HR> , the HR stands for:
A. Heading Regulations
B. Happy Romulans
C. Horizontal Rule
D. Horizontal Rulers

23. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on :
A. Simon Commission
B. Lord Curzon Commission
C. Dimitrov Thesis
D. Lord Clive’s report

24. Some of the ingredients required for bread making are:
A. Maida and Yeast
B. Maida and Baking Powder
C. Maida and Baking Soda
D. Maida and Ghee

25. Which one of the following hormone is called “Emergency Hormone” ?
A. Adrenaline
B. Thyroxin
C. Vasopressin
D. Insulin

26. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is situated in :
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. New Delhi
C. Mangalore
D. Hyderabad

27. Who founded the Indian National Party in Berlin during 1914?
A. Subhash Chandra Bose
B. W.C. Banerjee
C. Surendranath Banerjee
D. Champakaraman Pillai

28. Malaria is transmitted from one person to another by:
A. Aedes Mosquito
B. Culex Mosquito
C. Anopheles Mosquito
D. All of the above

29. Who was the head of the 10th Finance Commission?
A. Manmohan Singh
B. Vasant Sathe
C. Shiv-Shankar
D. K.0 Pant

30. In India, Special Economic Zones were established to enhance:
A. Free trade
B. Foreign Investment
C. Employment
D. Technology Development

31. Salal is the hydro power project in:
A. Haryana
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Punjab

32. During Quit India Movement, Parallel Government’ was constituted at:
A. Varanasi
B. Allahabad
C. Lucknow
D. Ballia

33. Liver is a RICH source of:
A. Sugars
B. fat soluble vitamins
C. minerals
D. proteins

34. Cuscuta is a:
A. Saprophyte
B. Epiphyte
C. Xerophyte
D. Parasite

35. In the case of an inferior good, the income elasticity of demand is :
A. Zero
B. Negative
C. Infinite
D. Positive

36. Nitrogen is an essential constituent of all:
A. Fats
B. Proteins
C. Vitamins
D. Carbohydrates

37. The Sargasso sea is situated in the :
A. Atlantic Ocean
B. Pacific Ocean
C. Indian Ocean
D. Arctic Ocean

38. Who discovered electromagnetic nature of light?
A. Snell
B. Newton
C. Maxwell
D. Young

39. Judges of the district court are appointed by:
A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. Law Minister
D. President

40. The Poona Pact (1932) was an agreement between:
A. Nehru and Ambedkar
B. Gandhi and Ambedkar
C. Malaviya and Ambedkar
D. Gandhi and Nehru

41. Time of exposure required for taking photograph of an object depends upon the
A. brightness of the object
B. skill of photographer
C. proximity of object
D. size of the object

42. On which side did Japan fight in the First World War ?
A. none, it wag neutral
B. with Germany against United Kingdom
C. against Russia on its own
D. with United Kingdom against Germany

43. The First India-Africa Forum Summit was held during 2008 at:
A. New Delhi
B. Tana
C. Bangalore
D. Add is Ababa

44. In which year the planning commission was set-up ?
A. 1950
B. 1951
C. 1952
D. 1949

45. “Rainbow Coalition” is a term derived from the politics and policies of;
A. Pranab Mukherjee
B. Barack Obama
C. Mitt-Romney
D. B. Vajpayee

46. The layer of the atmosphere in which Radio Waves are reflected back is called;
A. Ionosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Exosphere

47. Who can impose reasonable restrictions over fundamental rights ?
A. Council of Ministers
B. Parliament
C. People
D. Cabinet

48. The number of eggs normally released during one menstrual cycle is:
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4

49. Who won the under 14 in the “World Youth Chess Championship 2012”?
A. N.Priyanka
B. Kimi Raikkonen
C. Scott Flemming
D. M. Mahalakshmi

50. The animal that do not develop hypertension in spite of heavy intake of salt is:
A. Sheep
B. Buffalo
C. Tiger
D. Camel


In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, your answer is d: i.e., No error.

51. Each one of you (a)/ must make up their mind (b)/ as I did. (c)/ No error (d).
A. Each one of you
B. must make up their mind
C. as I did
D. No error

52. Sudoku was first designed in the 1970s (a)/ by a retired architect (b)/ and freelance puzzle constructor, (c)/ No error (d).
A. Sudoku was first designed in the 1970s
B. by a retired architect
C. and freelance puzzle constructor
D. No error

53. During the last few years (a)/ the company works hard (b) / to modernise its image, (c)/ No error (d).
A. During the last few years
B. the company works hard
C. to modernise its image
D. No error

54. This stamp is only one (a)/ of the design (b)/ ever printed, (c)/ No error (d).
A. This stamp is only one
B. of the design
C. ever printed
D. No error

55. After he had apologised to the magistrate profusely (a)/ for having broke the promise (b)/ the magistrate was happy to forgive him. (c)/ No error (d).
A. After he had apologised to the magistrate profusely
B. for having broke the promise
C. the magistrate was happy to forgive him
D. No error

In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of-the four as your answer

56. What____? It____ wonderful.
A. is cooking, smell
B. is cooking, smelled
C. are you cooking, smelt
D. are you cooking, smells

57. We had____ money left, so we went out for a meal. We decided to abandon our trip as we had_____ money left.
A. a little, a little
B. little, a little
C. a few, few
D. a little, little

58. Please write to me______ this address.
A. Upon
B. at
C. to
D. on

59. I hate him for the simple reason that he keeps singing his own praises continually talking about himself. He is an irritating_____ He is a real_____ because for anything he does he always expects something in return, a selfish person indeed.
A. Poser, Misanthrope
B. Poser, Egotist
C. Egoist Misanthrope
D. Egotist. Egoist

60. On Tuesday it’s the carnival,______ everybody gets dressed up in a fancy costume. So we will meet at John’s house,____ is about a couple of kilometres away.
A. which, where
B. where, when
C. when, where
D. when, which

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word as your

61. Ingenuous
A. innocent
B. artful
C. cunning
D. clever

62. Innocuous
A. careless
B. harmless
C. insufficient
D. irresponsible

63. Insolent
A. disrespectful
B. insoluble
C. depreciating
D. the sole of a shoe

In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word as your answer

64. Overt
A. Open
B. Complete
C. Hidden
D. culvert

65. Diffidence
A. self-assurance
B. expansiveness
C. shyness
D. sharpness

66. Amateur
A. novice
B. professional
C. lover
D. apprentices

In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase printed in bold in the sentence, Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

67. He is known for blowing his own trumpet.
A. Clattering
B. Shouting
C. clamouring
D. boasting

68. He cut the Gordian knot by practising what he preached.
A. lessened the difficulty
B. let the difficulty remain as it was
C. removed the difficulty
D. add to the difficulty

69. He took a leap in the dark with his latest investment in stocks,
A. took a risk
B. was hesitant
C. was confused
D. was cocksure

70. Communicative English is the Achilles’ heel for the job aspirants.
A. weak spot
B. source of strength
C. what they cherish most
D. top priority

71. He is leaving the USA for good.
A. Urgently
B. permanently
C. temporarily
D. immediately

In the following questions, a sentence/ part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold sentence/part of the sentence at a), b) and c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is d).

72. They left the hotel by car where they had been staying.
A. They left the hotel where they had been staying by car.
B. They left where they were staying in a hotel by car.
C. In a car they left where they were staying in a hotel
D. No improvement

73. Will you lend me few rupees in this hour of need?
A. lend me a little rupees
B. borrow me a few rupees
C. lend me a few rupees
D. No improvement

74. Five years ago today, I am sitting in a small Japanese car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.
A. was sitting
B. sat
C. have been sitting
D. No improvement

75. He could not look anything in the dark room.
A. look at
B. see
C. see through
D. No improvement

76. No one could explain how a calm and balanced person like him could penetrate such a mindless act on his friends.
A. perpetuate
B. perpetrate
C. precipitate
D. No improvement

77. Anyone who would speak with authority on the poets of the Renaissance must have a broad acquaintance with the writers of classical antiquity.
A. Anyone who will speak
B. If one would speak
C. Anyone desirous for speaking
D. No improvement

78. He found a wooden broken chair in the room,
A. wooden and broken chair
B. broken wooden chair
C. broken and wooden chair
D. No improvement

79. The starving and crawling people in the television programme looked more like beasts than tiring creatures.
A. Posed
B. resembled
C. seemed
D. No improvement

80. I took the cycle which he bought yesterday.
A. that he bought yesterday.
B. which he had bought yesterday.
C. that he has bought yesterday.
D. No improvement

81. Having only a few hours left, she wondered as she would finish the assignment.
A. that if
B. that
C. whether
D. No improvement

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

82. A person who readily believes others.
A. Credible
B. Credulous
C. Sensitive
D. Sensible

83. The political leader has an evil reputation. He is not trusted.
A. is notorious
B. is malicious
C. is magnanimous
D. is dubious

84. A person who helps even a stranger in difficulty
A. Samaritan
B. Altruist
C. Philanthropist
D. beneficiary

85. Politicians are notorious for doing undue favour to their relatives.
A. Pluralism
B. Nepotism
C. Dualism
D. Polarism

86. The production of raw silk.
A. sericulture
B. seroculture
C. sariculture
D. syrumculture

87. Meaningless language with an exaggerated style intended to impress.
A. Orator
B. Public speaking
C. Verbalization
D. Rhetoric

88. The conference takes place once in three years.
A. Tetraenning
B. triennial
C. triennial
D. thriennnial

In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word as your answer.

A. Perjary
B. Perjury
C. Parjury
D. Perjery

A. Hetrogenous
B. Heterogineous
C. Heteroganeous
D. heterogeneous

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
The Bengal Renaissance refers to a social reform movement during the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries in the region of Bengal in Undivided India during the period of British rule. The Bengal renaissance can be said to have started with Raja Ram Mohan Roy (1775-1833) and ended with Rabindranath Tagore (1861-1941). although there have been many stalwarts thereafter embodying particular aspects of the unique intellectual and creative output. Nineteenth century Bengal was a unique blend of religious and social reformers, scholars, literary giants, journalists, patriotic orators and scientists, all merging to form the image of a renaissance, and marked the transition from the ‘medieval’ to the ‘modern’. During this period, Bengal witnessed an intellectual awakening that is in some way similar to the European Renaissance during the 16th century, although Europeans of that age were not confronted with the challenge and influence of alien colonialism. This movement questioned existing orthodoxies, particularly with respect to women, marriage, the dowry system, the caste system andreligion. One of the earliest social movements that emerged during this time was the Young Bengal movement, that espoused rationalism and atheism as the common denominators of civil conduct among upper caste educated Hindus. The parallel socio- religious movement, the Brahmo Samaj, developed during this time period and counted many of the leaders of the Bengal Renaissance among its followers.

91. Find the option that is opposite in meaning to alien.
A. Disputable
B. Indigenous
C. Unethical
D. unscientific

92. The Bengal Renaissance was different from the 16th century European Renaissance because:
A. Europeans did not have the dowry system.
B. Raja Rammohan Roy and Tagore were not born in the 16th century.
C. The Bengal Renaissance was an essentially Hindu Movement.
D. Unlike the Bengalis, Europeans were not under foreign rule.

93. “The spirit” of Renaissance:
A. is to embrace atheism
B. is to get inspiration from Western-intellectual thought
C. lies in breaking all shackles of backwardness and narrow mindedness
D. is essentially scientific

94. The Bengal Renaissance movement:
A. wanted to overthrow colonialism
B. wanted to propagate Brahmoism
C. wanted social reform to improve the lot of the weak and the downtrodden
D. none of the above

95. The Bengal Renaissance gathered momentum in the 19th century because:
A. the British had colonised India
B. there was an abundance of intellectual and creative activities in Bengal then.
C. the Brahmo Samai was formed
D. Raja Rammohan Roy and Tagore lived at that time

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
“I must find a hiding place,” he thought, “and in the next few seconds or 1 am done for.” Scarcely had the thought crossed his mind that the lane took a sudden turning so that he found himself hidden from his pursuers. There are circumstances in which the least energetic of mankind learn to act with speed and decision. This was such an occasion for Rehmat Ali and those who knew him best would have been the most aston fished at the lad’s boldness. He stopped dead, threw the box or jewellery over a garden wall and, leaping upwards with incredible lightness, he seized the top of the walls with his hands and tumbled headlong into the garden.

96. Rehmat Ali is most likely :
A. a burglar
B. a policeman
C. a night watchman
D. a jogger

97. What kind of a person was Rehmat Ali originally?
A. slow and steady
B. lazy and indecisive
C. reflective in nature
D. bold and decisive

98. The expression “to stop dead’ means:
A. to be paralysed
B. to come to a complete halt
C. to die suddenly
D. be close to death

99. Rehmat All found himself hidden from his pursuers because:
A. he had gone around an unexpected bend
B. his pursuers could not run fast enough
C. he had stopped dead
D. he had acted with speed and decision

100. There are circumstances in which the least energetic of mankind, learn to act with speed and decision, and the most cautious forget their care’, Rehmat illustrates this by:
A. running away from his pursuers
B. by stopping dead
C. turning into a lane
D. jumping into the garden


For the following questions answer them individually

101. lf (3/4)^3(4/3) ^-7 = (3/4)^2x then x is
A. -2
B. 2
C. 5
D. 2.5

102. Three numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. by adding 5 to each of them, the new numbers are in the ratio 2:3:4. The numbers are:
A. 10, 20, 30
B. 15,30,45
C. 1,2,3
D. 5, 10, 15

103. If a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + 3 = 2(a – b – c), then the value of 2a – b + c is :
A. 3
B. 4
C. 0
D. 2

104. A man buys 3 cows and 8 goats in 47,200. Instead if he would have bought 8 cows and 3 goats, he had to pay 53,000 more. Cost of one cow is
A. 11,000
B. 12,000
C. 13,000
D. 10,000

105. A chord of length 30 cm is at a distance of 8 cm from the centre of a circle. The radius of the circle is:
A. 17
B. 23
C. 21
D. 19

106. Number of digits in the square root of 62478078 is:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 3

107. The ratio of in radius and circum radius of a square is :
A. 1 : √2
B. √2 : √3
C. 1:3
D. 1:2

108. Out of 10 teachers of a school, one teacher retires and in his place, a new teacher of age 25 years joins. As a result, average age of teachers is reduced by 3 years. The age (in years) of the retired teacher is:
A. 58
B. 60
C. 55
D. 50

109. Evaluate: tan 10 tan 2° tan 3°…………… tan 89°
A. 1
B. -1
C. 2
D. 0

110. Equation of the straight line parallel to x-axis and also 3 units below x-axis is :
A. x = – 3
B. y = 3
C. y = -3
D. x = 3

111. P and Q are two points on a circle with centre at O. R is a point on the minor arc of the circle, between the points P and Q. The tangents to the circle at the points P and Q meet each other at the point S. If ∠PSQ = 20°, ∠PRQ =?
A. 80°
B. 200°
C. 160°
D. 100°

112. The value of a machine depreciates every year by 10%. If its present value is 50,000 then the value of the machine after 2 years is
A. 40,050
B. 45,000
C. 40,005
D. 40,500

113. In a triangle ABC, AB = AC, ∠BAC = 40° Then the external angle at B is :
A. 90°
B. 70°
C. 110°
D. 80°

114. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 5 days. B worked for 2 days and left the job. In how many days, A alone can finish the remaining work?
A. 10.8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 8

115. A man can swim 3 km/hr. in still water. If the velocity of the stream is 2 km/hr., the time taken by him to swim to a place 10 km upstream and back is :
A. 9 1/3 hr
B. 10 hr
C. 12 hr
D. 8 1/3

116. It 10 men or 20 women or 40 children can do a piece of work in 7 months, then 5 men, 5 women and 5 children together can do half of the work in :
A. 6 months
B. 4 months
C. 5 months
D. 8 months

117. The value of cos 1° cos 2° cos 3°……… cos 177° cos 178° cos 179° is :
A. 0
B. ½
C. 1
D. 1/√2

118. If p – 2q = 4, then the value of p^3 – 8q^3 – 24pq – 64 is :
A. 2
B. 0
C. 3
D. -1

119. If sin Ө + cosec Ө = 2, then the value of sin^2 Ө + cosecs^2Ө is :
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1

120. A shopkeeper marks the price of an article at 80. What will be the selling price, if he allows two successive discounts at 5% each?
A. 72.2
B. 72
C. 85
D. 7.2

121. Which of the following successive discounts is better to a customer
(a) 20%, 15%. 10% or
(b) 25%, 12%, 8%?
A. (a) is better
B. (b) is better
C. (a) or (b) (both are same)
D. None of these

122. ABC is an isosceles triangle such that AB = AC and ∠B = 35°. AD is the median to the base BC. Then ∠BAD is:
A. 70°
B. 35°
C. 110°
D. 55°

123. The degree measure of 1 radian π = 22/7 is
A. 57°60’22” (approx.)
B. 57°16’22” (approx.)
C. 57°21’16” (approx.)
D. 57°22-16” (approx.)

124. A train moving at a rate of 36 km/hr. crosses a standing man in 10 seconds. It will cross a platform 55 metres long, in:
A. 6 seconds
B. 7 seconds
C. 15 1/2 seconds
D. 5 1/2 seconds

125. If (n^2 -tn + 1/4) be a perfect square then the value of t are:
A. ± 2
B. 1,2
C. 2,3
D. ± 1

126. x/a = 1/a – 1/x then of x-x^2 is
A. –a
B. 1/a
C. -1/a
D. a

127. If ΔABC is similar to ΔDEF such that BC = 3 cm, EF = 4 cm and area of ΔABC = 54 cm^2 ,
A. 66 sq. cm
B. 78 sq. cm
C. 96 sq. cm
D. 54 sq. cm

128. On selling an article for! 170, a shopkeeper loses 15%. In order to gain 20%, he must sell that article at rupees:
A. 215.50
B. 212.50
C. 240
D. 210

129. The time in which 80,000 amounts to 92,610 at 10% p.a. at compound interest, interest being compounded semi annually is:
A. 1.5 years
B. 2 years
C. 2.5 years
D. 3 years

130. If ABCD be a rectangle and P,Q,R,S be the mid points of AB, BC, CD, and DA respectively,, then the area of the quadrilateral PQRS is equal to:
A. area (ABCD)
B. 1/3 area (ABCD)
C. ¾ area (ABCD)
D. ½ area (ABCD)

131. AB and CD are two parallel chords of a circle such that AB = 10 cm and CD = 24 cm. If the chords are on the opposite sides of the centre and distance between them is 17 cm, then the radius of the circle is
A. 11 cm
B. 12 cm
C. 13 cm
D. 10 cm

132. The average of 50 numbers is 38. If two numbers namely 45 and 55 are discarded, the average of the remaining numbers is :
A. 35
B. 32.5
C. 37.5
D. 36

133. If x/x^2-2x+1 = 1/3 then the value of x^3 + 1/x^3 is
A. 81
B. 110
C. 125
D. 27

134. The marked price of a mixie is 1600, The shopkeeper gives successive discounts of Question 10% and x% to the customer. If the customer pays 1224 for the mixie, find the value of x
A. 10%
B. 12%
C. 15%
D. 8%

135. ‘Given A is 50% larger than C and B is 25% larger than C, then A is what percent larger than B?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 20%

136. A chord AB of a circle C1 of radius (√3 + 1) cm touches a circle C which is concentric to C. If the radius of C is (√3 -1) cm., the length of AB is :
A. 2√3 cm
B. 8√3 cm
C. 4 4√3 cm
D. 4√3

137. If (x + 1/x) =4 then the value of x^4 + 1/x^4 is
A. 64
B. 194
C. 81
D. 124

138. The perimeter of the base of a right circular cone is 8 cm. If the height of the cone is 21 cm, then its volume is:
A. 108π cm^3
B. 112/π cm^3
C. 112π cm^3
D. 108/π cm^3

139. A circular road runs around a circular ground. If the difference between the circumferences of the outer circle and the inner circle is 66 metres, the width of the road is:
A. 10.5 metres
B. 7 metres
C. 5.25 metres
D. 21 metres

140. If sec Ө + tan Ө = 2 + √5, then the value of sin Ө + cos Ө is :
A. 3/√5
B. √5
C. 7/√5
D. 1/√5

141. The value of (sin^2 25° + sin^5 65°) is :
A. √3/2
B. 1
C. 0
D. 2/√3

142. The angle of elevation of a tower from a distance 100 m from its foot is 30°. Height of the tower is :
A. 100/√3 m
B. 50√3 m
C. 200/√3 m
D. 100√3 m

143. A man undertakes to do a certain work in 150 days. He employs 200 men. He finds that only a quarter of the work is done in 50 days. The number of additional men that should be appointed so that the whole work will be finished in time is :
A. 75
B. 100
C. 125
D. 50

In the following questions, the pie-chart shows the number of students admitted in different faculties of a college. Study the chart and answer the questions.

144. How many students are more in commerce than in law if 1000 students are in science?
A. 200
B. 2000
C. 500
D. 20

In the following questions, the pie-chart shows the number of students admitted in different faculties of a college. Study the chart and answer the questions.

145. If 1000 students are admitted in science, what is the ratio of students in science and arts?
A. 6:5
B. 7:5
C. 7:6
D. 5:6

In the following questions, the pie-chart shows the number of students admitted in different faculties of a college. Study the chart and answer the questions.

146. If 1000 students are admitted in science, what is the total number of students?
A. 180
B. 1800
C. 3600
D. 360

In the following questions, study the two pie-charts and answer the questions April month’s salary: 24000

147. What is the percent increase in Education in May month than April month?
A. 9.56%
B. 12.35%
C. 20%
D. 10.82%

In the following questions, study the two pie-charts and answer the questions April month’s salary: 24000

148. The ratio of amount spent for savings in April month’s salary and miscellaneous in May month’s salary is :
A. 216 : 25
B. 217 : 26
C. 205: 13
D. 235 : 50

In the following questions, study the two pie-charts and answer the questions April month’s salary: 24000

149. From the salary of May, the amount spent on Grocery and Electricity are:
A. 6250,3360
B. 960,5040
C. 3500, 2250
D. 2160, 480

In the following questions, study the two pie-charts and answer the questions April month’s salary: 24000

150. The average amount spent on Education, Grocery and Savings from April month’s salary is
A. 5800
B. 6000
C. 6325
D. 5520


In the following questions, select the related letter/word from the given alternatives:

151. A_E : R_V :: B_F : F_J

152. Horse : Neigh :: Bells : ?
A. Chime
B. Rustle
C. Roar
D. Beat

153. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
a_ bba_ bba_ bb
A. Aab
B. abb
C. bbb
D. bba

In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.


155. 5,13,29,61,125,?
A. 253
B. 196
C. 245
D. 145

156. AZ, CX, EV, GT, ? , KP, ?
A. IR and NM
B. Rl and MN
C. Rl and NM
D. IR and MN


158. 61,52,63, 94,46?
A. 19
B. 18
C. 17
D. None

159. EFA, GHC, IJE, ? .

160. P 3 C, R 5 F, T8I, V12 L. ?
A. X17M
B. X17O
C. Y170
D. X160

161. NP MK RT IG ? .

162. 1 3, 10, ? 100, 1003, 1000, 10003.
A. 1030
B. 1130
C. 103
D. 130


A. 56907
B. 45096
C. 45906
D. 47095

164. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number from the given alternatives.
A. Yellow Orange
B. Red Yellow
C. Red Orange
D. Yellow Green

165. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number from the given alternatives.
27, 125, 216,343
A. 125
B. 216
C. 343
D. 27

166. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number from the given alternatives.
A. Pound (Sterling)
B. Deutsche Mark
C. Franc
D. Yen

167. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number from the given alternatives.
A. Firm
B. grave
C. agreeable
D. fastidious

168. What is the least number to be subtracted from 2486 to make it a perfect square
A. 85
B. 90
C. 95
D. 80

169. Shiela and Belah start from their office and walk in opposite direction each travelling 10 kms. Shiela then turns left and walks 10 kms. Belah turns right and walks 10 km. How far are they now from each other?
A. 10 km
B. 5 km
C. 81km
D. 20 km

170. Roshan is taller than Hardik who is shorter than Susheel. Niza is taller than Harty but shorter than Hardik. Susheel is shorter than Roshan. Who is the tallest?
A. Susheel
B. Hardik
C. Harry
D. Roshan

In each of the following questions, from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.




174. In the following question, the number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is successive even numbers. Which of the following series observes this rule?

175. If x stands for addition, < for subtraction, + stands for division, > stands for multiplication, – stands for equation, ÷ stands for greater than, and = stands for less than, state which of the following is true?
A. 5 >8+ 4 = 10 <4 x 8
B. 3 x 4 >2-9 +3 <3
C. 5 x 3 <3 ÷ 8 + 4 x1
D. 3 x 2 < 4 ÷16 >2+4

176. In a question paper, there are 12 questions in all out of which only six are to be answered. Six questions have an alternative each. Each question has four parts. How many questions including parts are there in the question paper?
A. 48
B. 72
C. 96
D. 24

177. If MOBILE is written as ZAMSUM, how TUMOR can be written in that code?

178. If 55 + 66 = 33 and 22 + 99 = 33, what is 44 + 88 ?
A. 36
B. 38
C. 40
D. 33

179. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.
3917, 3526, ? , 2857
A. 3174
B. 3389
C. 2682
D. 3082

180. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 22
B. 17
C. 14
D. 21

181. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 94
B. 84
C. 42
D. 82

182. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.
A. 122
B. 217
C. 221
D. 115

183. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 6
B. 9
C. 4
D. 3

184. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 49
B. 64
C. 81
D. 71

185. Pipe A can fill a tank completely in 5 hours. However, on account of a leak at the tank, it takes 3 more hours to fill the tank. How long will the leak take to empty the full tank when pipe A is closed/shut?
A. 7.5 hours
B. 14 hours 40 minutes
C. 12 hours 20 minutes
D. 13 hours 20 minutes

186. A and B both are walking away from point ‘X. A walked 3 m and B walked 4 m from it, then A walked 4 m north of X and B walked 5 m south of A. What is the distance between them now?
A. 9.5 m
B. 9 m
C. 16 m
D. 11. 40 m

In each of the following questions, one/two statements are given followed 1y two/three conclusions I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

187. Statement:
(I) All cities are towns.
(II) Some cities are villages.
Conclusions :
(I) All villages are towns.
(II) No village is a town.
(III) Some villages are towns.
A. Only conclusion (III) follows
B. Only conclusion a: follows
C. Only conclusion (II) follows
D. None of these

188. Statement: Sun is the source of light.
Conclusions :
(I) Moon is not the source of light.
(II) Light has only one source.
A. Only conclusion (I) follows
B. Only conclusion (II) follows
C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows



191. In each of the following questions, which answer figure will complete the question figure?

192. Which one of the following box can be created by folding the given key design?

193. Which figure represent the relationship among Sun, Moon, Molecule ?

194. Choose from the following diagrams a), b), c) and d) the one that illustrates the relationship among three given classes :
North America, United States of America, New York

195. How many circles are there in the following figure?

A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 11

196. Three views of the same cube are given. All the faces of the cube are numbered from 1 to 6. Select one figure which will result when the cube is unfolded.

197. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the matrix given below. The columns and rows of Matrix are numbered from 0 to 6. A letter from the matrix can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e,g., ‘A’ can be represented by 42, 62, etc. and ‘P’ can be represented by 15, 43, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘CALM’.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

198. A piece of paper is folded, and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures indicate how it will appear when opened.

199. Which answer figure includes all the components given in the question figure?

200. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure:


1. B
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. D
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. D
16. D
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. C
23. A
24. A
25. A
26. D
27. D
28. C
29. D
30. B
31. B
32. D
33. D
34. D
35. B
36. B
37. A
38. C
39. A
40. B
41. A
42. D
43. A
44. A
45. B
46. A
47. B
48. C
49. D
50. D
51. B
52. D
53. B
54. B
55. B
56. D
57. D
58. B
59. D
60. D
61. A
62. B
63. A
64. C
65. A
66. B
67. D
68. A
69. A
70. A
71. B
72. D
73. C
74. A
75. B
76. B
77. D
78. B
79. B
80. B
81. B
82. B
83. D
84. A
85. B
86. A
87. D
88. B
89. B
90. D
91. B
92. D
93. C
94. C
95. B
96. A
97. B
98. B
99. A
100. D
101. C
102. D
103. D
104. B
105. A
106. A
107. A
108. C
109. A
110. C
111. D
112. D
113. C
114. A
115. C
116. B
117. A
118. B
119. B
120. A
121. B
122. D
123. B
124. C
125. D
126. D
127. C
128. C
129. A
130. D
131. C
132. C
133. B
134. C
135. D
136. A
137. B
138. B
139. A
140. A
141. B
142. A
143. B
144. A
145. D
146. C
147. D
148. A
149. C
150. D
151. D
152. A
153. C
154. C
155. A
156. D
157. C
158. B
159. B
160. B
161. D
162. C
163. C
164. B
165. B
166. C
167. C
168. A
169. D
170. D
171. D
172. C
173. C
174. B
175. A
176. B
177. B
178. A
179. A
180. B
181. A
182. B
183. A
184. A
185. D
186. C
187. A
188. D
189. D
190. B
191. A
192. D
193. C
194. A
195. B
196. D
197. D
198. C
199. D
200. B