2014 SSC CGL Tier 1
19 Oct Shift – 2
Question Paper with Answer Key
PART – A GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING
In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
1. Demographer: People :: Philatelist: ?
A. Fossils
B. Stamps
C. Photography
D. Music
2. RIAHC : CHAIR :: OGNAM : ?
A. OGNMA
B. TANGO
C. MANGO
D. ANGMO
3. PNS : OOT : DBH : ?
A. PPI
B. BBI
C. CCI
D. DDB
4. 91 : ? :: 64 : 54
A. 63
B. 101
C. 32
D. 70
5. 2/3 : 19/29 :: 8/7 ?
A. 89/79
B. 79/79
C. 79/69
D. 80/70
6. Sepal: Flower::
A. Foot: Ball
B. Tyre: Bicycle
C. Puppy : Dog
D. Sandals : Shoes
7. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Screw driver
B. Spanner
C. Plier
D. Knife
8. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. HCBG
B. LPOK
C. FMEL
D. RJIQ
9. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. AZBY
B. CXDW
C. EVFU
D. TGSH
10. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 101
B. 212
C. 326
D. 111
11. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 12-144
B. 13- 156
C. 15- 180
D. 16-176
12. In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Paris
B. Athens
C. London
D. New York
For the following questions answer them individually
13. Which one of following responses would be a meaningful order of the following ?
1. Chapter
2. Index
3. Bibliography
4. Introduction
5. Preface
A. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
B. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
C. 5, 2, 4, 1,3
D. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
14. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary:
1. Recollect
2. Remember
3. Report
4. Repeat
5. Repeal
A. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
B. 3, 2, 1,4, 5
C. 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
D. 1,2, 5, 4, 3
In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
15. TMJ.QNL, NON, KPP_____?
A. JQR
B. HQR
C. HQQ
D. IQS
16. A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXYZ
A. LMNP
B. MNOL
C. NOPL
D. MNOP
In each of the following questions, find out the wrong number in the series?
17. 27, 81, 1331, 125
A. 125
B. 27
C. 1331
D. 81
18. 17, 23, 31, 41, 53, 69
A. 23
B. 31
C. 41
D. 69
For the following questions answer them individually
19. The ratio of the number of girls to the number of boys in a town is 90%. If the total number of boys and girls in the town is 190, how many girls are in the town?
A. 100
B. 110
C. 90
D. 80
20. Two buses start at the same time from Delhi and Agra, which are 300 km. apart, towards each other. After what time will they cross each other if their speeds are 38 km per hour and 37 km per hour?
A. 4 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 6 hours
21. A card-board box contains 12 pairs each of three different types of hand gloves used by batsman in Cricket. They are separated into single units of gloves and all mixed. You cannot see the gloves from outside, but you can put your hands through the pigeon hole and take out one glove at a time. What will be the minimum number of gloves one should take out to get one perfect pair of gloves to be sure?
A. 3
B. 13
C. 25
D. 37
In each of the following questions, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
22. PROVINCIALISM
A. SAILOR
B. NAIL
C. MAN
D. INITIAL
23. DEPARTMENT
A. ENTER
B. PARENT
C. TEMPER
D. PARADE
24. UNCONTAMINATED
A. MINE
B. NATION
C. CONNOTE
D. TANDEM
For the following questions answer them individually
25. In a certain language PROSE is coded as PPOQE. How will LIGHT be coded ?
A. LIGFT
B. LGGHT
C. LLGFE
D. LGGFT
26. If ‘Development’ is written as Tnemdevelop’ then ‘Evaluation’ will be written as
A. Notiaevalu
B. Noitaulave
C. Notievalua
D. Noitevalua
27. If H = 8 and HAT = 29, find how much BOX = ?
A. 46
B. 43
C. 42
D. 41
28. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct?
64 – 8 x 9 x 8 = 64
A. + and –
B. ÷ and x
C. – and x
D. None of these
29. If + stands for division; x stands for addition; – stands for multiplication; + stands for subtraction, which of the following is correct ?
(a) 15 ÷ 5 x2-6 + 3 = 28
(b) 15 x 5 + 2- 6 ÷ 3 = 56.5
(c) 15 + 5-2 ÷ 6 x3 = 3
(d) 15-5 + 2 x6 ÷ 3 = 41
A. c
B. a
C. b
D. d
30. Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain operation. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis. If 73 * 17 = 45 and 68 * 40 = 54. then 83 * 15
A. 49
B. 64
C. 69
D. 79
31. If 7 x 8 = 49, 4 x 4 = 12 and 6 x 4 = 18, what will 9 x 6 be ?
A. 54
B. 50
C. 45
D. None of the above
32. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses
A. 17
B. 18
C. 19
D. 21
33. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses
A. 10
B. 25
C. 30
D. 40
34. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
For the following questions answer them individually
35. A is located to the West of B. C is located at North in between A and B. D is exactly to the South of B and also in line with B. In which direction of C is D located?
A. South
B. South- East
C. West
D. South-West
36. Deepak walks 20 metres towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns left and walks 20 metres. Further he moves 20 metres after turning to the right. How far is he from his original position?
A. 20 mts.
B. 60 mts.
C. 50 mts.
D. 30 mts.
In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by conclusions / inferences. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions /inferences can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate your answer.
37. Statements:
(I) Some students are intelligent.
(II) Ankita is a student.
Conclusions :
1. Some students are dull.
2. Ankita is an intelligent.
A. Only 1 follows
B. Only 1 and 2 follow
C. Only 2 follows
D. None follows
38. Statements :
A. All the watches sold in that shop are made of white metal.
B. Some of Rico watches are sold in that shop.
Inferences :
1. All watches of white metals are manufactured by Rico.
2. Some of Rico watches are of white metal.
3. None of Rico watches are of white metal.
4. Some of Rico watches of white metal are sold in that shop.
A. 1 and 2 inferences only
B. 2 and 4 inferences only
C. 1 and 3 inferences only
D. 1 and 4 inferences only
39. Identify the Answer Figure from which the pieces given in the Question Figure have been cut.
40. Which among the answer figures can be constructed from the parts given in question figure?
41. Which among the answer figures can be constructed from the parts given in question figure?
42. Which of the following number is present only in the circle and the triangle ?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
43. Which one of the following diagrams represents the correct relationship among society, teacher and student ?
44. Find out the number of all those people who can speak Tamil or Telugu?
A. 3
B. 59
C. 21
D. 112
45. In each of the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
46. In each of the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
For the following questions answer them individually
47. From the given answer figures select the figure which is hidden/embedded in the question figure.
48. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
49. Which of the answer figure is exactly mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at XY?
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘D’ can be represented by 11, 25, etc., and ‘J’ can be represented by 67, 78, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the given word. “MILK”
A. 98, 66, 79, 77
B. 98, 79, 77, 86
C. 98, 86, 77, 99
D. 86, 77, 99, 98
PART – B GENERAL AWARENESS
51. If the average revenue is a horizontal straight line, marginal revenue will be
A. U shaped
B. Kinked
C. Identical with average revenue
D. L shaped
52. The hypothesis that rapid growth of per capita income will be associated with a reduction in poverty is called
A. trickle down Hypothesis
B. trickle up hypothesis
C. U shaped hypothesis
D. poverty estimation hypothesis
53. According to Keynes, business cycles are due to variation in the rate of investment caused by fluctuations , in the
A. Marginal efficiency of capital
B. Marginal propensity to save
C. Marginal propensity to consumption
D. Marginal efficiency to investment
54. The main emphasis of Keynesian economics is on
A. Expenditure
B. Exchange o
C. Foreign trade
D. Taxation
55. The main feature of the Federal State is
A. Decentralisation
B. Centralisation
C. Theory of separation of powers
D. Sovereignty
56. Public opinion is
A. The opinion of the majority
B. The opinion of the people on political matters
C. Opinion of the citizens of the country
D. The opinion based on reasoning which is for the welfare of the whole society
57. In India the largest single item of current government expenditure is
A. Defence Expenditure
B. Interest payment of debt
C. Payment of subsidies
D. Investment in social overheads
58. The demand of a factor of production is
A. Direct
B. derived
C. neutral
D. discretion of the producer
59. The first woman to preside over the UN General Assembly:
A. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
B. Vijaylakshmi Pandit
C. Karnla Nehru
D. Indira Gandhi
60. Pancha siddhantharn of Varaha inihira deals with
A. Astrology
B. Astronomy
C. Medicine
D. Anatomy
61. Which one of the following coins was issued in silver during the Gupta period ?
A. Kakini
B. Nishka
C. Rupyaka
D. Dinar
62. Lothal, the dockyard site of the Indus Valley Civilization, is situated in
A. Gujarat
B. Punjab
C. Pakistan
D. Haryana
63. Who among the Delhi Sultans died of a sudden fall from a horse at Lahore while playing Chaugan ?
A. Qutbuddin Aibak
B. II tu trni sh
C. Balban
D. Jalaluddin Khilji
64. Buddha means
A. Great Conqueror
B. Great Saint
C. Wise one
D. Enlightened one
65. Which one of the following is an item included in the list of Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen in the Constitution ?
A. To practice secularism.
B. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform.
C. To pay all taxes to government regularly and correctly.
D. Not to assault any public servant in the (during) performance of his duties.
66. Where is the headquarters of Hindustan Zinc Ltd ?
A. Udaipur
B. Jodhpur
C. Jaisalmer
D. Jaipur
67. Leaving agricultural land uncultivated for some years known as
A. Intensive farming
B. Fallowing
C. Shifting cultivation
D. Subsistence fanning
68. The sky appears blue due to
A. Rayleigh scattering
B. Mie scattering
C. Back scattering
D. None of the above
69. The mountain formed on the earth crust due to tension is called
A. Young folded mountain
B. Old folded mountain
C. Laccoliths mountain
D. Block mountain
70. Movement of hairs in Drosera is referred to as
A. Heliotropism
B. Thigmotropism
C. Photonastic
D. Seismonastic
71. Which of the following is an example of parasitic alga ?
A. Ulothrix
B. Cephaleuros
C. Oedogonium
D. Sargassum
72. Solitary cymose inflorescence is observed in
A. Rose
B. Chinarose
C. Tuberose
D. Gardenia
73. The excretory aperture in Paramoecium is known as
A. Cytopharynx
B. Cytostome
C. Cytopyge
D. Cryptospere
74. IVF (In Vitro Fertilization) Technique was first devised by
A. Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards
B. Dr. Henry Dixon
C. Robertson
D. Dr. Martin Cooper
75. What is ‘Biodiversity’?
A. Many types of flora & fauna in one forest
B. Many types of flora and fauna in many forests
C. Many population of one species in one forest
D. All the above are true.
76. A particle is moving in a uniform circular motion with constant speed v along a circle of radius r. The acceleration-of the particle is
A. Zero
B. V/r
C. V/r2
D. V2/r
77. Which of the following devices can be used to detect radiant heat ?
A. Liquid thermometer
B. Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer
C. Constant volume air ther – mometer
D. Thermopile
78. In which One of the following the phenomenon of total internal reflection of light is used?
A. Formation of mirage
B. Working of binoculars
C. Formation of rainbow
D. Twinkling of stars
79. Period of oscillation of 3 cm microwaves in seconds is
A. 1 x 10 10
B. 1×10-10
C. 0.01
D. 0.001
80. The most advanced form Of Read Only Memory (ROM) is
A. PROM
B. RAM
C. Cache Memory
D. EEPROM
81. A computer program that translates one program instruction one at a time into machine language is called a/ an
A. Interpreter
B. Compiler
C. Simulator
D. Commander
82. Which of the following is very reactive and kept in kerosene?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Iodine
D. Bromine
83. Just born baby has the respiratory rate as
A. 32 times/minute
B. 26 times/minute
C. 18 times/minute
D. 15 times/minute
84. In the periodic table of elements, on moving from left to right across a period, the atomic radius
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains unchanged
D. does not follow a definite pattern
85. Vulcanized rubber contains sulphur
A. 2%
B. 3-5%
C. 7-9%
D. 10-15%
86. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous wastes in
A. Frogs
B. Birds
C. Fishes
D. Mankind
87. To conserve coral reefs, the Government of India declared one of the following as Marine Park.
A. Gulf of Kutch
B. Lakshadweep Islands
C. Gulf of Mannar
D. Andaman Islands
88. The special modified epidermal cells surrounding stomatal pore are called
A. Epithelial cells
B. Guard cells
C. Subsidiary cells
D. Accessory cells
89. Transpiration through leaves is called as
A. Cauline transpiration
B. Foliar transpiration
C. Cuticular transpiration
D. Lenticular transpiration
90. Who is the brand ambassador of Nokia Phones in India ?
A. Shah Rukh Khan
B. Aamir Khan
C. Abhishek Bachchan
D. M.S. Dhoni
91. Which of the following is a metallic ore ?
A. Mica
B. Quartz
C. Feldspar
D. Galena
92. ‘Canterbury’, the premium Indian brand of woollen cardigans and pullovers is from the house of
A. Monte-Carlo
B. Woodland
C. Digjam
D. OCM
93. Lionel Messi, the winner of four FIFA Ballion d’ or and World Player of the year, belongs to
A. Brazil
B. Spain
C. Argentina
D. Germany
94. Who is the brand ambassador of the Hockey India League (HIL) 2013?
A. Pargat Singh
B. Dhanraj Pillai
C. Navjot Singh Siddhu
D. Virat Kohli
95. “Consumer Electronic Imaging’ Fair 2013”, formally called as “Photo Fair”, will be organize in January 2015 at
A. Kolkata
B. Chennai
C. Delhi
D. Mumbai
96. Which Indian State is the leading cotton producer ?
A. Gujarat
B. Maharashtra
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Madhya Pradesh
97. The ‘more mega store’ retail chain belongs to which Indian Industry ?
A. Reliance Industry
B. Bharti Enterprises
C. Aditya Birla Group
D. None of these
98. Who among the following was responsible for the revival of Hinduism in 19th century?
A. Swami Dayanand
B. Swami Vivekanand
C. Guru Shankaracharya
D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
99. The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in which city?
A. Brussels
B. Geneva
C. Oslo
D. Stockhlm
100. Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located?
A. Italy
B. Switzerland
C. Belgium
D. France
PART – C QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
101. For any integral value of n, 3^2n + 9n + 5 when divided by 3 will leave the remainder.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 5
102. Three men A. B and C working together can do a job in 6 hours less time than A alone, in 1 hour less time than B alone and in one half the time needed by C when working alone. Then A and B together can do the Job in
A. 2/3 hour
B. 3/4 hour
C. 3/2 hour
D. 4/3 hour
103. A swimming pool is fitted with three pipes. The first two pipes working simultaneously, fill the pool in the same time as the third pipe alone. The second pipe alone fills the pool 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. In what time will the second and third pipes together fill the pool?
A. 3 hours
B. 3.75 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 4.75 hours
104.
105. The base of a right prism is a quadrilateral ABCD. Given that AB = 9 cm, BC = 14 cm, CD = 13 cm, DA = 12 cm and ΔDAB = 90°. If the volume of the prism be 2070 cm3, then the area of the lateral surface is
A. 720 cm^2
B. 810 cm^2
C. 1260 cm^2
D. 2070 cm^2
106. The volumes of a right circular cylinder and a sphere are equal. The radius of the cylinder and the diameter of the sphere are equal. The ratio of height and radius of the cylinder is
A. 3:1
B. 1 :3
C. 6 : 1
D. 1 : 6
107. A wire of length 44 cm is first bent to form a circle and then rebent to form a square. The difference of the two enclosed areas is
A. 44 cm^2
B. 33 cm^2
C. 55 cm^2
D. 66 cm^2
108. A shopkeeper listed the price of goods at 30% above the cost price. He sells half the stock at this price, one fourth of the stock at a discount of 15% and the remaining at 30% discount His overall profit is
A. 15 3/8%
B. 15%
C. 15 3/5%
D. 15 2/3%
109. A takes three times as long as B and C together to do a job. B takes four times as long as A and C together to do the work. If all the three, working together can complete the job in 24 days, then the number of days, A alone will take to finish the job is
A. 100
B. 96
C. 95
D. 90
110. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% on the marked price of an item but charges a sales tax of 8% on the discounted price. If the customer pays 3,402 as the price including the sales tax, then the marked price is
A. Rs.3,400
B. Rs. 3,500
C. Rs. 3,600
D. Rs. 3,800
111. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4 : 3 and 2 : 3 respectively. In what ratio, the liquids in both the vessels be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel C containing half milk and half water?
A. 7:5
B. 5:2
C. 3 : 11
D. 1:2
112. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is 2/3 rd of the sum of 6% of A and 8% of B. The ratio A : B is
A. 4 : 3
B. 3 : 4
C. 1 : 1
D. 2 : 3
113. The average marks obtained by 40 students of a class is 86. If the 5 highest marks are removed, the average reduces by one mark. The average marks of the top 5 students is
A. 92
B. 96
C. 93
D. 97
114. A student finds the average of 10, 2 – digit numbers. If the digits of one of the numbers is interchanged, the average increases by 3.6. The difference between the digits of the 2-digit numbers is
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5
115. A trader buys goods at 20% discount on marked price. If he wants to make a profit of 25% after allowing a discount of 20%, by what percent should his marked price be greater than the original marked price?
A. 15%
B. 65%
C. 25%
D. 20%
116. A man spends 75% of his income. His income increases by 20% and his expenditure also increases by 10%. The percentage of increase in his savings is
A. 40%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 25%
117. A car travels from P to Q at a constant speed. If its speed were increased by 10 km/h, it would have been taken one hour lesser to cover the distance. It would have taken further 45 minutes lesser if the speed was further increased by 10 km/h. The distance between the two cities is
A. 540 km
B. 420 km
C. 600 km
D. 630 km
118. A train leaves a station A at 7 am and reaches another station B at 11 am. Another train leaves B at 8 am and reaches A at 11.30 am. The two trains cross one another at
A. 8:36 am
B. 8:56 am
C. 9:00 am
D. 9:24 am
119. A man gave 50% of his savings of 84,100 to his wife and divided the remaining sum among his two sons A and B of 15 and 13 years of age respectively. He divided it in such a way that each of his sons, when they attain the age of 18 years, would receive the same amount at 5% compound interest per annum. The share of B was
A. 20,000
B. 20,050
C. 22,000
D. 22,050
120. A fruit-seller buys some oranges and by selling 40% of them he realises the cost price of all the oranges. As the oranges being to grow over-ripe, he reduces the price and sells 80% of the remaining oranges at half the previous rate of profit. The rest of the oranges being rotten are thrown away. The overall percentage of profit is
A. 80
B. 84
C. 94
D. 96
121. 
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
122. If x is a rational number and (x+1)^3-(x-1)^3/(x+1)^2(x-1)^2 = 2 then the sum of numerator and denominator of x is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
123. The area in sq. unit, of the triangle formed by the graphs of x= 4, y= 3 and 3x+ 4y= 12 is
A. 12
B. 8
C. 10
D. 6
124. The equations 3x+ 4y = 10 -x+ 2y = 0 have the solution (a, b). The value of a + b is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
125. If x = √5+ 2, then the value 2x^2-3x-2/3x^2-4x-3 is equal to
A. 0.185
B. 0.525
C. 0.625
D. 0.785
126. If a= 2.234, b = 3.121 and c = -5.355, then the value of a^3 + b^3 + c^3 – 3 abc is
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
127. If x^2 + y^2 + 1 = 2x, then the value of x^3 + y^5 is
A. 2
B. 0
C. -1
D. 1
128. If 3 (a^2 + b^2 + c^2) = (a + b + c)^2, then the relation between a, b and c is
A. a = b = c
B. a = b ≠ c
C. a < b < c
D. a > b > c
129. If (sin a + cosec a)^2 + (cos a + sec a)^2 = k + tan^2 a + cot^2 a, then the value of k is
A. 1
B. 7
C. 3
D. 5
130. The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower situated perpendicularly on a plane is observed as 60° from a point P on the same plane. From another point Q, 10m vertically above the point P, the angle of depression of the foot of the tower is 30°. The height of the tower is
A. 15 m
B. 30 m
C. 20 m
D. 25 m
131. If sin 21 °= x/y then sec21 °- sin 69° is equal to
132. If sec a + tan a = 2, then value of sin a is (assume that 0 < a < 90°)
A. 0.4
B. 0.5
C. 0.6
D. 0.8
133. If 3 sin Ө + 5 cos Ө = 5, then the value of 5 sin Ө – 3 cos Ө will be
A. ±3
B. ±5
C. ±2
D. ± 1
134. If Ө is an acute angle and tan Ө + cot Ө = 2, then the value of tan^5 Ө + cot^5 Ө is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
135. ABCD is a parallelogram in which diagonals AC and BD intersect at 0. If E, F, G and H are the mid points of AO, DO, CO and BO respectively, then the ratio of the perimeter of the quadrilateral EFGH to the perimeter of parallelogram ABCD is
A. 1 : 4
B. 2:3
C. 1:2
D. 1 : 3
136. The simple value of tan 1 °. tan 2°. tan 3°………… tan 89° is
A. ½
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2/3
137. The length of a tangent from an external point to a circle is 5√3 unit. If radius of the circle is 5 unite, then the distance of the point from the circle is
A. 10 units
B. 15 units
C. -5 units
D. -15 units
138. In ΔABC, ∠C is an obtuse angle. The bisectors of the exterior angles at A and B meet BC and AC produced at D and E respectively. If AB = AD = BE, then ∠ACB =
A. 105°
B. 108°
C. 110°
D. 135°
139. ABC is an equilateral triangle and 0 is its circum centre, then the ∠AOC is
A. 100°
B. 110°
C. 120°
D. 130°
140. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. The side AB is extended to E in such a way that BE = BC. If ∠ADC = 70°, ∠BAD = 95°, then ∠DCE is equal to
A. 140°
B. 120°
C. 165°
D. 110°
141. If the sum of interior angles of a regular polygon is equal to two times the sum of exterior angles of that polygon, then the number of sides of that polygon is
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
142. In ∠PQR, S and T are points on sides PR and PQ respectively such that ∠PQR =∠PST. If PT = 5 cm, PS = 3 cm and TQ = 3 cm, then length of SR is
A. 5 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 31/3 cm
D. 41/3cm
143. Two circles are of radii 7 cm and 2 cm their centres being 13cm apart. Then the length of direct common tangent to the circles between the points of contact is
A. 12 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 5 cm
The following table gives zone wise survey report of the people of a country who take coffee. Study the table and answer the questions.
144. The percentage of people of south zone who take coffee at least once a day is close to
A. 33.51
B. 42.72
C. 75.81
D. 80.82
The following table gives zone wise survey report of the people of a country who take coffee. Study the table and answer the questions.
145. The percentage of people from non-west zone who take coffee ‘only once a week’ is approximately
A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14
The following table gives zone wise survey report of the people of a country who take coffee. Study the table and answer the questions.
146. The ratio of the total number of people surveyed who take coffee more than 3 times a day to the total number of people who do not take coffee at all is
A. 1: 1.4
B. 1.4 : 1
C. 1.5 : 1
D. 1 : 1.1
Study the following graph which shows income and expenditure of a company over the years and answer the questions.
147. The difference in profit (in Rs. crores) of the company during 2007 and 2008 is
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Study the following graph which shows income and expenditure of a company over the years and answer the questions.
148. In how many years was the expenditure of the company more than the average expenditure of the given years ?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Study the following graph which shows income and expenditure of a company over the years and answer the questions.
149. The percentage increase in income of the company from 2007 to 2008 is
A. 30
B. 25
C. 33 1/3
D. 42 6/7
Study the following graph which shows income and expenditure of a company over the years and answer the questions.
150. Ratio of total income to total expenditure of the company over the years is
A. 21:25
B. 25:21
C. 26:21
D. 25:22
PART – D ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is d i.e. No error.
151. He feels his troubles (1)/ as much or (2)/ even more than they. (3)/ No error (4)
A. He feels his troubles
B. as much or
C. even more than they.
D. No error
152. I like reading (1)/ more than (2)/ to play. (3)/ No error (4)
A. I like reading
B. more than
C. to play.
D. No error
153. The old lady swooned (I)/ but was soon (2)/ restored at senses. (3)/ No error (4)
A. The old lady swooned
B. but was soon
C. restored at senses.
D. No error
154. I shall have to (1)/ withdraw from my savings (2)/ to buy a new car. (3)/ No error.(4)
A. I shall have to
B. withdraw from my savings
C. to buy a new car.
D. No error
155. The whole block of flats (1)/ including two shops were (2)/ destroyed in fire. (3)/ No error (4)
A. The whole block of flats
B. including two shops were
C. destroyed in fire
D. No error
In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.
156. He was_______ about whether to do it or not.
A. Ambiguous
B. ambivalent
C. ambidextrous
D. uncertain
157. The minister_______ on the petition before it was taken up for discussion.
A. could sign
B. signed
C. had signed
D. must sign
158. The foolish crows_______ to sing.
A. Crow
B. jump
C. tried
D. try
159. Truculent in defending their individual rights of sovereignty under the Articles of Confederation, the newly formed states______ constantly.
A. apologized
B. digressed
C. conferred
D. squabbled
160. His conduct is bad. and his honesty is not______ suspicion.
A. Above
B. beyond
C. under
D. in
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
161. Porous
A. Adventurous
B. Permeable
C. Pungent
D. Concrete
162. Insipid
A. Spicy
B. Bland
C. Interesting
D. Warm
163. Convalesce
A. Diminish
B. Admonish
C. Recover
D. Convey
In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
164. Suppress
A. Reveal
B. Increase
C. Open
D. Explain
165. Vocal
A. Voluble
B. Calm
C. Quite
D. Silent
166. Indict
A. Accuse
B. Exonerate
C. Incriminate
D. Impeach
In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
167. There is no cut and dried method for doing this.
A. simple
B. honest
C. ready made
D. understandable
168. Suddenly the man blacked out during the parade and had to be helped to a quiet place.
A. lost temper
B. lost control over himself
C. lost consciousness
D. lost balance
169. Hold your horses for a moment while I make a phone call.
A. Be patient
B. Stay out
C. Be quiet
D. Wait
170. Sachin Tendulkar’s batting skills make him a cut above the rest.
A. taller than
B. superior to
C. senior to
D. different from
171. I am very interested to know the outcome of the debate, kindly keep me in the loop.
A. out of it
B. informed about the fees
C. informed about the last date of joining
D. informed regularly
In the following questions, a sentence/ part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold sentence/part of the sentence at a:, b: and c: which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is d.
172. The visitors arrived at a lucky moment.
A. an opportunistic
B. an opportunity
C. an opportune
D. No improvement
173. ‘The government can see scarcely any valid reason to launch an inquiry.
A. cannot scarcely see any valid reason
B. can see any valid reason scarcely
C. can scarcely see any valid reason
D. No improvement
174. Henry is taking John for tea.
A. taking John on tea
B. taking John to tea
C. taking John at tea
D. No improvement
175. The medicines made miracles and healed me in two days.
A. The medicines brought acles
B. The medicines worked miracles
C. The medicine performed miracles
D. No improvement
176. Any of these two books is good.
A. Any of this
B. Either of these
C. Any other of this
D. No improvement
177. The report highlights a number of instance of injustice.
A. highlight a number of instances of injustice
B. highlights a numbers of instances of injustice
C. highlights a number of instances of injustice
D. No improvement
178. He was for a time our captain.
A. for sometime
B. once
C. at any time
D. No improvement
179. He made the utmost effort to save us.
A. an all-out
B. an altered
C. an intentional
D. No improvement
180. He belongs to a rich family.
A. a well-to-do family
B. an upper class family
C. a well-known family
D. No improvement
181. Suraj looked at Sunil with a question.
A. Questioningly
B. Questionably
C. wistfully
D. No improvement
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
182. To remove an objectionable part from a book.
A. Exterminate
B. Expurgate
C. Extirpate
D. D Destroy
183. Pertaining to sheep
A. Canine
B. Bovine
C. Ovine
D. Feline
184. Hole excavated by an animal as dwelling
A. Borrow
B. Burrow
C. Bore
D. Pierce
185. Person believing in free will
A. Guardian
B. Tyrant
C. Humanitarian
D. Libertarian
186. Small pieces of metal that fly out from an exploding bomb
A. Shrapnel
B. Splinters
C. Filings
D. Bullets
187. All the arts, beliefs and social institutions etc. characteristic of a race
A. Culture
B. Civilization
C. Infrastructure
D. Ritual
188. The act of speaking about one’s thoughts when one is alone.
A. Silence
B. Monologue
C. Dialogue
D. Soliloquy
In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
189.
A. Corralative
B. Correlative
C. Corilative
D. Correletive
190.
A. Sychological
B. Psychological
C. Psykological
D. Sykological
Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Poverty can be defined as a social phenomenon in which a section of the society is unable to fulfil even its basic necessities of life. When a substantial segment of the society is deprived of the minimum level of living and continues at a bare subsistence level, that society is said to be plagued with mass poverty. The countries of the third world exhibit invariably the existence of mass poverty, although pockets of poverty exist even in the developed countries of Europe and America.
Attempts have been made in all societies to define poverty, but all of them are conditioned by the vision of minimum or good life obtaining in society. For instance, the concept of poverty in the U.S.A. would be significantly different from that in India because the average man is able to afford a much higher level of living in the United States. There is an effort in all definitions of poverty to approach the average level of living in a society and as such these definitions reflect the coexistence of inequalities in a society and the extent to which different societies are prepared to tolerate them. For instance, in India, the generally accepted definition of poverty emphasizes minimum level of living rather than a reasonable level of living. This attitude is borne out of a realization that it would not be possible to provide even a minimum quantum of basic needs for some decades and therefore, to talk about a reasonable level of living or good life may appear to be wishful thinking at the present stage. Thus, political considerations enter the definitions of poverty because programmes of alleviating poverty may become prohibitive as the vision of a good life widens.
191. What is poverty according to the writer?
A. Ability to consider it as social phenomenon of a substantial segment of society.
B. Inability of a society to provide the basic necessities of life.
C. A political compulsion that dictates economic policies.
D. A form of exhibition of subsistence living.
192. What conditions the various attempts to define poverty ?
A. The definition of poverty in India
B. The definition of poverty in the USA
C. The vision of minimum or good life
D. Political considerations
193. What do all definitions of poverty do ?
A. Reflect coexistence of inequalities in society.
B. Societies tolerance of inequalities.
C. Approach the average level of living in a society.
D. Minimum level of living in India.
194. Definition of poverty in India emphasizes minimum level of living because
A. It is impossible at this stage to provide a reasonable quantum of living.
B. Political considerations enter the definitions of poverty,
C. There is a reasonable level of good living.
D. Programmes of alleviation of poverty have been initiated.
195. Societies in the third world can be characterised plagued by mass poverty, because
A. Europe and America have pockets of poverty.
B. Poverty is a mass social phenomenon.
C. There is a wide variation in the definition of poverty.
D. Societies live at a bare subsistence level.
196. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives
By the mid-nineteenth century, mass production of paper patterns, the emergence of the home sewing machine, and the convenience of mail order catalogues brought fashionable clothing into the American home. By the early twentieth century, home economists working in extension and outreach programs taught women how to use paper patterns to improve the fit and efficiency to new garments as well as how to update existing ones.
Teachers of home economics traditionally made home sewing a critical part of their curriculum, emphasizing self-sufficiency and resource fullness for young women. However, with the increasing availability of mass-produced clothing in catalogues and department stores, more and more women preferred buying garments to making them. As a result, home economists shifted their attention to consumer education.
Through field study’s analysis and research, they became experts on the purchase and preservation of ready-to-wear clothing for the family, offering budgeting instruction targeted at adolescent girls. Modern home sewing made it possible for American women to transcend their economic differences and geographic locations with clothing that was increasingly standardized. The democratization of fashion continued through the twentieth century as the ready-to-wear market expanded and home sewing became more of a pastime than a necessity.
197. What were the skills that were emphasized for young women ?
A. Self confidence and self-esteem
B. Self-sufficiency and resource fulriess
C. Resourcefulness and self-confidence
D. Prudence and resourcefulness
198. Who became experts on the purchase and preservation of ready-to-wear clothing for the family ?
A. Owners of department stores
B. Field-study analysts
C. Young women
D. Teachers of home economics
199. Who was the target group ?
A. Young women
B. Young girls
C. Adolescent girls
D. Working women
200. How did home sewing help American women?
A. They became field analysts and researchers.
B. They went beyond economic boundaries.
C. They found good jobs.
D. They became excellent teachers.
201. What improved the fit and efficiency of new garments?
A. Sewing machines
B. Economists
C. Mass production
D. Paper patterns
ANSWER KEY
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. D
10. A
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. D
15. B
16. D
17. D
18. D
19. C
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. D
24. C
25. D
26. D
27. D
28. D
29. A
30. A
31. C
32. D
33. C
34. D
35. B
36. B
37. D
38. B
39. A
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. D
45. D
46. C
47. D
48. A
49. C
50. C
51. C
52. A
53. A
54. A
55. A
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. B
60. B
61. C
62. A
63. A
64. D
65. B
66. A
67. B
68. A
69. D
70. B
71. B
72. D
73. C
74. A
75. A
76. C
77. D
78. C
79. B
80. D
81. A
82. A
83. A
84. A
85. B
86. B
87. A
88. B
89. B
90. A
91. D
92. A
93. C
94. C
95. C
96. A
97. C
98. B
99. C
100. B
101. B
102. D
103. B
104. A
105. A
106. D
107. B
108. A
109. B
110. B
111. A
112. A
113. C
114. A
115. C
116. C
117. B
118. D
119. A
120. B
121. C
122. B
123. D
124. A
125. C
126. B
127. D
128. A
129. B
130. A
131. A
132. C
133. A
134. B
135. C
136. C
137. A
138. B
139. C
140. A
141. B
142. C
143. A
144. C
145. D
146. B
147. A
148. C
149. C
150. B
151. C
152. C
153. C
154. D
155. B
156. D
157. C
158. D
159. A
160. B
161. B
162. B
163. C
164. A
165. D
166. B
167. C
168. C
169. D
170. B
171. D
172. C
173. C
174. D
175. B
176. B
177. C
178. B
179. A
180. A
181. B
182. B
183. C
184. B
185. D
186. B
187. A
188. D
189. B
190. B
191. B
192. C
193. A
194. A
195. D
196. B
197. D
198. C
199. B
200. D