2014 SSC CGL Tier 1
20 Jul Shift – 1
Question Paper with Answer Key

PART – A GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in India in
A. 1972
B. 1986
C. 1964
D. 1956

2. Which one of the following is a Sedimentary Rock ?
A. Granite
B. Charnockite
C. Basalt
D. Arkose

3. Highly specialized form of agriculture in which crops like coffee, tea and rubber are cultivated refer to
A. multiple cropping
B. plantation agriculture
C. terrace farming
D. extensive farming

4. International Ozone Day is celebrated on
A. 5th September
B. 16th September
C. 11th September
D. 20th September

5. In India, there are many coal fields found in
A. Cauvery Valley
B. Krishna Valley
C. Ganga Valley
D. Damodar Valley

6. The newly hatched tadpole breaths through its
A. Lung
B. External gills
C. Internal gills
D. All of the above

7. Virus in Latin means
A. Sweet
B. Small
C. Fluid
D. Poison

8. The biological process in which both aerobes and anaerobes degrade organic matter is
A. Manuring
B. Composting
C. Digesting
D. Nitrifying

9. Statement I: Complex tissue is made up of more than one type of cells.
Statement II: Meristems are examples of permanent tissue.
A. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
B. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
C. Both statements I and II are correct.
D. Both statements I and II are incorrect.

10. The cuticle is absent in
A. Leaf
B. Stem
C. Root
D. Fruit

11. Intercalary meristems are found in
A. Node
B. Lateral bud
C. Terminal bud
D. Inter node

12. Super conductors are substances that
A. offer minimum resistance to flow of electric current
B. conduct electricity at low temperature
C. conduct electricity at high temperature
D. offer high resistance to the flow of electric current

13. A thin oil film on a water surface appears coloured because of
A. reflection
B. interference
C. diffraction
D. polarization

14. A tachometer is a device used to measure
A. Gravitational pull
B. Speed of rotation
C. Surface of tension
D. dispersive power

15. When cathode rays strike a target of high atomic weight, they give rise to
A. a –rays
B. 13 and y rays
C. X-rays
D. positive rays

16. Different computers are connected to a LAN by a cable and a
A. Modem
B. interface card
C. special wires
D. telephone lines

17. Which one of the following was the top exporter company of software in 2001 in India ?
A. Infosys
B. TCS
C. Sun
D. Wipro

18. The major use of sulphur is in the manufacture of
A. H SO
B. HS
C. SO
D. Fungicide

19. Atoms of different elements have
A. same atomic number and same electronic configuration
B. different atomic number and same electronic configuration
C. different atomic number and different number of valence electrons O
D. same number of electrons and neutrons

20. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. Vitamin-A: Scurvy
B. Vitamin-B: Rickets
C. Vitamin-C: Night blindness
D. Vitamin-E: Reproduction

21. Organic compounds are
A. Covalent compounds
B. Ionic compounds
C. Co- ordination compounds
D. Interstitial compounds

22. Major pesticidal properties are present in
A. Jatropha
B. Castor
C. Pongamia
D. Jamun

23. The ‘Greenhouse effect’ is mainly due to increase in atmosphere
A. Ozone
B. Nitrogen
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Carbon dioxide

24. Which of the following is not dealt under Section 3c: of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?
A. The Biodiversity Authority
B. The Coastal Zone Management Authority
C. Authority set-up to monitor the State of Notified Ecologically Sensitive Areas
D. Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Right Authority

25. Which of the following statements is true ?
A. Animals worry about raising their family
B. Animals make several feeding trips in a day
C. Animals often behave sensibly
D. Animals do not know meaning of brotherhood

26. Green blocks are referred to
A. Green cover
B. Green Ministry
C. Bio-bricks
D. Pro-biotic curd

27. India celebrated its “Polio free status” during the month of
A. December 2013
B. January 2013
C. January 2010
D. February 2014

28. Telangana State is the bifurcation of
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Seemandhra
D. Odisha and Tamil Nadu

29. Which of the following is not correct ?
A. CISF – Central Industrial Security Force
B. BSF – Border Security Force
C. UNDP – United Nation’s Development Project
D. SIT- Special Investigation Team

30. A book entitled “the Hindus: An Alternative History” is written by
A. Shobha De
B. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Wendy Doniger
D. Salman Rushdie

31. The father of Economics is
A. Marshall
B. Adam Smith
C. J.M. Keynes
D. Karl Marx

32. Which country awards Nobel Prize ?
A. France
B. Sweden
C. Switzerland
D. U.S.A.

33. The first nuclear explosion in India was conducted at
A. Pokhran
B. Bombay
C. Nellie
D. Sriharikota

34. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was introduced in
A. Fifth Five Year Plan
B. Sixth Five Year Plan
C. Seventh Five Year Plan
D. Eighth Five Year Plan

35. The sweetmeat is referred to
A. Camel meat
B. Goat meat
C. Feta cheese
D. Petha of Agra

36. Capital market deals with
A. Short term fund
B. Long term fund
C. Cash
D. Both long and short term funds

37. The new Agricultural Strategy in India was introduced in
A. 1956
B. 1966
C. 1976
D. 1986

38. The sale of branded articles is common in a situation of
A. excess capacity
B. monopolistic competition
C. monopoly
D. pure competition

39. Production refers to
A. destruction of utility
B. creation of utilities
C. exchange value
D. use of a product

40. The law of diminishing returns applies to
A. All sector
B. Industrial sector
C. Agricultural sector
D. Service sector

41. Bureaucracy literally means a system of government by
A. Elected representative
B. Nominated representative
C. Officials
D. Group of landlords

42. A federal government is in the shape of
A. Command by the Centre
B. Appeal from the States
C. Agreement between the Centre and the States
D. Single Party Rule

43. Parliamentary or Presidential Government can be distinguished mainly by
A. its federal nature
B. the rigidity of the Constitution
C. the employer-employee relations
D. the legislative-executive relations

44. The phrase “equality before law” used in Article-14 of Indian Constitution has been borrowed from
A. U.S.A.
B. Germany
C. Britain
D. Greece

45. Who said, The State exists because crime exists in society, otherwise there would be no need of a State’ ?
A. Herbert Spencer
B. J.S. Mill
C. John Locke
D. Tocqueville

46. The Quit India Resolution (1942) proposed the starting of a non-violent mass struggle on the widest possible scale. Who gave the mantra “Do or Die” for this struggle ?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Subhash Chandra Bose
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

47. Napoleon got finally overthrown in the Battle of Waterloo in the year
A. 1814
B. 1813
C. 1815
D. 1816

48. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
A. Sarojini Naidu
B. Sucheta Kripalani
C. Rajkumari Arnrit Kaur
D. Annie Besant

49. The famous Sun Temple at Konark was built by
A. Prataparudra
B. Anantavarman
C. Narasimha-I
D. Narasimha-ll

50. Ashok spread Buddhism all over India and Ceylon by
A. Teaching the Triratnas
B. Sending the Dharma Mahamatras
C. Waging wars
D. Becoming a Buddhist Monk

PART – B ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

51. Barbarous
A. Ancient
B. Civilized
C. Gentle
D. Savage

52. Heighten
A. Widen
B. Decrease
C. Strengthen
D. Dissolve

53. Dubious
A. Shady
B. Delirious
C. Laconic
D. Certain

In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

54. To be a successful lawyer, one must know how to dot one’s is and corss one’s t’s.
A. complete one task at a time
B. write great letters
C. deal with paperwork
D. be detailed and exact

55. When Ramu lost the money, he was down in the dumps.
A. accusing others of stealing
B. searching everywhere (check spelling)
C. sad and depressed
D. very angry at himself

56. He turned up his nose at my offer.
A. was taken aback by my offer
B. found it hard to believe my offer
C. treated my offer with contempt
D. could not accept my offer

57. There are no hard and fast rules that cannot be relaxed on such an occasion.
A. that is difficult to solve
B. that can be altered
C. that is very quick
D. that cannot be altered

58. Her father strained every nerve to enable her to get settled in life.
A. worked very hard
B. spent a huge amount
C. tried all tricks
D. bribed several persons

In the following questions, a sentence/a part of the sentence is printed in bold letters. Below are given alternatives to that bold part at a:, b:, c: which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is d.

59. The speaker got confused, and started to contradict himself.
A. oppose himself
B. argue against
C. reject
D. No improvement

60. The number of people going abroad for vacations is ever increasing every year.
A. ever increasing
B. increasing
C. shooting
D. No improvement

61. Looking at the pictures of his old home made him nostalgic.
A. Romantic
B. historical
C. philosophic
D. No improvement

62. I met him in the way.
A. on the way
B. at the way
C. during the way
D. No improvement

63. I shall appreciate if you kindly accept my proposal.
A. I would appreciate if
B. I shall appreciate it if
C. I would have appreciate if
D. No improvement

64. Rajesh is not very-well these days.
A. in poverty
B. unwell
C. indifferent
D. No improvement

65. Nothing about the accident has come to her knowledge.
A. was learnt by her
B. has been known by her
C. is known to her
D. No improvement

66. Will you let me borrow some money in this hour of need ?
A. lend me some rupees
B. let me borrow a few rupees
C. lend me some money
D. No improvement

67. The autumn season of Parliament will begin on Monday.
A. session
B. cession
C. mission
D. No improvement

68. The boy said that he has read the book.
A. he has already read
B. he had read
C. he has finished to read
D. No improvement

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

69. A state where no law and order exists
A. Monarchy
B. Mobocracy
C. Anarchy
D. Democracy

70. He is my partner in crime.
A. Friend
B. Accomplice
C. Neighbour
D. Companion

71. Her speech could not be heard by those sitting in the last few rows.
A. Imperceptible
B. Indelible
C. Inaudible
D. Ineffable

72. A short trip or excursion
A. Rambler
B. Jaunt
C. Detour
D. Stroller

73. Motive or incitement to action
A. Remark
B. Contract
C. Proposition
D. Incentive

74. Science or practice of map drawing
A. Chirography
B. Xerography
C. Cartography
D. Pictography

75. A speaker’s platform
A. Stage
B. Stand
C. Pulpit
D. Podium

In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

76.
A. Conoiseeur
B. Conoisseur
C. Connoisseur
D. Cannoisseur

77.
A. Miscellaneous
B. Miscelaneous
C. Misscellaneous
D. Miscelleneous

In the following questions, you have two brief passages with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content is conveyed to the audience as much through music, both vocal and instrumental, as it is through the lyrics. By contrast, in musical theatre an actor’s dramatic performance is primary, and the music plays a lesser role. The drama in opera is presented using the primary elements of theatre such as scenery, costumes and acting. However, the words of the opera, or libretto, are sung rather than spoken. The singers are accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from a small instrumental ensemble to a full symphonic orchestra.

78. It is pointed out in the passage that opera
A. has developed under the influence of musical theatre
B. is a drama that is not dependent on music.
C. is not a high-budget production.
D. is originated in Europe.

79. we can understand from the passage that
A. audiences are captivated more by the lyrics than by the music.
B. in opera lyrics are as important as the music.
C. orchestras in operas do not vary in size.
D. musical theatre relies, above all, on music.

80. it is stated in the passage that
A. acting and costumes are secondary to music in musical theatre.
B. many people find musical theatre more captivating than opera.
C. music in musical theatre is not as important as it is in opera.
D. an opera requires a huge orchestra as well as a large choir.

81. A libretto is
A. the main character who is the liberator at the climax of the scene.
B. the words of the opera.
C. a musical composition which is played in a slow leisurely manner.
D. the sequence of well controlled, graceful movements performed as a display of skill.

82. The word “conveyed” also means
A. transmit
B. tote
C. keep
D. dissuade

In the following questions, you have two brief passages with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
These days we hear a lot about science, but scientists, the men and women who do the work and make the discoveries, seem distant and strange to us. Science often appears to be very difficult and sometimes even magical. It is difficult of course, but we are wrong if we believe that we cannot understand it. The chief thing about the scientific method is that we get the answers to questions by making tests. The man, to take an example, who finds his bicycle tyre is flat will pump some air into it. Suppose one hour later the tyre is flat again, if the man is wise, he will first test the valve in water. If he finds air is escaping from it he will put in a new piece of valve-rubber and then pump up the tyre. All should then be well again. This man is using a simple form of scientific method. If the man was very ‘unscientific’ he might say to himself that an evil spirit had caused the tyre to go flat.

83. What do people talk a lot about these days ?
A. science
B. magic
C. men and women
D. work

84. What is the common man’s attitude towards scientists ?
A. They are wrong.
B. They seem distant and strange.
C. They are wise.
D. They are difficult.

85. If we use the scientific method how do we get answers to questions ?
A. By believing
B. By example
C. By making tests
D. By methods

86. If a man does not use the scientific approach, what will he attribute the flat tyre to ?
A. An evil spirit
B. The rubber valve
C. The bicycle
D. Magic

87. The antonym of believe is
A. reveal
B. disbelieve
C. agree
D. deny

In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is d: i.e. No error.

88. They dreamed of a society (a)/ where everyone (b)/ were equal, (c)/ No error (d)
A. They dreamed of a society
B. where everyone
C. were equal
D. No error

89. On Senegal (a)/ it is considered impolite (b)/ if you do not share your food, (c)/ No error (d)
A. On Senegal
B. it is considered impolite
C. if you do not share your food
D. No error

90. We discussed about, the problem thoroughly (a)/on the eve of the examination (b)/ that I found it very easy to work it out. (c)/ No error (d)
A. We discussed about, the problem thoroughly
B. on the eve of the examination
C. that I found it very easy to work it out
D. No error

91. The wise father told him (a)/ that the mangoes had gone bad as they were (b)/ in contact with the one rotten mango, (c)/ No error (d)
A. The wise father told him
B. that the mangoes had gone bad as they were
C. in contact with the one rotten mango
D. No error

92. The box of eggs (a)/ are lying (b)/ on the table, (c)/ No error (d)
A. The box of eggs
B. are lying
C. on the table
D. No error

In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

93. James Watt_______ the steam engine.
A. invented
B. discovered
C. founded
D. find

94. After saying that Beverly made too many mistakes, Bob added insult to injury by saying
A. they were small mistakes
B. she worked very slowly
C. her work was excellent
D. work at a remarkable pace

95. Losing that job was a blessing in disguise because she
A. get a much better Job
B. lost her house
C. unemployed for years
D. was able to shop

96. All teachers agree that Paresh is the______ intelligent boy in his class.
A. More
B. Most
C. Very
D. Only

97. The State is home to several destinations of______ beauty.
A. paralleled
B. unparalleled
C. in equal
D. equal

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

98. Tepid
A. Hot
B. Warm
C. Cold
D. Boiling

99. Canny
A. Obstinate
B. Proud
C. Stout
D. Clever

100. Humane
A. Sympathetic
B. Spirit
C. straight
D. Source

PART – C QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

101. In what ratio must 25% of alcohol be mixed with 50% of alcohol to get a mixture of 40% strength alcohol ?
A. 1:2
B. 2 : 1
C. 2 : 3
D. 3 : 2

102. Find two mean proportional’s between 2 and 54.
A. 6 and 18
B. 6 and 12
C. 12 and 18
D. 6 and 9

103. A man had 7 children. When their average age was 12 years, a child aged 6 years died. The average age of remaining six children is
A. 13 years
B. 10 years
C. 11 years
D. 14 years

104. The average marks obtained by 22 candidates in an examination are 45. The average marks of the first 10 candidates are 55 and those of the last eleven are 40. The number of marks obtained by the eleventh candidate is
A. 45
B. 0
C. 50
D. 47.5

105. A shop-keeper sold a sewing machine for 1,080 at a loss of 10%. At what price should he have sold it so as to gain 10% on it ?
A. 1,069
B. 1,200
C. 1,230
D. 1,320

106. A man invested 27,000 in 12 1/2% stock at 108, then his yield percentage is
A. 18 ¾
B. 11 31/54
C. 15
D. 8 1/2

107. Santa and Julie start walking from the same place in the opposite directions. If Julie walks at a speed of 2.5 km/hr and Santa at a speed of 2 km/hr, in how much time will they be 18 km apart ?
A. 4.0 hrs
B. 4.5 hrs
C. 5.0 hrs
D. 4.8 hrs

108. Two trains 125 metres and 115 metres in length, are running towards each other on parallel lines, one at the rate of 33 km/hr and the other at 39 km/ hr. How much time (in seconds) will they take to pass each other from the moment they meet ?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

109. A sum of money at compound interest will amount to 650 at the end of the first year and 676 at the end of the second year. The amount of money is
A. 1,300
B. 650
C. 1,250
D. 625

110. 
A. 2p2
B. 1/2p2
C. P + 3
D. 1/P+3

111. If a+ b+ c = 4√3 and a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = 16, then the ratio a : b : c is
A. 1:1:1
B. 1:√2:√3
C. 1:2:3
D. None of these

112. If x+1/x = 2 then the value of (x^2 + 1/x^2)(x^3 + 1/x^3) is
A. 20
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

113. If a, b, c be all positive integers, then the least positive value of a^3 + b^3 + c^3 – 3abc is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 3

114. If a+ b=1 ,c+ d=1 and a-b= d/c then the value of c^2 – a^2 is
A. a/b
B. b/a
C. 1
D. -1

115. When f(x) = 12x^3 – 13x^2 – 5x + 7 is divided by (3x + 2), then the remainder is
A. 2
B. 0
C. -1
D. 1
E. None of these

116. If x = 3t, y = ½ (t + 1) then the value of t for which x = 2y is
A. 1
B. ½
C. – 1
D. 2/3

117. If x^2 + 1/5x + a^2 is a perfect square then a is
A. 1/100
B. 1/5
C. 1/10
D. 10

118. In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD m∠A + m∠B + m∠C + m∠D =?
A. 90°
B. 360°
C. 180°
D. 120°

119. In a right angled triangle, the circum centre of the triangle lies
A. Inside the triangle
B. outside the triangle
C. on midpoint of the hypotenuse
D. on one vertex

120. If two angles of a triangle are 21 ° and 38°, then the triangle is
A. Right-angled triangle
B. Acute- angled triangle
C. Obtuse-angled triangle
D. Isosceles triangle

121. Angle between the internal bisectors of two angles of a triangle ∠B and ∠C is 120°, then ∠A is
A. 20°
B. 30°
C. 60°
D. 90°

122. BE and CF are two medians of ΔABC and G the centroid. FE cuts AG at O. If OG = 2cm, then the length of AO is
A. 2 cm
B. 4 cm
C. 6 cm
D. 8 cm

123. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle and AX, BY, CZ be the altitudes. Then the right statement out of the four given responses is
A. AX = BY = CZ
B. AX BY = CZ
C. AX = BY # CZ
D. AX # BY # CZ

124. O is the circum centre of ΔABC, given ∠BAC = 85° and ∠BCA = 55°, find ∠OAC.
A. 40°
B. 50°
C. 60°
D. 80°

125. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2:3:7. The measure of the smallest angle is
A. 30°
B. 60°
C. 45°
D. 90°

126. If x sin 60°.tan 30° = sec 60°.cot 45°, then the value of x is
A. 2
B. 2√3
C. 4
D. 4√3

127. 
A. Cot Ө/2
B. Sec Ө/2
C. Sin Ө/2
D. Cos Ө/2

128. Given that 1^2 + 2^2 + 3^2 +……… + 10^2 = 385 the value of 2^2 + 4^2 + 6^2 + ….20^2 =
A. 770
B. 1540
C. 1155
D. (385)

129. The approx value of 5 1/3 + 1 2/9 x 1/4(10 + 3/1-1/5) is
A. 10
B. 67/25
C. 128/11
D. 128/99

130. A and B together can dig a trench in 12 days, which A alone can dig in 28 days; B alone can dig it in
A. 20 days
B. 21 days
C. 22 days
D. 23 days

131. A pipe can fill a cistern in 9 hours. Due to a leak in its bottom, the cistern fills up in 10 hours. If the cistern is full, in how much time will it be emptied by the leak ?
A. 70 hours
B. 80 hours
C. 90 hours
D. 100 hours

132. A skilled, a half skilled and an unskilled labourer work for 7, 8 and 10 days respectively and they together get 369 for their work. If the ratio of their each day’s work is 1/3 :1/4 :1/6, then how much does the trained labourer get (in rupees) ?
A. 164
B. 102.50
C. 201.50
D. 143.50

133. Two cubes have their volumes in the ratio 27 : 64. The ratio of their surface area is
A. 9:25
B. 16:25
C. 9:16
D. 4:9

134. The radius of the base of a Conical tent is 12 m. The tent is 9 m high. Find the cost of canvas required to make the tent, if one square metre of canvas costs 120 (Take π = 3.14)
A. 67, 830
B. 67, 800
C. 67, 820
D. 67, 824

135. The difference between the radii of the bigger circle and smaller circle is 14 cm and the difference between their areas is 1056 cm . Radius of the smaller circle is
A. 7 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 9 cm
D. 3 cm

136. If the discount is equal to one fifth of the marked price and the loss is half the discount, then the percentage of loss is
A. 10 1/9%
B. 11 1/9%
C. 12 1/9%
D. 13 1/9%

137. Two successive discounts of 10% and 5%, in this order, are given on a bill of Z 110. Find the net amount of money payable to clear the bill, (answer to the nearest rupee)
A. 94
B. 95
C. 96
D. 97

138. The true discount on 1, 860 due after a certain time at 5% is 60. Find the time after which it is due.
A. 10 months
B. 8 months
C. 9 months
D. 1 years

139. If the sum of two angles is 135° and their difference is π/12 , then the circular measure of the greater angle is
A. 2π/3
B. 3π/5
C. π/2
D. π/3

140. If 2tan^2 30°/ 1- tan^2 30° + sec^2 45° – sec^2 0° = x sec 60°, then the value of x is
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. -1

141. If tan Ө = sin a – cos a/ sin a + cos a then sin a + a is
A. ±√2 sin Ө
B. ±√2 cos Ө
C. ± 1/√2 sin Ө
D. ± 1/√2cos Ө

142. If 7sin^2Ө + 3cos^2Ө = 4, (0° < Ө < 90°), then the value of tan Ө is
A. 1/√3
B. ½
C. 1
D. √3

143. tan9° = p/q then the value of sec^2 81° /1+cot^2 81° is
A. p/q
B. 1
C. p^2/q^2
D. q^2/p^2

The sub divided bar diagram given below depicts the result of Class XII students of a school for three years. Study the diagram and answer the questions given below :

144. The percentage of student passed with second class in the year 2000 is
A. 33 ¼ %
B. 32 ¼%
C. 30 ¼ %
D. 31 ¼ %

The sub divided bar diagram given below depicts the result of Class XII students of a school for three years. Study the diagram and answer the questions given below :

145. The percentage of student passed with First class in the year 2001 is
A. 50%
B. 45%
C. 60%
D. 65%

The sub divided bar diagram given below depicts the result of Class XII students of a school for three years. Study the diagram and answer the questions given below :

146. The number of students passed with Third class in the year 2002 is
A. 130
B. 10
C. 140
D. 20

The sub divided bar diagram given below depicts the result of Class XII students of a school for three years. Study the diagram and answer the questions given below :

147. The number of students passed with Second class in the year 2002 is
A. 80
B. 130
C. 50
D. 100

Pie-charts show the expenses on various heads in construction of a house. Study the pie- chart.

148. What percentage of the total amount is being spent on cement in 1991?
A. 18%
B. 30%
C. 48%
D. 60%

Pie-charts show the expenses on various heads in construction of a house. Study the pie- chart.

149. The percentage increase in the amount spent on labour from 1991 to 2001, given that the total amount spent on the construction of the house is 3,60, 000 in 1991 and ‘8,64,000, in 2001 is
A. 3 1/9%
B. 43 ¼ %
C. 41 2/3%
D. 2 2/9%
E. None of the above

Pie-charts show the expenses on various heads in construction of a house. Study the pie- chart.

150. If the total cost of constructing the house is 3,60,000 in 1991 and 8,64,000, in 2001, what is the amount spent on Steel in 1991 and 2001 ?
A. 2,16,000 and 4,32,000
B. 60,000 and 84,000
C. 80,000 and 2,10,000
D. 50,000 and 1,44,000

PART – D GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

151. Natural: Artificial:: Cotton : ?
A. Wool
B. Nylon
C. Silk
D. Jute

152. Crime : Punishment:: Honesty : ?
A. Award
B. Recognition
C. Reward
D. Pride

153. VO HA : WPIB :: CJQX : ?
A. DKRY
B. YRKD
C. RKDY
D. YDKR

154. PRINTING : RPNIITGN :: PROTOCOL : ?
A. RPTOCOOL
B. RPOTCOLO
C. PRTOOCOL
D. RPTOCOLO

155. 20 :11 :: 102 : ?
A. 52
B. 49
C. 61
D. 96

156. 6415 : 5304 :: 7896 : ?
A. 6705
B. 6905
C. 6907
D. 6785

In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number/letters from the given alternative.

157.
A. Anthropology
B. Psychology
C. Taxology
D. Sociology

158.
A. Time : Seconds
B. Pressure : Barometer
C. Length : Metre
D. Volume : Litre

159.
A. 56
B. 21
C. 36
D. 35

160.
A. 3 : 30
B. 5:128
C. 8: 515
D. 9:731

161.
A. APPLE
B. ANGLE
C. ADORE
D. AMPLE

162. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series increases by one. Which of the following series observes the rule above ?
A. CPTOV
B. HJHQV
C. HOFKP
D. IKNRW

163. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
(A) Ghee
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Cow
(E) Butter
A. (E), (A), (B), (D), (C)
B. (D), (B), (E) (C), (A)
C. (D), (B), (C), (E), (A)
D. (C), (B), (E), (D), (A)

164. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.
(A) Concession
(B) Conception
(C) Conciliator
(D) Conceive
(E) Concerned
A. (D), (E), (C), (B), (A)
B. (D), (B), (E) (C), (A)
C. (D), (B), (E), (A), (C)
D. (D), (C), (E), (B), (A)

165. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
a _ ca _ ca _ caa _
A. caca
B. cacc
C. caac
D. ccca

In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

166. MNBA, OPDC, QRFE, ?
A. STGH
B. STKH
C. STKJ
D. STHG

167. 512, 256, 128, ?, 32, 16,8
A. 52
B. 61
C. 64
D. 56

168. 30, 130, 630, ?
A. 1260
B. 3130
C. 1030
D. 3103

For the following questions answer them individually

169. X is four years older than Y who is twice as old as Z. If the total ages of X, Y and Z be 34, how old is X?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16

170. Pointing to Vinod, Radha said, “His sister is my mother’s only daughter”. How is Radha related to Vinod ?
A. Cousin
B. Daughter
C. Mother
D. Sister

171. Madhavi and Shalini are good in Dramatics and Computer Science. Anjana and Madhavi are good in Computer Science and Physics. Anjana, Purnima and Nirmala are good in Physics and History. Nirmala and Anjana are good in Physics and Maths. Purnima and Shalini are good in History and Dramatics. Who is good in Physics, History and Dramatics ?
A. Nirmala
B. Purnima
C. Anjana
D. Shalini

172. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word. IMMEDIATELY
A. DIALECT
B. LIMITED
C. DIAMETER
D. DICTATE

173. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of given word. TAMBOURINE
A. BROMINATE
B. BTAIN ER
C. BOATMAN
D. MINARET

174. If alphabets are serially numbered, one of the answers given below has a meaningful word hidden in it. Identify the answer.
A. 5, 18, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5
B. 20, 5, 1, 3, 8, 5, 18
C. 5, 1, 3, 5, 20, 8, 18
D. 18, 5, 3, 8, 1, 5, 20

175. If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then how GEORGE will be coded in that code language?
A. CADMNO
B. CAKNIT
C. CAKNCA
D. JAKINS

176. If BUILDING is coded as 4152 759 6 and RIVER as 85308, what will be the code for BRIDGE?
A. 485067
B. 485670
C. 458760
D. 485760

177. Following words are written in a code language. Study them carefully and find out the word to the given code.
CAR- фασ
SIT-ŋΨk
WELL-σiyy
MAP – µαβ
Given code: фαyµ
A. CALL
B. CALM
C. CART
D. CARE

178. An aeroplane covers a distance at a 340 kmph in 8 hours. To cover the same distance in 2 2/3 hours, it must travel at what speed ?
A. 660 km/hr
B. 700 km/hr
C. 680 km/hr
D. 1020 km/hr

179. If ‘+’ means ‘÷’; ‘-‘ means ‘+’; ‘x’ means ‘-‘ and ‘÷’ means ‘x’, then, 8÷4-6+3×4=?
A. 4
B. 14
C. 28
D. 30

180. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.
58×12 = 4,37×96 = 5,
11 x20=2, 42 x 12=?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

181. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation 33*11 *3*6 =115
A. + – x
B. x ÷ –
C. ÷ x –
D. – x ÷

182. In each of the following questions, find the missing number from the given responses.

A. 33
B. 22
C. 11
D. 55

183. In each of the following questions, find the missing number from the given responses.

A. 63
B. 24
C. 52
D. 12

184. In each of the following questions, find the missing number from the given responses.

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 15

185. Govind starts from his house towards West. After walking a distance of 25 metres he turned towards right and walked 10 metres. He then turned left and moving a distance of 10 metres, turned to his left again and walked 40 metres. He now turns to the left and walks 5 metres. Finally he turns to his left. In which direction is he walking now ?
A. North
B. South
C. East
D. West

186. ‘A’ walks 10 metres in front and 10 metres to the right. And after walking staright takes a right turn and walks 5 metres. How far is he now from his starting point?
A. 5√5 meter
B. 10 √5 meter
C. 5 meter
D. 5√10 meter

In each of the following questions, one/two statements are given followed by two conclusions/assumptions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.

187. Statements
All cows are animals.
All deers are cows.
Conclusions
I. All deers are animals.
II. All animals are cows.
A. Only conclusion I follows.
B. Only conclusion II follows.
C. Both conclusions I and II follow.
D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

188. Statement:
Regular reading of newspapers enhances one’s general knowledge.
Assumptions
I. Newspaper contains a lot of general knowledge.
II. Enhancement of general knowledge enables success in life.
A. Only I is implicit
B. Only II is implicit
C. Both I and II are implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit

189. Among the four answer figures, which one can be formed from the cut out pieces given below in the question figure ?

190. Four positions of a dice are given below. Identify the number at the bottom when top is 1.

A. 6
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5

191. Find the number of triangles in the given figure :

A. 11
B. 14
C. 16
D. 22 or more

In each of the following questions, identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below.

192. Physician, Physical Education Instructor and Physicist

In each of the following questions, identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below.
193. Profit, Dividend, Bonus.

For the following questions answer them individually

194. In the given figure, the triangle represents Graduates, rectangle represents Married Persons and circle represents Women. What is the number of those Women who are Graduates but not Married?

A. 21
B. 14
C. 32
D. 37

195. In each of the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

196. In each of the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

197. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

198. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

199. If a mirror is places on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

200. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to9 A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. 7 can be represented by 31, 76 etc., and ‘N’ can be represented by 12, 7 etc., Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word given below.
LOVE

A. 23, 12, 67, 68
B. 69, 78, 76, 86
C. 99, 98, 67, 68
D. 14, 30, 67, 68

ANSWER KEY

1. A
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. B
17. B
18. A
19. C
20. D
21. A
22. B
23. D
24. D
25. B
26. C
27. D
28. B
29. C
30. C
31. B
32. B
33. A
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. B
38. B
39. B
40. A
41. C
42. C
43. D
44. C
45. A
46. A
47. C
48. D
49. C
50. B
51. B
52. B
53. D
54. D
55. C
56. C
57. D
58. A
59. D
60. B
61. D
62. A
63. B
64. B
65. C
66. C
67. A
68. B
69. C
70. B
71. C
72. B
73. D
74. C
75. D
76. C
77. A
78. D
79. B
80. C
81. B
82. A
83. A
84. B
85. C
86. A
87. B
88. C
89. A
90. A
91. C
92. B
93. A
94. B
95. A
96. B
97. B
98. B
99. D
100. A
101. C
102. A
103. A
104. B
105. D
106. B
107. A
108. C
109. D
110. B
111. A
112. B
113. C
114. B
115. D
116. B
117. C
118. B
119. C
120. C
121. C
122. C
123. A
124. B
125. A
126. C
127. D
128. B
129. A
130. B
131. C
132. D
133. C
134. D
135. B
136. B
137. A
138. B
139. C
140. B
141. B
142. A
143. D
144. D
145. A
146. B
147. C
148. B
149. E
150. D
151. B
152. C
153. A
154. D
155. A
156. D
157. C
158. B
159. C
160. D
161. C
162. D
163. C
164. C
165. B
166. D
167. C
168. B
169. D
170. D
171. B
172. B
173. C
174. B
175. C
176. D
177. B
178. D
179. D
180. B
181. B
182. D
183. A
184. B
185. A
186. A
187. A
188. A
189. A
190. C
191. D
192. C
193. B
194. B
195. C
196. A
197. B
198. B
199. B
200. D