2014 SSC CGL Tier 1
26 Oct Shift – 2
Question Paper with Answer Key


In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

1. 23: 13: : 54 : ?
A. 40
B. 41
C. 44
D. 39

2. Seismometer: Earthquakes :: Thermometer: ?
A. Mercury
B. Temperature
C. Fever
D. Doctor

3. Play : Actor:: Concert: ?
A. Percussion
B. Symphony
C. Musician
D. Piano

4. DLIP : FNKR : : JROV : ?

5. YAWC : UESG : : QIOK : ?

6. 17:24::153: ?
A. 213
B. 216
C. 118
D. 198

7. In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three alternatives.
A. Duck
B. Avoid
C. Dodge
D. Flee

8. In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three alternatives.
A. 36
B. 96
C. 16
D. 80

9. In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three alternatives.
A. 41, 4
B. 83,6
C. 74, 7
D. 97,9

10. In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three alternatives.

11. In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three alternatives.
A. Emu
B. Penguin
C. Kiwi
D. Eagle

For the following questions answer them individually

12. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following colours ?
1. Indigo
2. Red
3. Violet
4. Blue
5. Green
6. Yellow
7. Orange
A. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2, 6, 7
B. 3, 1, 4, 5, 6, 2, 7
C. 1, 5, 6, 7, 3, 4, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 2

13. Arrange the following word as per order in the English dictionary:
1. Caricature
2. Cardinal
3. Carnivore
4. Cartoon
5. Category
A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
B. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4

14. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

15. In the following series, how many HIG occur in such a way that “I” is in the middle and ‘H’ and ‘G’ are adjacent to it on both sides ?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 5
D. 4

In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

16. 2, 2, 4, 6, ?, 10, 8, 14, 10
A. 6
B. 5
C. 8
D. 7


18. 3, 8, 18, 35, ? , 98
A. 61
B. 71
C. 41
D. 51

19. L, M, N and O are brothers. L is darker than O, N is the fairest of all. M is fairer than O. Who is the darkest of all?
A. N
B. O
C. L
D. M

20. Anjaii says, “He is the only son of the father of my sister’s brother.” How is that person related to Anjaii ?
A. Uncle
B. Cousin
C. Brother
D. Father

21. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.

22. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. THERMODYNAMICS

23. Joan’s age is 42 years and Kelvin’s age is 26 years. How many years ago was Kelvin’s age half of Joan’s age ?
A. 6 years
B. 4 years
C. 10 years
D. 8 years

24. In a certain code, ‘RATIONAL’ is written as ‘RTANIOLA’. How ‘TRIBAL’ would be written in the same code. ?

25. If ‘INDUS’ is coded as ‘03865’ and ‘TENNIS’ is coded as ‘243305’, then what will be the code for ‘STUDENT ?
A. 5628342
B. 5648324
C. 5268432
D. 5642832

26. Given below are capital letters in the first line and symbols in the second line. Symbols and letters are codes for each other. Choose the correct code for the word : HEIGHT

A. = ÷ ( x =II
B. = x ( x =II
C. = ÷(x II =
D. = x(÷ = II

27. In a school, the bell is rung once after each half an hour. The school starts at 8:00 a.m. and closes at 1:30 p.m. The bell is rung 3 times continuously, at the time of beginning, at the time of lunch break at 10:00 and 10:30 a.m. and at the end. How many times is the bell rung every day?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 19
D. 20

28. Some letters are given with numbers from 2 to 9. Select the sequence of numbers which arranges the letters into a meaningful word.

A. 3, 4, 6, 2, 9, 5, 8, 5, 2, 9, 7
B. 3, 6, 2, 4, 2, 9, 5, 7, 5, 9, 8
C. 3, 4, 2, 2, 6, 5, 9, 7, 8, 9, 5
D. 3, 4, 2, 6, 5, 9, 2, 8, 5,7,9

29. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following equation:
(√121 *9) *5* 4*1
A. – + x =
B. + ÷ x =
C. = + x ÷
D. – x + =

30. If ‘-‘ stands for ‘division’, ‘+’ stands for ‘multiplication’, ‘÷’ stands for ‘subtraction’, ‘x’ stands for ‘addition’, then which one of the following equations is correct ?
A. 36×4-12 + 5 ÷3=420
B. 52 ÷ 4+ 5 x8-2 = 36
C. 36-12×6÷3 + 4 = 60
D. 43×7÷5 + 4- 8 = 25

31. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis
5 Θ 3=-7;3 Θ 7=-11;7 Θ 11=?
A. -59
B. 77
C. – 15
D. D 18

32. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 24
B. 16
C. 42
D. 63

33. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 4
B. 3
C. 7
D. 6

34. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 77
B. 35.
C. 69
D. 80

For the following questions answer them individually

35. Some statements are given followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions if any, follow from the given statements. Indicate your answer.
Statements :
All chickens are birds. Some chickens are hens. Female birds lay eggs.
Conclusions :
I. All birds lay eggs.
II. Some hens are birds.
III. Some chickens are not hens.
A. Conclusions II and III both follow
B. All conclusions I, II and III follow
C. Only conclusion 1 follows
D. Only conclusion II follows

36. A man is facing South. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then 180° in the clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now ?
A. South – East
B. South – West
C. North – East
D. North – West

37. Raju cycled 10 km South from his house, turned right and went 5 km and again turned right and cycled 10 km and then turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometres will he have to cycle back to reach his house ?
A. 10 km
B. 15 km
C. 20 km
D. 15 km

38. “If a person is rich, he has a lot of influence.”
What inference can you draw from the above statement ?
A. Kamala is rich, so she has a lot of influence.
B. Poor people cannot have influence.
C. Ram has a lot of influence, so he is rich.
D. Govind is not rich, so he does not have a lot of influence.

39. How many triangle are there in the given figure ?

A. 11
B. 12 or more
C. 9
D. 10

40. Among the four answer figures, which one can be formed from the cut out pieces given below in the question figure ?

41. Choose the cube which will be formed on folding the given question figure.

42. In the given figure, which letter represents those Nurses who are Doctors as well as Pharmacists?

A. R
B. S
C. P
D. 9

43. In the following questions, identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the classes given below.
Duck, Penguin, Bird

44. In the following questions, identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the classes given below.
Profit, Dividend, Bonus

45. In each of the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

46. In each of the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

For the following questions answer them individually

47. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

48. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

49. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. ‘A’ can be represented by 03, 34, 86, etc. and can be represented by 12, 65, 79, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the given word. REST

A. 55, 43, 23, 69
B. 98, 56, 31, 77
C. 10, 02, 69, 88
D. 55, 22, 99, 33

50. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given question figure ?


51. A unit price elastic demand curve will touch
A. both price and quantity axis
B. neither price axis, nor quantity axis
C. only price axis
D. only quantity axis

52. India follows the policy of non-alignment which implies.
A. being a third world power
B. choosing its own policies
C. neutrality towards power blocs
D. bringing peace and amity to the world

53. If the supply curve is a straight line passing through the origin, then the price elasticity of supply will be
A. less than unity
B. infinitely large
C. greater than unity
D. equal to unity

54. According to Modern Theory of Rent, rent accrues to
A. capital only
B. any factor
C. labour only
D. land only

55. The book which is at the centrepiece of the study of Macro – Economic was written by
A. Prof. Samuelson
B. Prof. J.M. Keynes
C. Prof. Ben ham
D. Prof. Baumol

56. The basic problem studied in Macro – Economics is
A. production of income
B. usage of income
C. flow of income
D. distribution of income

57. The number of subjects incorporated in the Union List is
A. 97
B. 102
C. 812
D. 89

58. Who was the French Governor of Pondicherry. Who tried to make the French Company as a powerful company ?
A. Thomas Arthur, Comte de Lally
B. Godeheu
C. La Bourdonnais
D. Joseph Francois Dupleix

59. The most powerful Peshwa was
A. Balaji Baji Rao
B. Baji Rao
C. Madhava Rao
D. Balaji Vishwanath

60. Democratic Socialism aims at
A. bringing about Socialism through peaceful means
B. bringing about Socialism through violent and peaceful means
C. bringing about Socialism through violent means
D. bringing about Socialism through democratic means

61. Two – Party System is found in
A. Russia
B. U.S.A.
C. India
D. France

62. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by the
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
C. Prime Minister
D. President

63. What are the folds found in the mucous lining of the empty stomach ?
A. Typhlosole
B. Areolae
C. Rugae
D. Villi

64. The first Mysore War fought between the British and Hy-der AM in 1767 – 69 A.D., came to an end by the
A. Treaty of Pondicherry
B. Treaty of Madras
C. Treaty of Mysore
D. Treaty of Aix – la – Chapelle

65. The British Government intervened in the affairs of the Company and passed an Act in 1773 A.D., known as the
A. Regulating Act
B. Pitt’s India Act
C. Charter Act
D. Company Act

66. Sher Shah defeated Humayun and captured Gaur in the battle of
A. Ghaghra in 1529 A.D.
B. Chausa in 1539 A.D.
C. Panipat in 1526 A.D.
D. Khanwa in 1527 A.D.

67. Identify the most infertile amongst the following soils.
A. Black cotton soil
B. Alluvial soil
C. Laterite soil
D. Peaty soil

68. Spot the odd item of the following :
A. Shale
B. Marble
C. Limestone
D. Sandstone

69. Which of the following reasons is responsible for lack of vegetation in the deserts ?
A. Heavy volume of sands
B. Absence of B-horizon in the soil
C. High temperature
D. Lack of rainfall

70. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
A. Khadar – Zonal soil
B. Podzol – Zonal soil
C. Chestnut – Zonal soil
D. Bhangar – Azonal soil

71. Select the correct direction of Sirocco storm.
A. Sahara to Mediterranean Sea
B. North from U.S.A.
C. West from Sahara
D. Adriatic Sea to Italy

72. Which among the following is an abiotic factor ?
A. Mites
B. Moisture
C. Insects
D. Rodents

73. Leaves of many grasses are capable of folding and unfolding because
A. their mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
B. they have stomata on both sides of the leaf
C. they have high levels of silica
D. they have specialised bulliforrn cells

74. Pleura is the covering of
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Heart

75. Which one of the following is an egg-laying mammal ?
A. Sloth
B. Duck – billed platypus
C. kangaroo
D. Bandicoot

76. The moderator used in a nuclear reactor is
A. Uranium
B. Radium
C. Ordinary water
D. Graphite

77. Solar eclipse occurs when
A. the Moon does not lie on the line joining the Sun and the Earth
B. the Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth
C. the Sun comes between the Moon and the Earth
D. the Earth comes between the Moon and the Sun

78. An aspect of Input/output controller of data logic is called
A. General Buffering
B. Zero Buffering
C. Buffering
D. Data Buffering

79. What does BIOS stand for ?
A. Basic Internal Output System
B. Basic Intra Operating System
C. Basic Internal Organ System
D. Basic Input Output System

80. The device used to convert solar energy into electricity is
A. Photovoltaic cell
B. Daniel cell
C. Electrochemical cell
D. Galvanic cell

81. The type of kidneys present in frog are
A. Mesonephros
B. Metanephros
C. Archinephros
D. Pronephros

82. A spinning neutron star is known as
A. White dwarf
B. Black hole
C. Pulsar
D. Quasar

83. Light year is a unit of
A. Light
B. Current
C. Distance
D. Time

84. The chemical name of ‘Plaster of Paris” commonly used for setting broken bones is
A. Calcium nitrate
B. Calcium sulphate
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Calcium chloride

85. In our country the Van Mahotsav’ Day is observed on
A. 10th August
B. 1st July
C. 2nd October
D. 1st December

86. Medicine of Quinine is provided by
A. Cinchona plant
B. Money plant
C. Eucalyptus plant
D. Aconite plants

87. The apparatus used to test acidity of aqueous solution is
A. pH meter
B. Ammeter
C. Hygrometer
D. Acid meter

88. The Hutti Gold mines are located in the State of
A. Karnataka
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Maharashtra

89. Who was the first recipient of ‘Mahathir Award’ for Global Peace in August 2013 ?
A. Malala Yousafzai
B. John Boehner
C. Howard Stern
D. Nelson Mandela

90. Process through which plants reproduce
A. Pollination
B. Condensation
C. Eating
D. Evaporation

91. Which river serves the largest cultivable area ?
A. Ganga
B. Saiyu
C. Godavari
D. Krishna

92. In August 2013, who won the International Children’s Peace Prize ?
A. Malala yousafzai
B. Angela Merkel
C. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
D. Silvio Berlusconi

93. Who is the present President of Pakistan ?
A. Asif All Zardari
B. Nawaz Sharif
C. Raza Rabbani
D. Mamnoon Hussain

94. Who had been selected for the Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award 2013 ?
A. Amjad All Khan
B. Gautam Ghosh
C. Aashish Khan
D. Muzaffar Ali

95. Who was elected as the Ninth President of International Olympic Committee (IOC) on 10th September 2013?
A. Thomas Bach
B. Ching – Kuo – Wu
C. Serge’ Bubka
D. Richard Carrion

96. The Indian Grandmaster who won the Commonwealth Chess Championship in 2013 is
A. Koneru Humpy
B. Magnus Carlsen
C. Abhijeet Gupta
D. Vishwanathan Anand

97. Who had been selected for the Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony in 2013?
A. Kiran Bedi
B. Chetan Anand
C. Zubin Mehta
D. Anita Desai

98. Who won the U.S. Open Men’s Singles in 2013 in Lawn Tennis ?
A. Andy Murray
B. Roger Federer
C. Rafael Nadal
D. Novak Djokovic

99. On which date did the Rajya Sabha pass ” The Marriage Laws” (Amendment) Bill 2012 ?
A. 18th August, 2013
B. 5th August, 2013
C. 26th August. 2013
D. 23rd August, 2013

100. Which of the following was the first Indian exclusive defence satellite which was successfully launched on 29 August, 2013?
A. GSAT – 7
B. MIG – 47
C. GSET – 4
D. GSAT – 6


101. Solve for 3^x – 3^x-1 = 486
A. 7
B. 9
C. 5
D. 6

102. A can do a piece of work in 4 days and B can do it in 12 days. In how many days will they finish the work, both working together?
A. 4 days
B. 6 days
C. 2 days
D. 3 days

103. A can do 1/4 of a work in 10 days. B can do 1/3 of the work in 20 days. In how many days can both A and B together do the work?
A. 30 days
B. 32 days
C. 24 days
D. 25 days

104. A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 20 days and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 20 more days. A alone can finish the work in
A. 60 days
B. 54 days
C. 48 days
D. 50 days

105. A circular wire of diameter 112 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 9 : 7. The smaller side of the rectangle is
A. 77 cm
B. 97 cm
C. 67 cm
D. 87 cm

106. A piece of cloth measured with a metre stick, one cm short, is 100 metres long. Reckoning the metre stick as being right, the actual length of the cloth (in cm) is
A. 3,900
B. 9,900
C. 8,000
D. 6, 100

107. A parallelogram has sides 60 m and 40m and one of its diagonals is 80 m long. Its area is
A. 500 √15 sq. m
B. 600 √15 sq. m
C. 400 √15 sq. m
D. 450 √15 sq. m

108. The cost price of a table is 3,200. A merchant wants to make 25 % profit by selling it. At the time of sale he declares a discount of 20 % on the marked price. The marked price (in r)
A. 5,000
B. 6,000
C. 4,000
D. 4,500

109. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 12.5 % on the marked price of a certain article and makes a profit of 20 %. If the article costs the shopkeeper 210, then the marked price of the article will be
A. 387
B. 350
C. 386
D. 288

110. A businessman allows a discount of 10 % on the marked price. What percent above the cost price must he mark his goods to make a profit of 17 per cent ?
A. 27 %
B. 18%
C. 30 %
D. 20 %

111. Some bricks are arranged in an area measuring 20 cu. m. If the length, breadth and height of each brick is 25 cm, 12.5 cm and 8 cm respectively, then in that pile the number of bricks are (suppose there is no gap in between two bricks)
A. 6,000
B. 8,000
C. 4.000
D. 10.000

112. The average salary, per head, of all the workers of an institution is 60. The average salary of 12 officers is = 400; the average salary, per head, of the rest is 56. The total number of workers in the institution is
A. 1030
B. 1035
C. 1020
D. 1032

113. Charging 30% above its production cost a radio maker puts a label of 286 on a radio as its price. But at the time of selling it, he allows 10% discount on the labelled price. What will his gain be?
A. 257 .40
B. 254. 40
C. 198
D. 37. 40

114. In an election, a candidate who gets 84 % of the votes is elected by a majority of 476 votes. What is the total number of votes polled?
A. 900
B. 810
C. 600
D. 700

115. A man having height 169 cm is standing near a pole. He casts a shadow 130 cm long. What is the length of the pole if it gives a shadow 420 cm long?
A. 550 cm
B. 589 cm
C. 323 cm
D. 546 cm

116. 555 was to be divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 1/4 :1/5 :1/6. But by mistake it was divided in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6. The amount in excess received by C was
A. 72
B. 75
C. 22
D. 52

117. The average of 50 numbers is 38. If two numbers, namely 45 and 55 are discarded, the average of the remaining numbers is
A. 37.5
B. 37.9
C. 36.5
D. 37.0

118. In what time will 8,000, at 3% per annum, produce the same interest as 6, 000 does in 5 years at 4 % simple interest ?
A. 5 years
B. 6 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years

119. The reciprocal of x + 1/x
A. x/x^2+1
B. x/x+1
C. x-1/x
D. 1/x+ x

A. 3
B. 3/2
C. 1
D. ½

A. a
B. 1-a
C. 1
D. 0

A. 3
B. 9
C. 6
D. 12

123. A speed of 45 Km/hr is the same as
A. 12.5 metre/second
B. 13 metre/second
C. 15 metre/second
D. 12 metre/second

124. A train travelling of 55 km/hr travels X to place Y speed is increased km/hr., then the time of journey is reduced by
A. 25 minutes
B. 35 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes

125. If a, b, c are positive and a+ b + c= 1, then the least value 1/a + 1/b + 1/c is
A. 9
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1

126. In a ΔABC, ∠A+ ∠B = 118° ∠A + ∠C = 96°. find the value of ∠A.
A. 36°
B. 40°
C. 30°
D. 34°

127. In ΔABC, if AD ⊥ BC, then AB^2 + CD^2 is equal
A. BD^2
B. BD^2 + AC^2
C. 2AC^2 75°
D. None to these 15°

128. ABC is an equilateral triangle and CD is the internal bisec tor of L C. If DC is produced to E such that AC = CE, then ∠CAE is equal to
A. 45°
B. 75°
C. 30°
D. 15°

129. If x(x – 3) = -1, than the value of x^3 (x^3 – 18) is
A. -1
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0

130. The value of (1001)^3 is
A. 1003003001
B. 100303001
C. 100300301
D. 103003001

131. If a (2+ √3) = b (2 – √3) then the value of 1/(a^2+1)+1/(b^2+1) is
A. -5
B. 1
C. 4
D. 9

132. If x sin^2 60° – 3/2 sec 60° tan^2 30° + 4/5 sin^2 45° tan^2 60° = 0 then x is
A. -1/15
B. -4
C. -4/15
D. -2

133. If ΔABC is right – angle at B, AB = 6 units, ∠C = 30° then AC is equal to
A. 12 units
B. 15 units
C. 8 units
D. 10 units

134. If 7 sin a = 24 cos a; 0 < a < π/2, then the value of 14 tan a – 24 sec a is equal to
A. 31
B. 46
C. 14
D. 41

135. ∠ACB is an angle in the semicircle of diameter AB = 5 and AC : BC = 3 : 4. The area of the triangle ABC is
A. 6.5 sq. cm
B. 4 sq. cm
C. 12 sq.cm
D. 6 sq. cm

136. A, B and C are three points on a circle such that the angles subtended by the chords AB and AC at the centre 0 are 90° and 110° respectively. Further suppose that the centre ‘0’ lies in the interior L BAC. The L BAC is
A. 40°
B. 80°
C. 160°
D. 20°

137. If the lengths of the sides AB, BC and CA of a triangle ABC are 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm respectively and if M is the mid – point of BC and MN II AB to cut AC at N, then the area of the trapezium ABMN is equal to
A. 30 sq. cm.
B. 20 sq. cm.
C. 12 sq.cm.
D. 16 sq. cm.

138. A type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors such that each sector represents a proportion of the whole is a
A. Line graph
B. Stem and leaf chart
C. Bar graph
D. Pie chart

139. The value of x which satisfies the equation 2 csc^2 30° + x sin^2 60° – 3/4 tan^2 30° = 10 is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 0
D. 1

140. If 2 sin Ө + cos Ө – 7/3 then the value of (tan^2 Ө — sec^2 Ө) is
A. 0
B. -1
C. 3/7
D. 7/3

141. From a point 20 m away from the foot of a tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 30°. The height of the tower is
A. 10 √3 m
B. 20 √3 m
C. 10/√3 m
D. 20/√3 m

142. If 29 tan Ө = 31, then the value of 1+2sinӨcosӨ/1-2sinӨcosӨ
A. 810
B. 900
C. 540
D. 490

143. The categories of qualitative variables are represented by bars where the height of each bar
A. Class frequency
B. Class percentage
C. Class relative frequency
D. All of the above

144. In a cyclic quadrilateral ∠A+∠C=∠B+∠D=?

A. 270°
B. 360°
C. 90°
D. 180°

145. In the given figure, ∠ONY = 50° and ∠OMY = 15°. Then the value of the ∠MON is

A. 30°
B. 40°
C. 20°
D. 70°

The distribution of fruit consumption in a sample of 72 seventeen – year – old girls is given in the graph below. Study the graph and answer the questions.
Distribution of fruit consumption

146. How many of these girls ate fewer than two servings per day ?
A. 15
B. 40
C. 25
D. None of these

The distribution of fruit consumption in a sample of 72 seventeen – year – old girls is given in the graph below. Study the graph and answer the questions.
Distribution of fruit consumption

147. What percent of these girls ate six or more servings per day ?
A. 12.5%
B. 13%
C. 10%
D. 11%

The distribution of fruit consumption in a sample of 72 seventeen – year – old girls is given in the graph below. Study the graph and answer the questions.
Distribution of fruit consumption

148. How many of these girls ate more than two servings but less than six servings per day?
A. 26
B. 18
C. 23
D. 38

149. The following pie-chart shows the monthly expenditure of a family on food, clothing, rent, miscellaneous expenses and savings. What is the central angle for savings?

A. 54°
B. 56°
C. 50°
D. 52°

150. The pie – chart gives the expenditure (in percentage) on various items and savings of a family during a month. Monthly savings of the family is 3,000. On which item is the expenditure maximum and how much is it?

A. Others, 2.000
B. Food, 3,000
C. Others, 5,000
D. Food, 5,000


In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is d) i.e. No error.

151. The new device (a)/ aims at eliminating (b)/ the risk of short – circuiting, (c) / No error (d)
A. The new device
B. aims at eliminating.
C. the risk of short – circuiting
D. No error

152. I wish to heartily (a)/ congratulate you for (b)/ your astounding success, (c)/No error (d)
A. I wish to heartily a
B. congratulate you for
C. your astounding success
D. No error

153. The visitor took the vacant seat (a)/ next from mine (b)/ one of the many huge sofas in the room, (c)/ No error (d)
A. The visitor took the vacant seat
B. next from mine
C. one of the many huge sofas in the room
D. No error

154. He was (a)/ a learnt man among lords, (b)/ and a lord among learned men. (c)/No error (d)
A. He was
B. a learnt man among lords
C. and a lord among learned men
D. No error

155. With our great annoyance (a)/ we found the ground (b)/ filled with broken glasses, (c)/ No error (d)
A. With our great annoyance
B. we found the ground
C. filled with broken glasses
D. No error

In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

156. Her true feelings manifested themselves in her sarcastic remarks, only then was her……. revealed.
A. sarcasm
B. charm
C. sweetness
D. bitterness

157. The book provides an overview of European wines that should prove inviting to both the virtual………. and the experienced connoisseur.
A. Zealot
B. glutton
C. prodigal
D. novice

158. The sun is shining brightly, please……….. the light.
A. take off
B. put on
C. put off
D. put out

159. This practice was brought………to prevent certain abuses.
A. Down
B. off
C. about
D. in

160. This package was supposed………….. yesterday.
A. to be delivering
B. not to be delivered
C. to have been delivered
D. to deliver

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

161. Garble
A. Confuse
B. Hide
C. Communicate
D. Explain

162. Pinnacle
A. Capsule
B. Heart
C. Summit
D. Pit

163. Brutalize
A. Stir
B. Ill-treat
C. Devise
D. Strike

In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word as your answer.

164. Denounce
A. Signify
B. Confirm
C. Grant
D. Praise

165. Abandon
A. Cease
B. Initiate
C. Confront
D. Confiscate

166. Seamy
A. Honest
B. Pure
C. unpleasant
D. Sincere

In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase.

167. The secretary’s thoughtless remark added fuel to the fire.
A. added humour to the situation
B. worsened the difficult situation
C. helped in improving the situation
D. prevented the situation

168. He could not get money from his master because he rubbed him up the wrong way.
A. irked or irritated him
B. asked him to speed up
C. suggested a wrong method
D. advised him to be strict 168.

169. Ask Mr. Das. He can give you all the news you need : he is always in the swim.
A. giving news to others
B. at the swimming pool
C. in search of news
D. well-informed and up-to-date

170. You have been trying to solve this puzzle for a long time, be careful so that you avoid barking up the wrong tree.
A. trying to solve problems
B. trying to find something at a wrong place
C. keep working constantly
D. climbing the wrong tree

171. I’ll be able to do my job very well when I know the ropes.
A. become bolder
B. work in silence
C. learn the procedures
D. gain confidence

In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d).

172. Ram filled ink into his pen before leaving for school.
A. filled ink in his pen
B. filled ink on his pen
C. filled his pen with ink
D. No improvement

173. The toys he bought for Suzy are too good to be cheap.
A. are so much good to be cheap
B. were so good to be cheap
C. are so good that to be cheap
D. No improvement

174. I did one mistake in the dictation test today.
A. I made a mistake in
B. I did a mistake at
C. I did a mistake in
D. No improvement

175. John has been detained at a meeting.
A. by the meeting
B. in meeting
C. on a meeting
D. No improvement

176. The butler was as devoted as a faithful dog.
A. a faithful cat
B. a faithful friend
C. a faithful pet
D. No improvement

177. The government representative furnished the reporters all details.
A. provided the reporters all details
B. furnished the reporters with all the details
C. furnished reporters all details
D. No improvement

178. It was raining so heavily yesterday that I could not move out for my usual walk.
A. I could not go out for my usual walk
B. I could not go to my usual walk
C. I could not move for my usual walk
D. No improvement

179. There is an error in grammar in this sentence.
A. a written error
B. a grammatical error
C. a grammar error
D. No improvement

180. He denied that he had not forged my signature.
A. would not forge
B. did not forge
C. had forged
D. No improvement

181. To his astonishment and admiration he got the information that it was only the picture of a curtain.
A. found
B. received the information
C. saw clearly
D. No improvement

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

182. Study of caves
A. Speleology
B. Seismology
C. Topology
D. Numismatics

183. Government by the few
A. Oligarchy
B. Autocracy
C. Monarchy
D. Anarchy

184. Materials that change naturally by the action of bacteria
A. Inflammable
B. Perishable
C. Biological
D. Biodegradable

185. Having a stale smell or taste
A. Rancid
B. Insipid
C. Savoury
D. Tepid

186. A wooden object used for connecting animals that are pulling a vehicle
A. Rein
B. Leash
C. Whip
D. Yoke

187. A man who knows a lot about things like food, music and art
A. Priest
B. Optimist
C. Hostage
D. Connoisseur

188. A doctor who specializes in diseases of the nose
A. Rhinologist
B. Otologist
C. Pathologist
D. Podiatrist

In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

A. Inteligibelity
B. Inteligibillity
C. Intelligibility
D. Inteligibility

A. Exterpate
B. Extirpeit
C. Extirpate
D. Extripaite

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
A crucial element that defines the soap opera is the open ended nature of the narrative, with stories spanning several episodes. One of the defining features that makes a television program a soap opera, according to Albert Moran is “that form of television that works with a continuous open narrative. Each episode ends with a promise that the storyline is to be continued in another episode.”
In 2012, Robert Lloyd of the Los Angeles Times wrote of daily dramas, “Although melodramatically eventful, soap operas such as this also have a luxury of space that makes them seem more naturalistic, indeed, the economics of the form demand long scenes, and conversations that a 22- episodes-per – season weekly series might dispense with in half a dozen lines of dialogue may he drawn out, as here, for pages. You spend more time even with the minor characters, the apparent villains grow less apparently villainous.”
Soap opera storylines run concurrently, intersect and lead into further developments. An individual episode of a soap opera will generally switch between several different concurrent narrative threads that may at times interconnect and effect one another or may run entirely independent of each other. Evening soap operas and serials that run for only a part of the year tend to bring things to a dramatic end of season cliff-hanger.

191. A soap opera has the space for it to be more
A. Artistic
B. Naturalistic
C. Dramatic
D. Tragic

192. The economics of a soap opera form demands for it to have
A. long scenes
B. luxurious space
C. melodramatic events
D. promising storylines

193. An individual episode of a soap opera generally switches between
A. more time spent with minor characters.
B. apparent villains that grow less apparent villainous.
C. successive intersections of events.
D. different concurrent narrative threads.

194. Soap operas that run for a part of the year usually end in
A. a cliff
B. an episode
C. a cliffhanger
D. a sequence

195. What does the author mean by the open – ended nature of soap operas ?
A. Each episode ends with a promise that the storyline is to be continued in another episode
B. Every episode has a different story
C. Every episode ends abruptly
D. Consecutive episodes have no connection

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Two or three days and nights went by; I reckon I might say they swum by, they slid along so quiet and smooth and lovely. Here is the way we put it in the time. It was a monstrous big river down there sometimes a mile and a half wide; we ran nights, and laid up and hid daytimes; soon as night was most gone we stopped navigating and tied up – nearly always in the dead water under a towhead; and then cut young cottonwoods and willows, and hid the raft with them. Then we set out the lines. Next we slid into the river and had a swim, so as to freshen up and cool off; then we set down on the sandy bottom where the water was about knee deep and watched the daylight come. Not a sound anywhere – perfectly still just like the whole world was asleep only sometimes the bullfrogs a cluttering maybe.
The first thing to see, looking away over the water was a kind of dull line – that was the woods on U other side; you couldn’t make nothing else out; then a pale place in the sky; then more paleness spreading around; then the river softened up away off, and wasn’t black any more, but gray; you could see little dark spots drifting along ever so far away – trading scows and such things and long black streaks – rafts; sometimes you could hear a sweep creaking or jumbled up voices, it was so still and sounds come so far and by and by you could see a streak on the water which you know by the look of the streak that there’s a snag there in a swift current which breaks on it and makes that streak look that way.

196. They stopped navigating
A. at night
B. at dusk
C. at daytime
D. at dawn

197. After a swim in the moor they
A. A set down on the sandy bottom where the water was about ankle deep and watched the daylight come.
B. set down on the sandy bottom where the water was about knee deep and watched the daylight come.
C. set down on the sandy shore and watched the daylight come.
D. set down on the sandy bottom and watched the daylight come.

198. In the stillness of the night
A. sounds come so far
B. the bullfrogs also were asleep
C. the whole world was asleep
D. a sweep creaking or jumbled up voices could be heard

199. The streak on the water looks as it does because
A. the swift current has broken the streak
B. the streak has been swept by the swift current to the shore.
C. of a snag there in the swift current which breaks on it.
D. the streak has been swept by the swift current.

200. How did the days and nights go by, according to the writer?
A. They slid along so quiet and smooth and lovely.
B. They slid along so smooth and quietly.
C. They slid along so smooth and soft and quietly.
D. They slid along so quietly and smooth and softly.


1. C
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. D
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. A
19. C
20. C
21. A
22. A
23. C
24. A
25. C
26. A
27. D
28. D
29. B
30. B
31. A
32. D
33. A
34. A
35. D
36. B
37. D
38. A
39. B
40. D
41. C
42. A
43. A
44. D
45. D
46. C
47. A
48. D
49. D
50. D
51. B
52. C
53. D
54. B
55. B
56. A
57. A
58. D
59. B
60. D
61. B
62. D
63. C
64. B
65. A
66. B
67. C
68. B
69. D
70. A
71. A
72. B
73. D
74. A
75. B
76. C
77. B
78. C
79. D
80. A
81. A
82. C
83. C
84. B
85. B
86. A
87. A
88. A
89. D
90. A
91. A
92. A
93. D
94. A
95. A
96. C
97. C
98. C
99. C
100. A
101. D
102. D
103. C
104. A
105. A
106. B
107. B
108. A
109. D
110. C
111. B
112. D
113. D
114. D
115. D
116. A
117. A
118. A
119. A
120. D
121. D
122. B
123. A
124. C
125. A
126. D
127. B
128. D
129. A
130. A
131. B
132. C
133. A
134. D
135. D
136. B
137. A
138. D
139. B
140. B
141. D
142. B
143. D
144. D
145. D
146. C
147. A
148. C
149. A
150. D
151. C
152. B
153. B
154. B
155. A
156. D
157. D
158. D
159. D
160. B
161. A
162. C
163. B
164. D
165. B
166. B
167. B
168. A
169. D
170. B
171. C
172. C
173. D
174. A
175. D
176. D
177. B
178. A
179. B
180. C
181. B
182. A
183. A
184. D
185. A
186. D
187. D
188. A
189. C
190. C
191. B
192. A
193. D
194. C
195. A
196. A
197. B
198. C
199. C
200. A