2014 SSC CGL Tier 1
27 Apr Shift – 1
Question Paper with Answer Key
PART – A GENERAL AWARENESS
1. The type of fruit obtained from a muiticarpillary, apocarpous gynaecium is:
A. composite
B. aggregate
C. simple
D. multiple
2. The threshold frequency is the frequency below which :
A. photo current increases with voltage
B. photo current decreases with voltage
C. photo electric emission is not possible
D. photo current is constant
3. Sir C. V. Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for his work on:
A. Light Scattering
B. Radio activity
C. Cryogenics
D. Sonometer
4. Tesla is a unit of magnetic :
A. Flux
B. Induction
C. Moment
D. Field
5. The percentage of carbon in cost iron is :
A. 0.01 to 0.25
B. 0.5 to 1.5
C. 6 to 8
D. 3 to 5
6. The damage of the human body due to radiation X-rays or g- rays etc,) is measured in :
A. Reins
B. Roentgen
C. Curie
D. Rads
7. The Minimum Support Price for food grains was introduced in the year
A. 1944
B. 1964
C. 1974
D. 1954
8. Total assembly segments in Delhi are :
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 40
9. Transition ions absorb light in :
A. infrared region
B. ultraviolet region
C. microwave region
D. visible region
10. Virtually treeless, sparse vegetation is found in :
A. Taiga
B. Alpine
C. Tundra
D. Chapparal
11. Flywheel is an important part of a steam engine’ because it:
A. accelerates the speed of the engine
B. helps the engine in keeping the speed uniform
C. decreases the moment of inertia
D. gives strength to the engine
12. Soil factors are otherwise known as :
A. Edaphic factors
B. Biotic factors
C. Physiographic factors
D. Climatic factors
13. Who benefits the most during the inflationary period ?
A. corporate servants
B. creditors
C. entrepreneurs
D. government servants
14. Which of the following does not have a Stupa ?
A. Ranchi
B. Sanchi
C. Barhut
D. Dhamek
15. The plants, which grow under water stress conditions of deserts are :
A. Epiphytes
B. Xerophytes
C. Heliophytes
D. Sciophytes
16. Coupling and repulsion are the two states of:
A. linkage
B. chiasma
C. mutation
D. crossing over
17. The freezing point of fresh water is
A. 4°C
B. 3°C
C. 5°C
D. 0°C
18. Stamens are fused with each other by their anthers and also with the petals in :
A. Leguminosae
B. Liliaceous
C. Composite
D. Euphorbiaceous
19. Deficiency of iron causes :
A. Goitre
B. Polio
C. Rickets
D. Scurvy
20. Which of the following books is not written by Jawaharlal Nehru ?
A. Discovery of India
B. My Experiments with truth
C. An Autobiography
D. Glimpses of World History
21. ‘Democratic Centralism’ is an important feature of a :
A. Communist state
B. Democratic state
C. Totalitarian’ state
D. socialist state
22. The Constitution of India, describes India as :
A. A Federation
B. A quasi-federal
C. Unitary
D. Union of states
23. ‘Shadow Cabinet is the feature of Administrative system of:
A. Britain
B. USA
C. France
D. Japan
24. Which National Highway is called Shershah Sun Marg ?
A. National Highway No. 3
B. National Highway No. 8
C. National Highway No. 7
D. National Highway No. 1
25. Which of the followings is not correct ?
A. NMA-National Monuments Authority
B. PIL-Public Interest Litigation
C. NOT-National Growth Tribunal
D. MSP-Minimum Support Price
26. An increase in the quantity supplied suggests :
A. a leftward shift of the supply curve
B. a movement up along the supply curve
C. a movement down along the supply curve
D. a rightward shift of the supply curve
27. Who was the Delhi Sultan to impose Jizya even on the Brahmins?
A. Ala-ud-din Khilji
B. Firuz Tughluq
C. Muhammad Tughluq
D. Balban
28. Dactyl gram is related with :
A. teleprinter
B. perambulator
C. cereals
D. finger print
29. Which body is constituted by the President of India to advise on the decision of Central Resources between the centre and the state?
A. Tariff Commission
B. Finance Commission
C. Planning Commission
D. Taxation Enquiry Commission
30. “Ryder Cup” is awarded to the players of:
A. Baseball
B. Basketball
C. Cards
D. Golf
31. The site of birth [nativity) of Gautam Buddha is marked by :
A. a monastery
B. a “Rummindei Pillar” of Ashok Maurya
C. a statue
D. a Peepal Tree
32. Preparation of butter, ghee by a household for their own use is a part of:
A. own-account production
B. household capital formation
C. industrial production
D. consumption
33. Potato was introduced to Europe by :
A. Portuguese
B. Germans
C. Spanish
D. Dutch
34. The current spell of cold wave in the US has been a fall out of the :
A. polar vortex
B. biodiversity and habitats
C. climate and energy
D. political administration
35. “Krishi Karman Award” 201213 for all time record in food grain production was given to :
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Haryana
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Odisha
36. Consumer Protection Act 1986, was amended in :
A. 1992
B. 1993
C. 1994
D. 1991
37. The compound that has the least value for octane number is :
A. 2 -methyl heptanes
B. Iso-octane
C. 2,2-dimethyl hexane
D. n-heptane
38. The unit of noise pollution (level) is :
A. decibel
B. decimal
C. PPm
D. None of these
39. Which one of the following is used as secondary storage system in computer ?
A. RAM
B. Floppy
C. EPROM
D. ROM
40. Where does the cabbage store food?
A. Leaves
B. Stem
C. Fruit
D. Root
41. Who among the following is the founder of the “Azad Hind Fauj”?
A. Lala Har Dayal
B. Subash Chandra Bose
C. Vir Savarkar
D. Chandrashekhar Azad
42. The production, marketing, storage, advertising and consumption of smokeless tobacco is banned in:
A. Assam
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Nagaland
D. Meghalaya
43. The pair of compounds used as anaesthetic in medicines:
A. Ether, Ammonia
B. Nitrous oxide, Chloroform
C. Chloroform, Nitrogen dioxide
D. Nitrogen dioxide, ether
44. In relation to the State Government, local government exercises :
A. Co-ordinate Authority
B. Delegated Authority
C. Superior Authority
D. Independent Authority
45. Study of organisms in relation to their environment is called :
A. Ecology
B. Zoology
C. Entomology
D. Palynology
46. Who is known as the Father of ‘Indian Unrest’ ?
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Lalalajpat Rai
C. Aurobindo Ghosh
D. Bipin Chandrapal
47. Obsidian, Andesite, Gabbro and Perodite are :
A. Metamorphic rocks
B. Intrusive rocks
C. Sedimentary rocks
D. Extrusive rocks
48. Who said that “Where there is no Law there will not be Liberty”?
A. Karl Marx
B. Plato
C. Machiavelli
D. John Locke
49. The UNIX operating system is suitable for:
A. Multi user
B. Real-Time Processing
C. Distributed Processing
D. Single user
50. Section of IPC, which deals with LGBT (Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual and Transgender) community is :
A. 377
B. 376
C. 370
D. None of these
PART – B ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is d: i.e. No error.
51. After tasting both /(a) John prefers (b)/ tea than coffee. / (c) No error (d)
A. After tasting both
B. John prefers
C. Tea than coffee
D. No error
52. I loved/(a) the drawings/(b) they were so real, /(c) No error (d)
A. I loved
B. the drawings
C. they were so real
D. No error
53. Suddenly they saw a car corning /(a) at a break neck speed./An old man were crossing the road at the zebra crossing, /c: No error (d)
A. Suddenly they saw a car corning
B. at a break neck speed
C. An old man were crossing the road at the zebra crossing
D. No error
54. I sprained my ankle/ (a) when I was/(b) playing basketball. / (c) No error (d)
A. I sprained my ankle
B. when I was
C. playing basketball
D. No error
55. It is time/(a) we should accept all our people as equals/ (b) and as partners in the task of building a strong and united nation./(c) No error d:
A. It is time
B. We should accept all our people as equals
C. And as partners in the task of building a strong and united nation
D. No error
In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
56. Leila said the new restaurant was nothing to write about. She thought it was……
A. Just average
B. really terrible
C. splendid
D. excellent
57. My Nigerian friend, Fela is having trouble finding work here in London, but he says if push comes to shove he can always…….
A. go to jail
B. win the lottery
C. end of the journey that is life
D. go back to Nigeria
58. If you say to someone ‘You’re so full of yourself ” they’ll probably feel
A. upset
B. pleased
C. calm
D. proud
59. The archer missed the…….. by an inch.
A. Score
B. Point
C. blow
D. aim
60. Bob and Jane decided to tie the knot because
A. they loved one another
B. they needed to save money
C. they wanted to make a long rope
D. it had come undone
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
61. CREDIBLE
A. Charming
B. Serious
C. Believable
D. Worthy
62. EXTRICATE
A. Free
B. Tie
C. Complicate
D. Pull
63. OBSTREPEROUS
A. Unruly
B. Lazy
C. Awkward
D. Sullen
In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
64. ACQUIT
A. Despair
B. Mild
C. Smart
D. Condemn
65. DISSENT
A. Discord
B. Disagreement
C. Unacceptable
D. Agreement
66. GROUP
A. Singular
B. Individual
C. Alone
D. Solitary
In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase printed in bold. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
67. After his business failed, he had to work very hard to keep the wolf from the door.
A. keep away extreme poverty
B. earn an honest living
C. regain his lost position
D. defend from enemies
68. The mention of her former husband’s name still makes Rita foam at the mouth.
A. Angry
B. Vomit
C. Shy
D. fall sick
69. We must husband our resources against hard times.
A. save
B. support
C. sing
D. concede
70. The newly elected Chief Minister has promised to bring about changes in the state.
A. Produce
B. Make
C. Carry
D. cause to happen
71. He gave vent to his pleasure with a smile.
A. shared
B. allowed
C. expressed
D. enjoyed
In the following questions, a sentence/ part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold sentence/part of the sentence at a: b: and c: which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is d.
72. Then with all his loot he sailed inwards Scotland’s shore.
A. onwards
B. towards
C. forward
D. No improvement
73. Can you please give me some leave?
A. grant for me
B. grant me
C. grant from me
D. No improvement
74. The office is soon to be closed.
A. just to
B. about to
C. where to
D. No improvement
75. The teacher was very proficient in his subject.
A. Expert
B. well versed
C. proficient
D. No improvement
76. He found a wooden chair that has broken in the room.
A. wooden and broken chair
B. broken wooden chair
C. broken and wooden chair
D. No improvement
77. The robbers fled before the police came.
A. Arrived
B. were coming
C. had come
D. No improvement
78. The hosts were taken aback when many guests who had been invited did not turn up for the party.
A. had been invited
B. had invited
C. was invited
D. No improvement
79. The master aimed a blow to Oliver’s head with the ladle.
A. a throw at
B. a punch in
C. a blow at
D. No improvement
80. The athletes who have won prizes are being honoured.
A. The prize winning athletes
B. The athletes who are given prizes
C. The athletes who are winning prizes
D. No improvement
81. Motor cars carry people from one place to another.
A. from place to place
B. about the place
C. for travel
D. No improvement
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.
82. An extract from a book of writing
A. Excerpt
B. Review
C. Hoot note
D. Preface
83. One living on vegetables
A. vegetarian
B. herbivore
C. carnivore
D. barbarian
84. A person who supports or speaks in favour of something
A. Advocate
B. Assistance
C. Adviser
D. Volunteer
85. The firing of many guns at the same time to mark an occasion
A. Fusillade
B. Salvo
C. attack
D. volley
86. A word that reads the same backwards as forwards
A. Acrostic
B. homophone
C. acronym
D. palindrome
87. A person who is self-centred
A. egoist
B. masochist
C. narcissist
D. eccentric
88. A principle or standard by which anything is or can be judged
A. Manifesto
B. Copyright
C. epitome
D. criterion
In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
89.
A. Possession
B. Possesian
C. Posseseon
D. Posessian
90.
A. Immakulate
B. Immaculate
C. Immaculete
D. Imakulate
In the following questions, you have two passages with 5 questions in each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
PASSAGE -I
We are living in the Age of Science. Everyday new inventions are being made for the good of humanity. The scientific inventions began after the Industrial Revolution of 1789. Within these 200 years, science has made a wonderful progress. The aeroplane is one of the most important inventions of science during the Modern Age. It is the fastest means of transport know so far. An aeroplane resembles a flying bird in shape. Inside there are seats for the passengers and a cabin for the pilot. This cabin is called a cockpit. It has an engine that is worked by petrol. It is all made up of metal and can fly at a very high speed. Before taking off it runs on the runway for some distance to gather speed. Then it suddenly hops up the earth and takes off.
91. The scientific invention began after the Industrial Revolution of
A. 1789
B. 1889
C. 1879
D. 1779
92. The cabin for the pilot is called a
A. Cubicle
B. cube
C. cockpit
D. chamber
93. An aeroplane has an engine that is worked by
A. Diesel
B. petrol
C. steam
D. gas
94. The………… is one or the most important inventions of science during the Modern Age.
A. Ship
B. aeroplane
C. motor vehicle
D. train
95. We are living in the …………
A. Age of inventions
B. Age of industrialisation
C. Modern Age
D. Age of science
In the following questions, you have two passages with 5 questions in each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
PASSAGE-II
The National Highways Network of India measures over 70,934 km as of 2010, including over 1,000 km of limited-access expressways. Out of 71,000 km of National Highways 15,0 plus km are 4 or 6 lanes and remaining 50,000 km are 2 lanes. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is the nodal agency responsible for building, upgrading and maintaining most of the national highways network. The National Highways Development Project (NHDP) is a major effort to expand and upgrade the network of highways. NHAI often uses a public-private partnership model for highway development, maintenance and toll-collection. National highways constituted about 2% of all the roads in India, but carried about 40% of the total road traffic as of 2010. The majority of existing national highways are two-lane roads (one lane in each direction), though much of this is being expanded to four-lanes, and some to six or eight lanes. Some sections of the network are toll roads. Over 30.000 km of new highways are planned or under construction as part of the NHDP, as of 2011. This includes over 2,600 km of expressways currently under construction.
96. What is the current measurement of expressways under construction in India?
A. 15,000 km
B. 30,000 km
C. 2,600 km
D. 1,000 km
97. What is the responsibility of the NHAI ?
A. planning of National Highways
B. building, upgrading and maintaining of National Highways
C. control of National Highways
D. expansion of National Highways
98. What is the measurement of two-lane National Highways of India ?
A. 15,000 km
B. 61,000 km
C. 50,000 km
D. 71,000 km
99. What percentage of roads in India are National Highways
A. 2%
B. 30%
C. 4%
D. 40%
100. The majority of National Highways in India have
A. Two lanes
B. six-lanes
C. eight lanes
D. four-lanes
PART – C QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
For the following questions answer them individually
101. If the side of a square is reduced by 50%, its area will be reduced by
A. 75%
B. 80%
C. 60%
D. 50%
102. Two triangles ABC and PQR are congruent. If the area of Δ ABC is 60 sq. cm, then area of A PQR will be
A. 60 sq.cm
B. 30 sq.cm
C. 15 sq.cm
D. 120 sq.cm
103. The least number which must be added to 1728 to make it a perfect square is
A. 36
B. 32
C. 38
D. 30
104. For a triangle ABCD and E are two points on AB and AC such that AD = 1/4 AB, AE = 1/4 AC. If BC = 12 cm, then DE is
A. 5cm
B. 4cm
C. 3cm
D. 6cm
105. If tan Ө + cot Ө = 2 then the value of Ө is
A. 45°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 30°
106. The term to be added to 121a^2 + 64b^2 to make a perfect square is
A. 176 ab
B. 276 ab
C. 178 ab
D. 188 ba
107. A can do a piece of work in 6 days, B in 10 days and C in 15 days. They jointly complete the work and earn 300. The sum of their wages for 2 days is
A. 180
B. 200
C. 160
D. 120
108. A sum of Rs 76 is divided among A, B and C in such a way that A gets 7 more than that what B gets and B gets 6 more than what C gets. The ratio of their shares is
A. 19:24:33
B. 32 :25 : 19
C. 32 : 24 : 20
D. 19 : 25 : 33
109. If the opposite sides of a quadrilateral and also its diagonals are equal, then each of the angles of the quadrilateral is
A. 90°
B. 120°
C. 100°
D. 60°
110. If cos πx= x^2 – x + 5/4 the value ue of x will be
A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. None of the above
111. A tank 40 m long, 30 m broad and 12 m deep is dug in a field 1000 m long and 30 m wide. By how much will the level of the field rise if the earth dug out of the tank is evenly spread over the field?
A. 2 metre
B. 1.2 metre
C. 0.5 metre
D. 5 metre
112. In a triangle, if orthocentre, circum centre, in centre and centroid coincide, then the triangle must be
A. obtuse angled
B. isosceles
C. equilateral
D. right-angled
113. If a = 2 + √3 ,then the value of (a^2 + 1/a^2) is
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 10
E. None of These
114. For what value (s) of k the expression p + 1/4√p + k^2 is a perfect square?
A. ± 1/3
B. ± 1/4
C. ± 1/8
D. ± 1/2
115. If 15% of x is same as 20 % of y then x: y is
A. 4:3
B. 5:4
C. 6:5
D. 3:4
116. If b-c/a + a+c/b + a-b/c = 1 and a – b + c ≠ 0 then which one of the following relations is true
A. 1/c = 1/a + 1/b
B. 1/a = 1/b + 1/c
C. 1/b = 1/a – 1/c
D. 1/b = 1/a + 1/c
117. A train crosses a platform in 30 seconds travelling with a speed of 60 km/h. If the length of the train be 200 metres, then the length (in metres) of the platform is
A. 400
B. 300
C. 200
D. 500
118. If ΔFGH is isosceles and FG < 3 cm, GH = 8 cm, then of the following, the true relation is.
A. GH = FH
B. GF = GH
C. FH >GH
D. GH < GF
119. The numerical value of 1 + 1/cot^2 63° – sec^2 27° + 1/sin^2 63° – cosec^2 27° is
A. 1
B. 2
C. -1
D. 0
120. It 10 men or 20 women or 40 children can do a piece of work in 7 months, then 5 men, 5 women and 5 children together can do half of the work in how many months :
A. 5
B. 8
C. 3
D. 4
121. If x = √3 + √2 then the value of x^3 — 1/x^3 is
A. 10√2
B. 14√2
C. 22√2
D. 8√2
122. What is the product of the roots of the equation x^2 — √3 = 0?
A. +√3
B. √3i
C. -√3i
D. -√3
123. lf x = cos Ө/1-sin Ө, then cos Ө/1+sin Ө is equal to
A. x – 1
B. 1/x
C. 1/x+1
D. 1/1-x
124. On what sum of money will the difference between S.I and C.l for 2 years at 5% per annum be equal to 25?
A. 10,000
B. 10,500
C. 9,500
D. 9000
125. In ΔABC, ∠B = 90° and AB : BC = 2 :1. The value of sin A + cot C is
A. 3 + √5
B. 2+√5 /2√5
C. 2 + √5
D. 3√5
126. Anand marks up the price of an article by 50% and then allows a discount of 20% and sells it to Balaji. Balaji sells it for 7 20 more than what he purchased for, this S.P is 30% more than the original C.P of the article. Then Balaji’s profit % is
A. 7.5%
B. 6.66%
C. 8.33%
D. 9%
127. The minimum number of common tangents drawn to two circles when both the circles touch each other externally is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
128. It out of 10 selected students tor an examination, 3 were of 20 years, age, 4 of 21 and 3 of 22 years, the average age of the group is
A. 22 years
B. 21 years
C. 21.5 years
D. 20 years
129. A cistern normally takes 10 hours to be filled by a tap. But because of a leak, it takes 2 hours more. In how many hours will the leak empty a full cistern?
A. 45
B. 48
C. 30
D. 60
130. You arrive at your school 5 minutes late if you walk with a speed of 4 km/h, but you arrive 10 minutes before the scheduled time if you walk with a speed of 5 km/h. The distance of your school from your house (in km) is
A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 2
131. If a, b, c, d, e are five consecutive odd numbers, their average is
A. 5 (a + 4)
B. 5
C. 5(a + b + c + d + e)
D. a + 4
132. 
A. ¼
B. ½
C. ¾
D. 0
133. If sin π x/2 = x^2 — 2x + 2, then the value of x is
A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. None of these
134. The value sin43°/cos47° + cos19°/sin71° – 8cos^2 60° is
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. -1
135. Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
2/5, 3/5, 8/11, 11/17
A. 8/11
B. 3/5
C. 11/17
D. 2/3
136. A shopkeeper marks his goods 40% above the cost price. He allows a discount of 5% for cash payment to his customers. He receives 1064 after paying the discount. His profit is
A. 264
B. 164
C. 200
D. 800
137. The angle subtended by a chord at its centre is 60°, then the ratio between chord and radius is
A. 1 : 2
B. 1:1
C. √2 :1
D. 2 : 1
138. If x + y = 15, then (x – 10)^3 + (y – 5)^3 is
A. 25
B. 125
C. 625
D. 0
139. If goods be purchased for 450 and one third sold at a loss of 10%. At what gain percent should the remainder be sold so as to gain 20% on the whole transaction?
A. 32%
B. 35%
C. 28%
D. 30%
140. If ABC is an equilateral triangle and P, Q, R respectively denote the middle points of AB, BC, CA then.
A. PQR must be an equilateral triangle
B. PQ + QR + PR = AB
C. PQ + QR + PR = 2 AB
D. PQR must be a right angled triangle
141. A man saves 25 on the purchase of an article on which a discount of 20% is allowed. How much did the man pay?
A. 75
B. 150
C. 100
D. 125
142. Area of the floor of a cubical room is 48 sq. m. The length of the longest rod that can be kept in that room is
A. 9 metre
B. 12 metre
C. 18 metre
D. 6 metre
143. The cost of a house was X lakhs in 2005. After 3 years, the owner of the house sold it for 25% more than she paid it. But she has to pay a tax of 50% of the gain. The tax amount she has to pay is.
A. x/2
B. x/8
C. x/4
D. x/24
The graph shows the result of 10th class students of a school for 4 years. Study the graph and answer the questions :
144. The number of students appeared for the 10th class exam in the year 2002 is
A. 180
B. 195
C. 200
D. 120
The graph shows the result of 10th class students of a school for 4 years. Study the graph and answer the questions :
145. The percentage increase of first class in the year 2003 over the year 2002 is approximately.
A. 12%
B. 0%
C. 10%
D. 9%
The graph shows the result of 10th class students of a school for 4 years. Study the graph and answer the questions :
146. The year in which the maximum number of students appeared for the 10th class exam is
A. 2001
B. 2002
C. 2003
D. 2000
The graph shows the result of 10th class students of a school for 4 years. Study the graph and answer the questions :
147. The ratio of students who scored second class to the total students appeared in the year 2000 is
A. 3:16
B. 4 : 17
C. 5 : 16
D. 11:16
Study and answer the questions.
148. If the total annual expenditure of family B is 10,000 then money spent on clothes during the year is
A. 600
B. 6000
C. 1500
D. 200
Study and answer the questions.
149. What fraction of the total expenditure is spent on Education in family A?
A. 2/3
B. 9/13
C. 1/5
D. 13/20
Study and answer the questions.
150. If the total annual expenditure of family A is 30,000 then money spent on food, clothes and house rents is.
A. 18,000
B. 21,000
C. 15,000
D. 18,500
PART – D GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING
In each of the following questions, select the related words/letters/numbers from the given alternatives.
151. 82 : 06 : : 76 : ?
A. 15
B. 01
C. 12
D. 24
152. BED : GJI : : LON : ?
A. QTS
B. PTS
C. QST
D. KNH
153. CDGF : HILK : : NORQ : ?
A. UVWY
B. PQMW
C. STWV
D. IGNL
154. Reference material: Dictionary :: Periodical: ?
A. Book
B. Atlas
C. Biography
D. Newspaper
155. KMNP:ACDF::PRSU: ?
A. STVW
B. TVWY
C. VXYZ
D. LNPR
156. Tea : Cup :: Soup : ?
A. Glass
B. Spoon
C. Bowl
D. Mug
157. In each of the following questions, find the odd numbers/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Forgetting
B. Convergent Production
C. Divergent Production
D. Cognition
158. In each of the following questions, find the odd numbers/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 9-26
B. 11-36
C. 13-42
D. 7-18
159. In each of the following questions, find the odd numbers/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. WXYZ
B. PRSQ
C. ABCD
D. EFGH
160. In each of the following questions, find the odd numbers/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. I
B. N
C. W
D. H
161. In each of the following questions, find the odd numbers/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 679
B. 124
C. 568
D. 345
162. In each of the following questions, find the odd numbers/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Distress
B. Sorrow
C. Fantasy
D. Disgust
For the following questions answer them individually
163. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.
(A) Acarpous
(B) Across
(C) Accede
(D) Academic
(E) Accentuate
A. (D), (A), (C), (E), (B)
B. (B), (C), (A) (D), (E)
C. (C), (D), (A), (B), (E)
D. (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
164. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
(A) substance (B) atom (C) molecule (D) proton
A. (D), (B), (C), (A)
B. (A), (B), (C), (D)
C. (B), (C), (D), (A)
D. (D), (C), (B), (A)
In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
165. 2, 20,56, 110,?.
A. 132
B. 144
C. 182
D. 115
166. MENIPO ? ,?
A. QI
B. PA
C. QU
D. Q0
167. LMN, MNOP, NOPQR, ?
A. OPQRST
B. RSTUVW
C. QRSTUV
D. PQRSTU
168. 121, 222, 424, ?
A. 646
B. 828
C. 626
D. 524
For the following questions answer them individually
169. A is B’s wife’s husband’s brother. C and D are sisters of B. How is A related to C ?
A. Brother
B. Sister-in-law
C. Wife
D. Sister
170. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word : PRESUMPTION
A. TIER
B. POMPOUS
C. PUMP
D. RUIN
171. If BEAT = 25-22-26-7 and RUST = 9 – 6 – 8 – 7 then how will you code ‘BURST’ ?
A. 25-22-9-8-7
B. 25-9-6-8-7
C. 25-9-8-7-6
D. 25-6-9-8-7
172. In a code language ‘TEMPORARY’ is written as ‘EPRSAYOYM’ and ‘EXCUSE’ as ‘PGNVXP’. How is ‘ASSURE’ written in that code?
A. OPPVXE
B. OXXVYP
C. OPPVXP
D. OXXYVD
173. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word RECOVERED, which have as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Six
D. Five
174. A train runs for 2 hrs at the speed of 40 km/h and then runs for 4.5 hrs at the speed of 60 km/h and then runs for 3.5 hrs at the speed of 70 km per hour. Find the average speed of the train.
A. 59.5 km/h
B. 80 km/h
C. 56.87 km/h
D. 57.1 km/h
175. 5/9 X 27/25 ÷ = ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
176. From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters given in the word. RATIONALISATION
A. SENSATION
B. ALTERATION
C. TRANSITION
D. INTERNAL
177. After giving a discount of 15% an article is sold at Rs. 2550, what is its marked price?
A. Rs. 3200
B. Rs. 3000
C. Rs. 2900
D. Rs. 3700
178. If + means ÷, – means x, x means + and ÷ means -, then which of the alternatives is correct ?
A. 5 x 8 – 5 + 5 ÷ 1= 12
B. 55 -2 + 10 ÷ 1 x 5 = 16
C. 38 ÷ 10 – 5 + 7 x 8 =25
D. 10- 12 + 2 ÷ 30 x 1 = 10
179. The age of Ram is double as that of Shyam and half as that of Suresh. If the sum of their ages is 70, what is the age of Ram ?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 10
180. If PRQST is coded as 13245 and OTUWV is coded as 05687, then how is TXOQP coded?
A. 59021
B. 69021
C. 21096
D. 95210
181. Insert the arithmetic operations in the following numerical figures :
13*3*4*3 = 43
A. ÷ x +
B. – x +
C. + x ÷
D. + ÷ x
182. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.
A. 50
B. 51
C. 52
D. 49
183. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 2
184. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.
A. 25
B. 34
C. 38
D. 26
185. Ram and Ravi start together from a point in opposite direction on scooters. Ram’s speed is 21 km/h and Ravi’s speed is 15 km/h. What will be the distance between them after 20 minutes?
A. 25 km
B. 16 km
C. 12 km
D. 45 km
186. One morning after sunrise, Gangadhar was walking facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right, which direction was he facing?
A. South
B. West
C. North
D. East
In each of the following questions, one statement(s) is followed by two Conclusions/ Assumptions, I and II. You have to consider the statement(s) to be true, even if they seem(s) to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions, if any, follow(s) from the given statements (s).
187. Statement: Read this notice before entering into the stadium.
Assumptions :
I. People are literate.
II. No blind person comes to the stadium.
A. Only assumption II is implicit
B. Neither I nor II is implicit
C. Both I and II are implicit
D. Only assumption I is implicit
188. Statement: A car had driven off the road and hit a tree. The driver was efficient enough. The road was not good. The driver drove the car for last fifteen years.
Conclusions :
I. The accident occurred due to bad condition of road.
II. There was a mechanical fault in the car.
A. Only conclusion II is true
B. Both the conclusions can be true
C. None of the conclusions can be true
D. Only conclusion I is true
For the following questions answer them individually
189. How many triangles are there in this figure ?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 10
190. Form the correct pattern with the segments given.
191. The following diagram represents people who speak different languages.
i. Kannada
ii. English
iii. Hindi
iv. Marathi
What does the shaded area represents? “Diagram”
A. People who speak English and Hindi.
B. People who speak Kannada, English and Hindi.
C. People who speak Kannada, English and Marathi.
D. People who speak Kannada and English.
192. Which one of the following diagrams represents the correct relationship with the Class teacher, Girls and Boys of Std. VIII?
193. There are three intersecting circles representing English knowing persons, sportsman and persons who are working as policeman. Different regions so obtained in the figure are marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7.
If you select persons, who do not know English and are not policeman, which of the region is to be selected ?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 3
D. 2
194. In each of the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?
195. In each of the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?
196. In each of the following questions, from the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
197. In each of the following questions, from the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
198. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
199. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9 A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘N’ can be represented by 43,34, etc., and ‘FT can be represented by 97,68, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word given ‘POLO’.
A. 79, 12, 14, 34
B. 95, 00, 22, 44
C. 88, 33, 24, 44
D. 66, 21, 24, 44
200. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
ANSWER KEY
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. C
9. D
10. C
11. B
12. A
13. C
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. D
18. C
19. B
20. B
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. A
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. D
29. B
30. D
31. B
32. D
33. C
34. A
35. D
36. C
37. D
38. A
39. B
40. A
41. B
42. A
43. B
44. B
45. A
46. A
47. D
48. D
49. A
50. A
51. C
52. C
53. C
54. D
55. B
56. A
57. D
58. D
59. D
60. A
61. C
62. A
63. A
64. D
65. D
66. B
67. A
68. A
69. A
70. D
71. C
72. B
73. B
74. B
75. B
76. B
77. A
78. D
79. C
80. D
81. A
82. A
83. A
84. A
85. A
86. D
87. A
88. D
89. A
90. B
91. A
92. C
93. B
94. B
95. D
96. C
97. B
98. C
99. A
100. A
101. A
102. A
103. A
104. C
105. A
106. A
107. B
108. B
109. A
110. D
111. C
112. C
113. B
114. C
115. A
116. C
117. B
118. A
119. D
120. D
121. C
122. D
123. B
124. A
125. B
126. C
127. C
128. B
129. D
130. B
131. D
132. B
133. B
134. A
135. A
136. A
137. B
138. D
139. B
140. A
141. C
142. B
143. B
144. B
145. B
146. A
147. C
148. C
149. C
150. A
151. B
152. A
153. C
154. D
155. B
156. C
157. A
158. B
159. B
160. A
161. D
162. C
163. A
164. A
165. C
166. C
167. A
168. B
169. A
170. B
171. D
172. B
173. B
174. A
175. D
176. C
177. B
178. A
179. A
180. A
181. B
182. B
183. C
184. D
185. C
186. A
187. C
188. B
189. C
190. D
191. C
192. B
193. C
194. A
195. A
196. D
197. D
198. C
199. B
200. C