2015 SSC CGL Tier 1
16 Aug Shift – 2
Question Paper with Answer Key

PART – A GENERAL AWARENESS

1. The Substrate of Photo respiration is:
A. Fructose
B. Pyruvic acid
C. Glycolate
D. Glucose

2. In mountainous areas a natural cause for road blocks is often
A. road repairs and construction
B. land slides
C. tree felling
D. traffic congestion

3. Match the following :
List – I
A. Chlorophyll
B. Nostoc
C. Transpiration
D. Rust of wheat
List- II
1. Plant disease
2. Photo synthetic
3. Diazotroph
4. Loss of water from plant surface
A. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
B. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

4. Match the following:
List – I
Crops
A. Rice
B. Maize
C. Rubber
D. Sugarcane
List-II
First in the world
1. Brazil
2. Malaysia
3. China
4. U.S.A
A. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
B. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
C. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
D. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

5. Movement of people from a village to a small town and later to a city is known as
A. intra-state migration
B. step-wise migration
C. inter-state migration
D. forced migration

6. The purpose of choke in a fluorescent lamp is :
A. to increase the current flow
B. to decrease the current flow
C. to decrease the resistance
D. to decrease the voltage momentarily

7. Headquarter of European Union (EU) is situated in :
A. Paris (France)
B. Munich (Germany)
C. Brussels (Belgium)
D. Milan (Italy)

8. The Thirteenth Pravasi Bhartiy Divas was held on 8th and 9th January 2015 at:
A. Indore
B. Bangaluru
C. New Delhi
D. Gandhinagar

9. Who was the Nawab of Bengal during “Battle of Plassey”?
A. Mir Jafar
B. Mir Qasim
C. Siraj-ud-duala
D. None of these

10. In the case of deadlock between the two houses parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the:
A. President
B. Senior most member of Lok Sabha
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Vice President.

11. The Man Booker Prize for 2014 is awarded to :
A. Arnrita Pritarn
B. Shashi Tharoor
C. Lech Walesa
D. Richard Flanagan

12. The National Police Academy is located at:
A. Dehradun
B. Hyderabad.
C. Bangalore
D. Abu Road

13. The mercury and sodium street lamps light up because of:
A. Atomic emission
B. Atomic absorption
C. Electron emission
D. Electron absorption

14. A person can jump higher on the moon’s surface than on the earth because :
A. the moon’s surface is rough
B. the acceleration due to gravity in moon is smaller than that on the earth.
C. the moon is cooler than earth
D. the moon has no atmosphere

15. “Wall Street” is the name of the :
A. Stock Exchange of New York
B. Indian Township in Washington
C. Super market in Mumbai
D. Stock Exchange of Kolkata

16. Kautilya’s “Arthashastra” mainly deals with
A. Political state craft
B. Social aspects
C. Economic doctrines
D. Military aspects

17. Who of the following became a member of the “Din-illahi”?
A. Todarmal
B. Raja Birbal
C. Raja Man Singh
D. Tansen

18. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indifference Curve?
A. They do not intersect each other
B. They slope downwards to the right
C. They are parallel to each other
D. They are concave to each other

19. Which of the following refers to the white salt which covers the land in some areas during dry season?
A. usar
B. reh
C. erg
D. reg

20. The first Sultan of Delhi to issue regular currency and declare Delhi as the capital of his empire was
A. lltutmish
B. Alam Shah
C. Qutbuddin Aibak
D. Balban

21. The soft silvery metallic element which ionizes easily when heated or exposed to light and is present in atomic clocks is
A. Cerium
B. Cesium
C. Calcium
D. Califonrium

22. Which one of the following is an indigenously built light combat aircraft of India?
A. Ajay
B. Multirol
C. Arjun
D. Vikrant

23. Which of the following is not correct about Mahatma Gandhi?
A. Gandhi advocated complete separation of politics from religion.
B. Gandhi believed in nonviolence
C. Gandhi believed in the sanctity of means.
D. Gandhi Supported Close relation between religion and politics.

24. The only AICC session Gandhiji presided was held at
A. Calcutta
B. Madras
C. Belgaum
D. Lahore

25. The Indian Constitution provides the country with three categories of civil services, namely :
A. all India, central and state services
B. administrative, railway and police services
C. administrative, police and revenue services
D. administrative, police and foreign services

26. B-Diversity is also known as :
A. Within habitat diversity
B. Ecosystem diversity
C. Global diversity
D. Between habitat diversity

27. In a Database Management System (DBMS), the content and the location of the data is defined by the.
A. Multi Dimensional data
B. Sequence data
C. Meta data
D. Sub data

28. Which one of these animals is jawless :
A. Sphyrna
B. Trygon
C. Myxine
D. Shark

29. Competition for food, light and space is most severe in:
A. Distantly related species growing in different habitats
B. Closely related species growing in the same area or niche
C. Closely related species growing in different habitats
D. Distantly related species growing in the same habitats

30. What is Amnesty International?
A. An Animal Rights Protection Organization
B. A peace Movement
C. An Environment Protection Organization
D. A Human Rights Organization

31. Rotation of crops is essential:
A. For increasing the quantity of minerals.
B. For decreasing the quantity of proteins.
C. For getting different kinds of crops.
D. For increasing fertility of the soil.

32. Catalytic converters are generally made from :
A. Alkaline metals
B. Hydrogen
C. Transition metals
D. Carbon

33. The green colour seen in firework displays is due to the chloride salt of:
A. Sodium
B. Strontium
C. Barium
D. Calcium

34. The difference in the value of visible exports and visible imports is called :
A. Balance Sheet of items
B. Balance of Payments
C. Balance of Trade
D. Balance of Account

35. Which of the following country has the longest overland tunnel?
A. Germany
B. Switzerland
C. Spain
D. France

36. Addition of excessive amounts of heat to a lake is referred to as :
A. Refrigeration effect
B. Green House effect
C. Thermal Pollution
D. Heat Bloom

37. The apparent weight of a man in a lift is less the real weight when :
A. the lift is going up with an acceleration
B. the lift is going down with uniform speed
C. the lift is going up with uniform speed
D. the lift is going down with an acceleration

38. The remedies to soil erosion are :
I. Contour bunding
II. Regulation of land use
III. Cutting of trees
IV. Allowing grazing of animals
A. I,III
B. I,II
C. III,IV
D. II,III

39. Afla toxins are produced by
A. Bacteria
B. Algae
C. Viruses
D. Fungi

40. What according to Communism is the chief enemy of the society?
A. Private property
B. Religion
C. Surplus value
D. Capitalist class

41. Which one of the following is the infective stage of the Malarial Parasite?
A. Schigozoite
B. trophozoite
C. sporoblast
D. sporozoite

42. Jaspal Rana is the name associated with which of the following games :
A. Shooting
B. Weight lifting
C. Boxing
D. Archey

43. One of the regions that receives rainfall from the North-Easternly monsoon is :
A. West Bengal
B. Assam
C. Kerala
D. Tamil Nadu

44. The author of the book “Zest for Life” is :
A. Emile Zola
B. H.G. Walls
C. Virginia Wolf
D. Mark Twain

45. When income increases, consumption also increases :
A. in a lower proportion
B. in a higher proportion
C. in the same proportion
D. None of the options

46. Rainbows are produced when sunlight:
A. Incident on rain drops hanging in the atmosphere is dispersed after suffering refraction
B. Incident on rain drops hanging in the atmosphere is dispersed after suffering refraction and internal reflection.
C. Incident on raindrops hanging in the atmosphere is dispresed after suffering reflection.
D. None of the given statements is correct.

47. From the national point of view which of the following indicates Micro Approach?
A. Per capita income in India
B. Study of sales of TISCO
C. Inflation in India
D. Educated unemployment in India

48. Ecosystem consists of:
A. A biotic community and its non-living elements
B. Population
C. A population and its nonliving elements
D. A biotic community

49. What is the speciality of WINDOWS – NT?
A. supports real-time processing
B. supports LAN and WAN
C. supports Batch processing
D. supports multi-processing

50. Which of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court?
A. Disputes between the states inter se
B. Protection against the violation of the Constitution
C. Protection of Fundamental Rights
D. Disputes between Centre and the States

PART – B ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

In the following questions, you have a brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey laws and to act with due regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage and to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not confict with the rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obeys these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due regard to the rights and well being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his action. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order in a state is in the hands of a Minister, who is responsible to the state Assembly and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

51. Which of the following statements is not implied in the passage ?
A. The forces of law help to transform irresponsible citizens into responsible ones.
B. Law protects those who respect it
C. Law ensures people’s religious and social rights absolutely and unconditionally
D. A criminal is deterred from committing crimes only for fear of the law

52. The expression “customs and ceremonies” means :
A. fairs and festivals
B. superstitions and formalities
C. habits and traditions
D. usual practices and religious rites

53. They are made to secure the property of citizens against theft and damage” means that the law:
A. helps in recovering the stolen property of the citizens.
B. safeguards people’s possessions against being stolen or lost.
C. initiates process against offenders of law.
D. assists the citizens whose property has been stolen or destroyed.

54. Which one of the following statement is implied in the passage ?
A. Criminals, who flout the law, are seledom brought to book
B. The police check the citizens, whether they are good or bad, from violating the law.
C. The police hardly succeed in converting bad citizens into good ones.
D. Peaceful citizens seldom violate the law

55. According to the writer, which one of the following is not the responsibility of the police ?
A. To protect the privileges of all citizens.
B. To maintain peace during extraordinary circumstances.
C. To ensure peace among citizens by safeguarding individual rights.
D. To check violent activities of citizens.

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

56. A study of ancient things.
A. Physiology
B. Archaeology
C. Ethnology
D. Zoology

57. A person who deserves all praise.
A. Detestable
B. Lovable
C. despicable
D. laudable

58. One who is skillful.
A. Disciplined
B. Diligent
C. Different
D. Dexterous

59. One who runs away from justice or the law.
A. Smuggler
B. Criminal
C. Figitive
D. Thief

60. Of one’s own free will.
A. mandatory
B. obligatory
C. voluntary
D. compulsory

61. One who is too careless to plan for the future.
A. Imprudent
B. impractical
C. impotent
D. improvident

62. One who has long experience.
A. Novice
B. Expert
C. Veteran
D. Practitioner

In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error.
The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is No error.

63. Who do you think I met ?
A. Who
B. No error
C. do you think
D. I met ?

64. Just outside my house are a playground for school boys and girls.
A. Just outside my house
B. are a playground
C. No error
D. for school boys and girls

65. He can be a basketball player since he is tall like a mule.
A. He can be
B. he is tall like a mule
C. No error
D. a basketball player since

66. It is not advisable to take heavy luggage’s while on a journey.
A. to take heavy luggage’s
B. while on a journey
C. No error
D. It is not advisable

67. A bird in the tree is worth two in the bush.
A. A bird in the tree
B. two in the bush.
C. No error
D. is worth

In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

68. Placid
A. Urgent
B. Dull
C. moving
D. stormy

69. VACILLATION
A. steadfastness
B. relief
C. inoculation
D. remorse

70. Effeminacy
A. Aggressiveness
B. attractiveness
C. manliness
D. boorishness

In the following questions, a sentence/ part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold sentence/part of the sentence, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is No improvement.

71. If I will get an opportunity, I shall attend the seminar.
A. Get
B. got
C. No Improvement
D. shall get

72. Both the teams played the game fairly.
A. No Improvement
B. played a fair game
C. played fairly the game
D. fairly played the game

73. She could not help but laugh.
A. but laughing
B. laughter
C. No Improvement
D. Laughing

74. We met yesterday, haven’t we?
A. A didn’t we?
B. No Improvement
C. hadn’t we?
D. isn’t it?

75. I took my mother some grapes when she was in hospital.
A. I took for my mother some grapes.
B. I brought my mother some grapes
C. I took some grapes for my mother
D. No Improvement

76. The others shook their heads and made vague noises of approval.
A. Hung
B. turned around
C. No Improvement
D. nodded

77. She insisted on she was innocent.
A. insisted on that
B. No Improvement
C. insisted that
D. insisted with

78. The world is being faced with a crisis
A. Confronted
B. in front of
C. No Improvement
D. Facing

79. You must endure what you cannot cure
A. Accept
B. Suffer
C. prevail
D. No Improvement

80. He does not laugh, nor he smiles.
A. nor he does smile
B. neither he does smile
C. nor does he smile
D. No Improvement

In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

81.
A. Deffusion
B. Delusion
C. Diffussion
D. Diffusion

82.
A. Circumlocution
B. Circum location
C. Circurnlocuben
D. Ciremlocution

In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase printed In bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

83. Instead of keeping his promise of helping me with office work, he just left me high and dry.
A. left me without a drop of water
B. left me in a state of anger
C. left me alone to do the work
D. left me feeling like a fool

84. Unless you make amends for the loss, nobody is prepared to excuse you.
A. Improve
B. Confess
C. compensate
D. pay debt

85. Before the report reached the authority, the media spilled the beans.
A. hinted at the consequences.
B. dropped the charges
C. spilled the content of the package
D. revealed the secret information

86. Amit said to Rekha, “Don’t make a mountain out of a mole hill.”
A. exaggerate a minor problem
B. attempt an impossible task
C. create problems
D. start looking for mole hills in mountains.

87. His friend turned out to be snake in the grass.
A. cowardly and brutal
B. a hidden enemy
C. an unreliable and deceitful person
D. low and mean

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

88. PERUSE
A. Read
B. Argue
C. Follow
D. Reduce

89. SPUME
A. Spit
B. poison
C. Lava
D. Foams

90. BOARD
A. Food
B. Furniture
C. Lodging
D. Frame

In the following questions, you have a brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Journalists argue over functions of a newspaper. I feel that a provincial paper’s purpose is not only to present and project the news objetively and imaginatively, but to help its readers to express themselves more effectively, canalizing their aspirations, making more articulate their demands. A newspaper should reflect the community it serves – warts and all. When the mirror is held to society it reveals neglect, injustice, ignorance or complacency. It should help to eradicate them. It would be pretentious to think that a newspaper can change the course of world affairs – but at the local limit it can exert influence, it can probe, it can help get things done. The individual’s voice must not be stifled. Instead, the readers should be encouraged to express their opinions, fears, hopes, and their grievances on this Platform.

91. How can a newspaper influence local affairs?
A. By focusing on world affairs.
B. By influencing public opinion through half truths.
C. By encouraging the readers to accept their grievances.
D. By probing into the ills of society and rallying support for change.

92. How can the readers air their grievances 7
A. By writing to journalists.
B. By supporting the local newspaper
C. By writing to their local newspaper
D. By being complacent

93. In this passage the writer highlights the fact that:
A. Journalists differ in their opinion on the function of a newspaper
B. A newspaper should reflect the community it serves.
C. A newspaper should only concentrate on local affairs.
D. Newspaper can eradicate injustice.

94. The expression “warts and all” in the passage means :
A. hopes and fears
B. with no attempt to conceal blemishes and inadequacies
C. the community’s problems
D. the reader’s grievances

95. What is the main purpose of a newspaper?
A. Encourage the readers to be pretentious.
B. Project news objectively and imaginatively.
C. To present facts in a blunt-way
D. Exert influence on the individuals.

In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alter natives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

96. The police fired on the mob when they………..
A. Turned violent
B. fizzled out
C. became abusive
D. turned noisy

97. He has the full facts_____ but is deliberately hiding them.
A. up his sleeve
B. under his sleeves
C. upon his sleeves
D. in his sleeves

98. The appearance of the city……… day by day.
A. Changed
B. is changing
C. had changed
D. could change

99. When the morning………… the murder was discovered.
A. arrived
B. came
C. occurred
D. happened

100. The smell of the Sea called…………. memories of her child-hood.
A. For
B. Back
C. Up
D. on

PART – C GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

In each of the following questions, one or two statements is/are given followed by two conclusions /assumptions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.

101. Statement: A good book even if costly is sold out in no time.
Assumptions :
I. Some books are better than others.
II. All good books are costly.
A. Only II follows.
B. Both I and II follows.
C. Only I follows.
D. Neither I nor II follows.

102. Statements: No rod is pod. No pod is flexible.
Assumptions :
I. No rod is flexible.
II. Some pods are flexible.
A. Neither of them follows.
B. Only inference I follows.
C. Both of them follow.
D. Only inference II follows.

103. Ravi is walking in the East direction. After covering a distance of one kilometre, he turns 45° left and then 90° right. In which direction is he facing now?
A. South – East
B. West
C. North –West
D. North

In each of the following questions, find the odd word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

104.
A. BS
B. EV
C. I Z
D. DX

105.
A. OKRA
B. ERKU
C. ANDI
D. PERU

106.
A. 1331
B. 191
C. 200
D. 808

107.
A. Legislator
B. Lawyer
C. Mayor
D. Governor

108.
A. 37
B. 120
C. 145
D. 50

109.
A. Parallel
B. Acute
C. Obtuse
D. Right

In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

110.

A. 90
B. 12
C. 48
D. 16

111.

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

112.

A. -12
B. 9
C. 7
D. 12

113.

A. 1321
B. 1231
C. 1332
D. 1331

114.
I. 40 32 72 12
II. 30 24 54 9
III. 54 ? 90 15
A. 46
B. 49
C. 48
D. 36

In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

115. FIG : EGHJFH : : BIN : 7
A. ACJHMO
B. CAHJMOC
C. CAJHOM
D. ACHJMO

116. Garbage House :: Gangue : ?
A. Ore
B. Drugs
C. Factory
D. Office

117. 6 : 42 : : 7 : ?
A. 40
B. 56
C. 48
D. 52

118. 12 : 72 : : 8 : ?
A. 37
B. 38
C. 40
D. 32

119. DBU: EEZ : : CJH : ?
A. D N N
B. D M N
C. D M M
D. D N M

120. BLOCKED : YOLXPVW : ? : OZFMMXS
A. RESULTS
B. DEBATES
C. LAUNNCH
D. LABOURS

For the following questions answer them individually

121. Two positions of a dice are shown below. When three is at the top what number will be at the bottom?

A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 5

122. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. ‘BOOKBINDING’
A. DINING
B. BONDING
C. DOING
D. DIGGING

123. Which answer figure will complete the question figure?

124. In each of the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

125. In each of the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

126. For the following questions answer them individually
Find the number that is common for all of the clues given below:
(a) Virgo
(b) Volleyball
(c) A highest scoring shot of a particular sport
(d) Extra sensory perceptions
A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 4

127. If the words are organised in reverse order of what they appear in dictionary, which word will come in the third place.
A. Odium
B. Ordeum
C. Occulist
D. Odious

128. In each of the following questions, identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below :
Christians, Catholics, Pope

129. In each of the following questions, identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below :
Vegetables, Potatoes, Eatables

130. For the following questions answer them individually
Veena and Veeru both start from a point towards North. Veena turns to left after walking 10 km. Veeru turns to right after walking the same distance. Veena waits for some time and then walks another 5 km. Whereas Veeru walks only 3 km. They both then return towards South and walk 15 km. forward. How far is Veena from Veeru?
A. 8 km.
B. 15 km.
C. 12 km.
D. 10 km.

131. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

132. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.
(1) Hale
(2) Hake
(3) Halt
(4) Hamlet
(5) Ham
A. 2, 1,4, 3, 5
B. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
C. 2, 1,3, 5,4
D. 1,3, 5,2,4

133. Name a single letter, which can be deleted from the body of the following words to form entirely new words?
HOST POST COST LOST STOP
A. O
B. P
C. T
D. S

134. In each of the following questions, which one set of letters/numbers when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
SH_ ELAS_ EELA_ HEELASHEE__ A
A. HHSS
B. EEHS
C. EHSL
D. ELHA

135. 12_41_34123_234
A. 3241
B. 2134
C. 1432
D. 3212

136. aba _ ba _ ab
A. abbab
B. baabb
C. abbbb
D. bbaba

137. For the following questions answer them individually
Find the missing number: 2, 10, 20, 32, 46, ?
A. 62
B. 65
C. 64
D. 60

138. In the question one part of the problem figure is subtracted. Select the option that shows the correct shape by the subtraction.

139. Find out the number of circles in the given figure.

A. 18
B. 19
C. 16
D. 20

140. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

141. If’+’ means ‘x’, ‘-‘ means ‘÷’, ‘x’ means ‘-‘and ‘÷’ means ‘+’then what will be the value of 16 ÷ 64-8 x 4 + 2 ?
A. 18
B. 24
C. 16
D. 12

142. Identify the correct response from the given premises stated according to following :
‘A’ stands for not less than
‘B’ stands for not equal to
‘C’ stands for not greater than
‘D’ stands for greater than
‘E’ stands for less than
‘F’ stands for equal to
Premises: 4YF3X and 3XF6Z
A. 2 YD3Z
B. 2 YE3Z
C. 4YB5Z
D. 2YF3Z

143. Introducing a man, a woman said “His mother is the only daughter of my father”. How is the man related to the woman?
A. Brother
B. Son
C. Father
D. Uncle

144. If ‘air’ is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is called ‘yellow’, ‘yellow’ is called ‘water’ and ‘water’ is called ‘pink’ then what is the colour of clear ‘sky’ ?
A. Sky
B. Water
C. Blue O
D. Yellow

145. In a certain coding system APPLE stands for ETTPI. What is the code for ‘DELHI’?
A. HIPLM
B. CQMND
C. CQPLM
D. ZAHDE

146. Study the diagram given below and answer question. The qualified and experienced doctors working in villages are represented by

A. 6
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2

147. If CUSTOM is written as UCTSMO then how PARENT will be written in the same code?
A. ERAFTN
B. TNERAP
C. RAPINE
D. APERTN

148. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrix given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. ‘A’ can be represented by 01,14 etc. and ‘M’ can be represented by 56, 68 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘EAGLE’.

A. 99, 01, 44, 96, 77
B. 66, 43, 44, 79, 88
C. 55, 14, 11, 78, 66
D. 88, 22, 31, 89, 76

149. In a certain code, FRACTION is written as FNAITCOR. How is QUANTITATIVE written in that code?
A. QTNAVIAITETU
B. QIATAETUTNVI
C. QTEATUIAVITN
D. QEAITATITNVU

150. Which of the following jumble words is not an animal?
A. LATHPEEN
B. TAR
C. FEFEOC
D. TICRECK

PART – D QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

151. If the sum and difference of two angles are 22/9 radian and 36° respectively, then the value of smaller angle in degree taking the value of n as 22/7 is :
A. 52°
B. 60°
C. 56°
D. 48°

152. If p = 99 then, the value of p(p^2 + 3p + 3) is :
A. 989898
B. 988899
C. 999999
D. 998889

153. The least number which when divided by 6, 9,12,15 and 18 leaves the same remainder 2 in each case is :
A. 180
B. 182
C. 178
D. 176

154. The pie-chart given below shows expenditure incurred by a family on various items and their savings. Study the chart and answer the questions based on the pie-chart

The ratio of expenditure on food to savings is:
A. 3:2
B. 10 : 9
C. 3 : 1
D. 2:1

155. The pie-chart given below shows expenditure incurred by a family on various items and their savings. Study the chart and answer the questions based on the pie-chart

If the expenditure on education is 1600 more than that on housing, then the expenditure on food is :
A. 12000
B. 6000
C. 3333
D. 7000

156. The pie-chart given below shows expenditure incurred by a family on various items and their savings. Study the chart and answer the questions based on the pie-chart

If the monthly income is 36000, then the yearly savings is :
A. 70000
B. 72000
C. 60000
D. 74000

157. Among the equations x + 2y + 9 =0 ; 5x-4=0 ; 2y -13 = 0; 2x- 3y = 0, the equation of the straight line passing through origin is
A. 2x – 3y= 0
B. x + 2y+9=0
C. 5x – 4 = 0
D. 2y-13=0

158. If the three angles of a triangle are: (x + 15°) [6x/5+ 6°] and [2x/3 + 30°] then the triangle is
A. isosceles
B. right angled
C. equilateral
D. scalene

159. A kite is flying at the height of 75m from the ground. The string makes an angle Ө (where cotӨ = 8/15) with the level ground. Assuming that there is no slack in the string the length of the string is equal to :
A. 85 metre
B. 65 metre
C. 75 metre
D. 40 metre

160. In an examination, a student must get 36% marks to pass. A student who gets 190 marks failed by 35 marks. The total marks in that examination is
A. 450
B. 810
C. 500
D. 625

161. If D, E and F are the mid points of BC, CA and AB respectively of the ΔABC then the ratio of area of the parallelogram DEFB and area of the trapezium CAFD is :
A. 2 : 3
B. 3 : 4
C. 1 : 2
D. 1:3

162. 4 men and 6 women complete a work in 8 days. 2 men and 9 women also complete in 8 days. The number of days in which 18 women complete the work is :
A. 4 1/3 days
B. 5 1/3 days
C. 4 2/3 days
D. 5 2/3 days

163. If x = 2 then the value of x^3 + 27x^2 + 243x + 631 is
A. 1233
B. 1211
C. 1231
D. 1321

164. If the volume of a sphere is numerically equal to its surface area then its diameter is
A. 6cm
B. 4 cm
C. 2 cm
D. 3 cm

165. The average marks obtained by a student in 6 subjects is 88. On subsequent verification it was found that the marks obtained by him in a subject was wrongly copied as 86 instead of 68. The correct average of the marks obtained by him is
A. 87
B. 85
C. 84
D. 86

166. Given here is a multiple bar diagram of the scores of four players in two innings. Study the diagram and answer the questions:

The average runs of two innings of the player who scored highest in average are:
A. 70
B. 80
C. 85
D. 75

167. Given here is a multiple bar diagram of the scores of four players in two innings. Study the diagram and answer the questions:

The average runs in two innings of the player who has scored minimum in the second innings
A. 30
B. 60
C. 50
D. 40

168. Given here is a multiple bar diagram of the scores of four players in two innings. Study the diagram and answer the questions:

The total scores in the first innings contributed by the four players is
A. 190
B. 210
C. 220
D. 200

169. Given here is a multiple bar diagram of the scores of four players in two innings. Study the diagram and answer the questions:

The average score in second innings contributed by the four players is :
A. 40
B. 50
C. 30
D. 60

170. For the following questions answer them individually
If 3/4 of a number is 7 more then 1/6 of the number, then 5/3 of the number is
A. 12
B. 20
C. 15
D. 18

171. A’s 2 days’ work is equal to B’s 3 days’ work. If A can complete the work in 8 days then to complete the work B will take
A. 14 days
B. 12 days
C. 15 days
D. 16 days

172. Internal bisectors of ∠Q and ∠R of ΔPQR intersect at O. If ∠ROQ = 96° then the value of ∠RPQ is
A. 36°
B. 24°
C. 12°
D. 6°

173. If x = 1/√2+1 then (x + 1) equals to
A. 2
B. √2
C. 2 + 1
D. √2-1

174. If the number of vertices, edges and faces of a rectangular parallel piped are denoted by v, e and f respectively, the value of (v – e + f) is
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1

175. The area of the triangle formed by the graphs of the equations x= 0, 2x+ 3y= 6 and x+ y= 3 is
A. 3 sq. unit
B. 4 1/2 sq. unit
C. 1 1/2 sq. unit
D. 1 sq. unit

176. If 5x + 9y = 5 and 125x^3 + 729y^3 = 120 then the value of the product of x and y is
A. 1/9
B. 1/135
C. 45
D. 135

177. What must be added to each term of the ratio 2 : 5 so that it may equal to 5 : 6 ?
A. 65
B. 78
C. 13
D. 12

178. The value of sin^2 22° + sin^2 68° + cot^2 30° is
A. 4
B. 3
C. ¾
D. 5/4

179. The minimum value of 2sin^2 Ө + 3cos^2 Ө is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1

180. If x^24+1/x^12 = 7 then the value of x^72+1/x^58 is
A. 433
B. 322
C. 343
D. 432

181. 5 persons will live in a tent. If each person requires 16m^2 of floor area and 100m3 space for air then the height of the cone of smallest size to accommodate these persons would be
A. 16 metre
B. 10.25 metre
C. 20 metre
D. 18.75 metre

182. If A and B are in the ratio 4 : 5 and the difference of their squares is 81, what is the value of A?
A. 45
B. 12
C. 36
D. 15

183. If the measure of three angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2:3:5, then the triangle is :
A. right angled
B. isosceles
C. obtuse angled
D. equilateral

184. If 4 men or 8 women can do a piece of work in 15 days, in how many days can 6 men and 12 women do the same piece of work ?
A. 20 days
B. 45 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days

185. A certain sum will amount to 12,100 in 2 years at 10% per annum of compound interest, interest being compounded annually. The sum is
A. 8000
B. 6000
C. 12000
D. 10000

186. The cost price of 100 books is equal to the selling price of 60 books. The gain or loss percentage will be:
A. 66%
B. 66 2/3%
C. 66 ¼%
D. 66 ¾%

187. Find a simple discount equivalent to a discount series of 10%, 20% and 25%.
A. 55%
B. 45%
C. 52%
D. 46%

188. G is the centroid of ΔABC. The medians AD and BE intersect at right angles. If the lengths of AD and BE are 9 cm and 12 cm respectively: then the length of AB (in cm) is
A. 9.5
B. 10
C. 11
D. 10.5

189. If Ө be acute angle and tan (4Ө – 50°) = cot(50° – Ө), then the value of 9 in degrees is:
A. 20
B. 50
C. 40
D. 30

190. Let C1 and C2 be the inscribed and circumscribed circles of a triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm area of C, and 5 cm then area of C1/area of C2.
A. 9/25
B. 4/25
C. 9/16
D. 16/25

191. A train 180 metres long is running at a speed of 90 km/h. How long will it take to pass a post ?
A. 8.2 secs
B. 7.8 secs
C. 8 secs
D. 7.2 secs

192. The difference between successive discounts of 40% followed by 30% and 45% followed by 20% on the marked price of an article is Rs. 12. The marked price of the article is :
A. 800
B. 400
C. 200
D. 600

193. If 5 sin Ө = 3, the numerical value of sec Ө-tan Ө/sec Ө+ tan Ө is
A. ½
B. 1/5
C. 1/3
D. ¼

194. A train runs at an average speed of 75 km/hr. If the distance to be covered is 1050 kms, how long will the train take to cover it?
A. 13 hrs
B. 12 hrs
C. 15 hrs
D. 14 hrs

195. If a person travels from a point L towards east for 12 km and then travels 5 km towards north and reaches a point M, then shortest distance from L to M is :
A. 17 km
B. 13 km
C. 14 km
D. 12 km

196. An article which is marked at Rs. 975 is sold for Rs.897. The discount percent is
A. 10%
B. 12%
C. 6%
D. 8%

197. If the altitude of an equilateral triangle is 12√3 cm, then its area would be :
A. 12 cm2
B. 144√3cm2
C. 72 cm2
D. 36√3 cm2

198. What is the arithmetic mean of first 20 odd natural numbers?
A. 19
B. 17
C. 22
D. 20

199. The HCF of x^8 – 1 and x^4 + 2x^3 – 2x – 1 is
A. x2 + 1
B. x2 – 1
C. x + 1
D. x – 1

200. If sec Ө + tan Ө = p, (p ≠ 0) then sec Ө is equal to
A. [p-1/p],p≠0
B. 2[p-1/p],p≠0
C. [p+1/p],p≠0
D. ½[p+1/p],p≠0

ANSWER KEY
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. D
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. A
17. B
18. D
19. B
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. C
29. B
30. D
31. D
32. C
33. C
34. C
35. B
36. C
37. D
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. D
42. A
43. D
44. A
45. A
46. B
47. B
48. A
49. D
50. C
51. C
52. D
53. B
54. B
55. B
56. B
57. D
58. D
59. C
60. C
61. D
62. C
63. A
64. B
65. B
66. A
67. A
68. D
69. A
70. C
71. A
72. B
73. C
74. A
75. C
76. D
77. C
78. D
79. D
80. C
81. D
82. A
83. C
84. C
85. D
86. A
87. C
88. A
89. D
90. A
91. D
92. C
93. B
94. D
95. D
96. A
97. A
98. B
99. A
100. C
101. C
102. A
103. A
104. D
105. D
106. A
107. B
108. B
109. A
110. A
111. C
112. A
113. D
114. D
115. D
116. A
117. B
118. D
119. C
120. C
121. D
122. D
123. C
124. C
125. A
126. C
127. D
128. B
129. A
130. A
131. C
132. C
133. D
134. C
135. A
136. A
137. A
138. D
139. B
140. C
141. C
142. D
143. B
144. A
145. A
146. C
147. D
148. A
149. D
150. C
151. A
152. C
153. B
154. D
155. A
156. B
157. A
158. C
159. A
160. D
161. A
162. B
163. A
164. A
165. B
166. A
167. D
168. B
169. A
170. B
171. B
172. C
173. B
174. B
175. C
176. B
177. C
178. A
179. C
180. B
181. D
182. B
183. A
184. B
185. D
186. B
187. D
188. B
189. D
190. B
191. D
192. D
193. D
194. D
195. B
196. D
197. B
198. D
199. B
200. D