2015 SSC CGL Tier 1
30 Aug Shift – 1
Question Paper with Answer Key


For the following questions answer them individually
1. Meanders are the features formed by
A. glaciers
B. rivers
C. winds
D. ocean waters

2. Linseed is obtained from
A. Castor
B. Flax
C. Groundnut
D. Sesame

3. If 20% or more area of the country suffers from rain deficits during monsoon season, it is termed as
A. flood year
B. drought year
C. famine year
D. self sufficient year

4. Rajasthan canal receives water from which of the following rivers ?
A. Yamuna
B. Jhelum
C. Ravi
D. Sutlej

5. Uneven distribution of Insolation on the earth is mainly due to the
A. spherical shape of the earth
B. distribution of land and water
C. direction of the winds
D. presence of pressure belts

6. The radiation that can penetrate deepest in our body
A. UV-radiation
B. Alpha-particles
C. 13-particles
D. Gamma-particles

7. Which of the following organism possesses characteristics of a plant and an animal?
A. Euglena
B. Mycoplasma
C. Paramecium
D. Chlorella

8. Match the following:

A. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
B. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
C. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
D. A-2, B-l, C-4, D-3

9. Tachycardia is a condition characterized by
A. heart-rate decreases from the normal
B. heart- rate increases from the normal
C. heartbeat stops
D. hearts fail to pump

10. Oxyntic cell is meant for the secretion of
A. Pepsin
B. Enterokinase
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Lactic acid

11. Sound is heard over longer distances on rainy days because
A. sound travels slowly in moist air
B. sound travels faster in moist air
C. moist air does not absorb sound
D. moist air absorbs sound

12. X-rays are
A. Positively charged particles
B. negatively charged particles
C. neutral particles
D. None of these

13. Which one of the following is a vestigial organ?
A. Eye-brow
B. Collar-bone
C. Wisdom-teeth
D. Nails

14. Railways tracks are banked on curves so that:
A. the train may not fall down inwards.
B. the weight of the train may be reduced.
C. necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the horizontal component of the normal reaction due to track.
D. no frictional force may be produced between the wheels and the track.

15. After ‘PROM’ is programmed, we can only _ the information.
A. read
B. write
C. read and write
D. remove

16. We feel cool when we sit near the fan, this is because
A. fan gives cool air.
B. fan cools surrounding air.
C. air evaporates the sweat on our body.
D. we feel cool when air touches the body.

17. Water flows off the wings of birds and insects due- to the presence of
A. Waxes
B. Sugars
C. Proteins
D. Minerals

18. Which one of the following chemicals is associated with muscle fatigue?
A. Uric acid
B. Acetic acid
C. Pyruvic acid
D. Lactic acid

19. Which one of the following does not contain silver?
A. Horn silver
B. Ruby silver
C. German silver
D. Lunar caustic

20. The average Kinetic energy of the molecules of an ideal gas is directly proportional to:
A. Velocity of Molecules
B. Mass of Molecules
C. Absolute temperature of the gas,
D. Temperature of environment

21. ROM stands for
A. Real Office Manager
B. Read Only Memory
C. Read only Memorandum
D. Role On Memory

22. An important green-house gas other than methane being produced from the agricultural fields
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Ammonia
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Arsine

23. Acid rain is caused due to pollution of atmosphere by
A. oxides of carbon and nitrogen
B. oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
C. oxides of nitrogen and phosphorus
D. None of these

24. The land which is not cultivated every year though it is suitable for cultivation :
A. Waste land
B. Pasture land
C. Fallow land,
D. Cultivable waste land

25. Who among the following is the first Indian to swim across English Channel ?
A. Aarti-Saha
B. Mihir Sen
C. P.K. Bannerji
D. Vikram Merchant

26. Which of the following chemicals is responsible for depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere?
A. Chlorofluorocarbons
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Carbon dioxide

27. Who has authored the book ‘One Life is Not Enough’?
A. V.S. Naipal
B. Natwar Singh
C. K.P.S. Gill
D. Khushwant Singh

28. In the final of the I PL 2015 T-20 Tournament Mumbai Indians defeated
A. Kings XI Punjab
B. Royal Challengers Bangalore
C. Rajasthan Royals
D. Chennai Super kings

29. Nobel Peace Prize for 2014 has been awarded to
A. Malala Yusufzai (Pakistan)
B. Kailash Satyarthi (India)
C. Both Malala Yusufzai (Pakistan) and Kailash Satyarthi (India)
D. Neither Malala Yusufzai (Pakistan) nor Kailash Satyarthi (India)

30. Who was the recipient of the Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2014?
A. Shashi Kapoor
B. Shakti Kapoor
C. Shashikant Kapoor
D. Shekhar Kapoor

31. Who among the following was the first European to be selected as President of Indian National Congress ?
A. Annie Besant
B. George Yule
C. A.O. Hume
D. Alfred Webb

32. Palk Strait is situated between
A. India and Pakistan
B. India and Bangladesh
C. India and Sri Lanka
D. India and Myanmar

33. Birmingham in U.K. is famous for
A. Iron and Steel industry
B. Sugar industry
C. Paper industry
D. Aluminium industry

34. Which city is hosting the 2016 Olympic Games ?
A. Seoul
B. Barcelona
C. Rio-de-Janeiro
D. Los Angeles

35. Which of the following industries is at Koraput?
A. Ship Building
B. Aircrafts Building
C. Iron and Steel
D. Electric Locomotives

36. One of the following expenditure is an example of investment expenditure.
A. an entrepreneur purchasing a computer for domestic use.
B. a firm purchasing raw materials for final production.
C. an entrepreneur buying plane tickets for a family trip,
D. a firm purchasing computer for smooth maintenance of accounts.

37. Point out the incorrect pair:
A. Green Revolution – Agricultural Development
B. White Revolution – Dairy Development
C. Blue Revolution – Development of Fisheries
D. Operation Flood – Irrigation Development

38. Steel sheets used in the production of furniture’s is an example of
A. an intermediate good
B. a final good
C. an investment good
D. a consumption good

39. Which of the following is not an economic activity ?
A. A labourer working in a factory.
B. A CRPF jawan guarding country’s borders.
C. A teacher teaching his own son.
D. A farmer tilling his own land.

40. Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?
A. Comrade – Mohammed AN
B. Indian Sociologist – Lala Har Dayal
C. Young India – Lala Lajpat Rai
D. Common Weal – Annie Besant

41. Indian economy is an example of a mixed economy because,
A. urban sector coexists with vast rural sector
B. traditional subsistence economy coexists with modern economy
C. private sector coexists with public sector enterprises.
D. monopoly elements coexist with competitive elements

42. Who administers the oath of office to the President?
A. Chief Justice of India
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Vice-President
D. Prime Minister

43. The President of India can be removed from his office by the
A. Chief Justice of India
B. Parliament
C. Lok Sabha
D. Prime Minister

44. With which conspiracy case Aurobindo Ghosh’s name is connected ?
A. Kakori Conspiracy Case
B. Lahore Conspiracy Case
C. Meerut Conspiracy Case
D. Alipore Conspiracy Case

45. Who among the following are involved with Cauvery River dispute ?
A. The Central Government and Karnataka
B. The Central Government and Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Puduchery

46. Who was the founder of Swatantra Party ?
A. B.G.Tilak
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
D. C. Rajagopalachari

47. Arrange in chronological order:
1. Cabinet Mission
2. Cripps Mission
3. Montague-Chelmsford Refoi ins
4. Minto-Marley Reforms
A. 3, 2, 4, 1
B. 1,2, 3, 4
C. 4,3,2,1
D. 2, 3, 4,1

48. The Political Guru of Mahatma Gandhi was
A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
C. Mahadev Govind Ranade
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

49. Who among the following is known as the ‘Napoleon of India’ ?
A. Chandragupta
B. Samudragupta
C. Harshavardhana
D. Ashoka

50. One of the following Indus Valley sites is in Pakistan :
A. Lothal
B. Kalibangan
C. Alamgirpur
D. Harappa


51. He parts his hair in the centre.
A. at the’ centre
B. near the centre
C. in the middle
D. No improvement

52. I can’t allow to make jokes in the class.
A. Cut
B. crack
C. break
D. No improvement

53. Shut the window; it is fairly cold.
A. Quiet
B. quite
C. rather
D. No improvement

54. She is the lady who will inaugurate the exhibition.
A. declare the exhibition open
B. start the exhibition
C. begin the exhibition
D. No improvement

55. He avoids to speak to me.
A. to talk
B. speaking
C. speech
D. No improvement

56. A major water pollutant due to the growth of large cities is the sewages.
A. Sewage
B. a sewages
C. the sewage
D. No improvement

57. I have just taken my meals.
A. I have just had my food
B. I am done with my meals
C. I finished my meals
D. No improvement

58. I stayed at Henry house for a week.
A. Henry’s home
B. Henry’s
C. Henry home
D. No Improvement

59. The warden told the boys to quickly clean their rooms.
A. clean their rooms hastily
B. clean their rooms quickly
C. cleanse their rooms quickly
D. No improvement

60. I needn’t get up early tomorrow, shouldn’t I?
A. don’t I
B. do I
C. need I
D. No improvement

In the following questions, out of the four alternative, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

61. Something that is difficult to understand.
A. Incomplete
B. Inconclusive
C. Inconceivable
D. Incomprehensible

62. That which is arranged by conferring or discussing
A. Meeting
B. seminar
C. debate
D. negotiation

63. A mournful poem or a song
A. Comedy
B. Tragedy
C. elegy
D. ode

64. An image without objective reality
A. Shadow
B. utopia
C. sensation
D. hallucination

65. The branch of medical science which deals with the problems of the old
A. Oncology
B. obstetrics
C. paediatrics
D. geriatrics

66. A child secretly changed for another in infancy
A. nipper
B. changeling
C. tiddler
D. tyke

67. One who suffers for one’s faith
A. Prophet
B. Mystic
C. seer
D. martyr

In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word as your answer.

A. Diploreable
B. Deploreable
C. Deplorable
D. Diplorible

A. Surreptious
B. Surreptitious
C. Surreptitous
D. Surrepititious

In the following questions, read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Half a century ago, a person was far More likely to die from heart disease. Now, cancer is the No. 1 cause of death. Troubling as this sounds, the comparison is unfair. Cancer is, by far the harder problem a condition deeply ingrained in the nature of multicellular life. Given these obstacles, cancer researchers are fighting and even winning smaller battles : reducing the death to!! from childhood cancers and preventing and sometimes even curing cancers that strike people in their prime. But when it comes to diseases of the elderly, there can be no decisive victory.
The diseases that one killed earlier in life bubonic plague, smallpox, influenza, tuberculosis were easier obstacles. Each had a precise cause that could be confronted. The toll of heart diseases has been pushed into the future, with diet, exercise and medicine that help control blood pressure and cholesterol. Because of these interventions people between 55 and 84 are increasingly more likely to die from cancer than from heart disease.

70. The author believes that heart disease is no longer a leading killer disease because
A. people between the ages of 55 to 84 are not affected by it.
B. the factors that lead to heart disease do not exist any longer.
C. the factors that lead to heart disease have been brought under control through medical intervention.
D. people live a healthier and fulfilling life today.

71. Which of the following statements is UNTRUE (with reference to the given passage)?
A. Killer diseases like the plague were easier to deal with compared to cancer.
B. Cancer researchers have managed to reduce the number of deaths among children suffering from cancer.
C. The greatest problem faced by cancer researchers is in the complex condition and nature of multicellular life.
D. Cancer researchers have achieved the greatest victory by containing this disease among the elderly.

72. “The toll of heart disease has been pushed into the future” means that
A. There is less chance for people to die of cancer in the present moment.
B. The number of people affected by heart disease has increased.
C. The number of people killed by heart disease will increase in future.
D. People suffering from heart disease today are less likely to die from it Immediately.

73. “Cancer is by far the harder problem”. (Improve the sentence)
A. a tougher problem
B. a more difficult problem
C. a firmer problem
D. the most complex problem

74. According to the writer, why is cancer more difficult to deal with than heart disease?
A. Because more people lost their lives to heart diseases 50 years ago.
B. Cancer does not have a precise cause and is more complex in nature.
C. Cancer defies detection at an early stage and therefore is not curable.
D. Fewer people suffer from heart disease than cancer.

In the following questions, read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
It is strange that, according to his position in life, an extravagant man is admired or despised. A successful businessman does nothing to increase his popularity by being careful with his money. He is expected to display his success, to have a smart car, an expensive life, and to be lavish with his hospitality. If he is not so, he is considered mean and his reputation in business may even suffer in consequence.
The paradox remains that if he had not been careful with his money in the first place, he would never have achieved his present wealth. Among the two income groups, a different set of values exists. The young clerk who makes his wife a present of a new dress when he hadn’t paid his house rent, is condemned as extravagant. Carefulness’ with money to the point of meanness is applauded as a virtue. Nothing in his life is considered more worthy than paying his bills. The ideal wife for such a man separates her housekeeping money into joyless little piles, and she is able to face the milkman with equanimity and never knows the guilt of buying something she can’t really afford.

75. The phrase ‘lavish with his hospitality’ here means :
A. miserliness in dealing with his friends.
B. considerateness in spending on guests and strange
C. extravagance in entertaining guests.
D. Indifference in treating his friends and relatives.

76. We understand from the passage that
A. all mean people are wealthy.
B. wealthy people are invariably successful
C. carefulness generally leads to failure.
D. being thrifty may lead to success.

77. How does the housewife, according to the writer, feel when she saves money?
A. She feels she needs to be thrifty
B. Wishes life is less burdensome
C. She is troubled by a sense of guilt
D. Wishes she could sometimes be extravagant

78. The statement ‘she is able to face the milkman with equanimity’ implies that
A. She is not upset as she has been paying the milkman his dues regularly.
B. She loses her nerve at the sight of the milkman who always demands his dues.
C. She manages to keep cool when she confronts the milkman
D. She remains composed and confident as she knows that she can handle the milkman.

79. In the opinion of the writer, a successful businessman
A. is more popular if he appears to be doing nothing
B. should not bother about his popularity.
C. must be extravagant before achieving success.
D. is expected to have expensive taste.

In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number c sentence is free from error, your answer is (4) i.e. No error.

80. After he was caught cheating he was disqualified to appear at the examination.
A. After he was caught cheating
B. he was disqualified
C. to appear at the examination
D. No error

81. She stopped singing as soon as the telephone rings from across the hall.
A. She stopped singing
B. as soon as the telephone
C. rings from across the hall
D. No error

82. The old curtains were torn and they flapped in the light breeze.
A. The old curtains were torn
B. and they flapped
C. in the light breeze
D. No error

83. I do not know who you consider to be the best dancer.
A. I do not know
B. who you consider
C. to be the best dancer
D. no error

84. So hoarse he was that he could not make the speech.
A. So hoarse he was
B. that he could not make
C. the speech
D. No error

In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

85. The crop will fail … it rains this week.
A. unless
B. until
C. till
D. when

86. “She decided to……… as the competition was quite stiff.”
A. stand out
B. leave
C. get Out
D. stand down

87. If she were selected, she……….. a good secretary.
A. would make
B. will .make
C. can make
D. would have made

88. He worked…………. of his ability.
A. All the best
B. With the best
C. In the best
D. to the best

89. The Chief Minister asked her officers to…….. the process of procuring foodTor the poor from the market.
A. speed up
B. expedite
C. hasten
D. do fast

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

90. Bumptious
A. Uncouth
B. Conceited
C. Rude
D. Shrewd

91. Ostracize
A. Evacuate
B. Excavate
C. Expel
D. Extradite

92. Bane
A. Challenge
B. Curse
C. Danger
D. Threat

In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

93. Arrogant
A. Favourable
B. Illiterate
C. Kind
D. Humble

94. Impoverished
A. Pure
B. Affluent
C. Important
D. Efficient

95. Affirmed
A. Contradicted
B. Opposed
C. Disputed
D. Denied

In each of the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase as your answer.

96. Anand is a nice guy, but sometimes he really gets on my nerves.
A. makes me nervous
B. shakes my self-confidence
C. annoys me
D. makes me uncomfortable

97. As a student, you should catch time by the forelock.
A. speed up
B. set up clock back
C. slow down
D. seize opportunity

98. Receiving his first award was a shot in the arm for him.
A. something that gives encouragement
B. something that is painful
C. something that needs attention
D. something done with a purpose

99. It is sometimes wiser to rely on horse sense than on the advice of colleagues.
A. advice of parents
B. advice of teachers
C. advice of colleagues
D. basic common sense

100. Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, was a man of letters.
A. a great letter-writer
B. a great politician
C. a literary person
D. a great patriot


In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

101. 325, 259. 204, 160, 127, 105, ?
A. 94
B. 96
C. 98
D. 100

102. AZBY, CXDW, EVFU, ?

For the following questions answer them individually

103. The heights of three towers are in the ratio 5 : 6 : 7. If a spider takes 15 minutes to climb the smallest tower, how much time will it take to climb the highest one?
A. 15 minutes
B. 18 minutes
C. 21 minutes
D. 54 minutes

104. Ramesh has brother Suresh. Ramesh is the son of Gopal. Govind is Gopal’s father. How is Suresh related to Govind?
A. Son
B. Brother
C. Grandson
D. Grandfather

105. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word : ADVERTISEMENT

106. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle. C is to the left of D, F is between A and E, and E is between F and D. Who is to the left of F?
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. E

107. Given below are the jumbled letters of a word and their corresponding numbers. Select the combination of numbers that makes a meaningful word.
A. 5742613
B. 2375416
C. 4572316
D. 7234516

108. If BROAD means 19812, CLOCK means
A. 68262
B. 68622
C. 26826
D. 37836

109. TAP is SZO, then FREEZE is

110. Identify the single letter, which when removed from the following words form new words. MINK, LAMP, TEAM, WARM
A. R
B. A
C. L
D. M

111. If 876 =12, 864 = 81, 895 = 22, what is 824 =?
A. 14
B. 64
C. 48
D. 41

112. If + stands for *; – stands for #; x stands for @ and ÷ stands for %, then which of the following statements is correct?
A. 256% 16 @ 5 #28 = 52
B. 256 # 16 %5# 28 = 120
C. 256 @ 5% 16 *28 = 408
D. 256# 16 @ 5% 28 = 80

113. Choose the appropriate combination of signs (in place of the three *) to solve the equation. (16+ 18) *(21-11) *32 *8
A. – x =
B. – = –
C. + = –
D. ÷ – =

114. If MOON is coded as -2, STAR will be coded as
A. -2
B. 2
C. 3
D. -3

115. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 240
B. 246
C. 250
D. 256

116. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 70
B. 90
C. 100
D. 89

117. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 34
B. 54
C. 44
D. 64

118. In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 24
B. 100
C. 144
D. 64

For the following questions answer them individually

119. A man starts from a point and moves 3 km North, then turns to West and goes 2 km. He turns North and walks 1 km and then moves 5 km towards East. How far is he from the starting point?
A. 11 km.
B. 10 km.
C. 8 km.
D. 5 km.

120. Abhay travelled 9 km Northwards, turned left and travelled 5 km, then turned left again and travelled 9 km. How far is Abhay from the starting point?
A. 5 km.
B. 9 km.
C. 4 km.
D. 14 km.

In each of the following questions, one or two statements is given followed by four/two conclusions, I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.

121. Statements :
I. Some boys are men.
II. No man is black.
Conclusions :
I. Some boys are not black.
II. Some men are boys.
A. Only Conclusion I follows.
B. Only Conclusion II follows.
C. Either I or II follows.
D. Neither I nor II follows.

122. Statements :
All scientists working in America are talented. Some are Indians.
Conclusions :
I. None of the Indian scientists is talented.
II. Some talented Indian scientists have migrated.
III. All talented scientists are in America.
IV. Some Indian scientists are talented.
A. Only Conclusion I follows
B. Only Conclusion II follows.
C. Only Conclusion III follows
D. Conclusions II and IV follow.

In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

123. Book : Paper:: Bread : ?
A. Flour
B. Biscuit
C. Cake
D. Butter

124. QDXM : SFYN : : UIOZ : ?

125. BAD:DDH::CUT: ?

126. 4 : 64 :: 2 : ?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 22
D. 12

127. 49 : 56 : : 36 : ?
A. 52
B. 44
C. 42
D. 43

128. Hot: Cold :: ?
A. Summer: Sun
B. Germs : Disease
C. Light: Dark
D. Thin : Big

129. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

130. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

131. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Agitate
B. Affirm
C. Attack
D. Affect

132. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 35-66
B. 71 – 94
C. 24 – 57
D. 56-70

133. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 125
B. 343
C. 516
D. 729

134. In each of the following questions, find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Perimeter
B. Area
C. Density
D. Distance

In each the following questions, which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

1. Book
2. Pulp
3. Timber
4. Jungle (Forest)
5. Paper
A. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
B. 2, 5, 1,4,3
C. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
D. 5, 4, 3, 1, 2

1. Pollution
2. Population
3. Death
4. Disease
A. 2, 3, 4,1
B. 3, 4, 2, 1
C. 2, 1,4,3
D. 1,2, 3,4

For the following questions answer them individually

137. Which number is wrong in the given series?
12439, 23549, 34659, 45769
A. 34659
B. 23549
C. 45769
D. 12439

138. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
Lb_ ub_ ubt_ blu_ tub
A. ubtlu
B. utlub
C. tulbu
D. butlu

139. Identify the number at the bottom when the top is 5 in a dice.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

140. Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in the question figure have been cut.

141. Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in the question figure have been cut.

142. In the following diagram, the square represents college students, the, triangle represents artists, the parallelogram represents singers. Which region best represents college students who are artists as well as singers?

A. G
B. C
C. E
D. B

143. The diagram represents the number of students studying different subjects. What is the number of students who study either History or Biology?

A. 4
B. 16
C. 30
D. 26

144. The diagram given below shows number of students who got distinction in three subjects out of 500 students. What is the percentage of students who got distinction in all subjects?

A. 10.2
B. 8
C. 10
D. 2.2

145. In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

146. In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

For the following questions answer them individually
147. From the given answer figures, select, the one in which the question figure is hidden embedded.

148. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

149. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

150. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 01,14 etc. and T can be represented by 55, 68 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word PERSON’.

A. 66, 03, 10, 33, 56, 03
B. 96,12,32,40,77,34
C. 75, 20, 43, 04, 98, 42
D. 87, 11, 22, 24, 67, 04


151. A train travels 500 m in first minute. In the next 4 minutes, it travels in each minute 125 m more than that in the previous minute. The average speed per hour of the train during those 5 minutes will be
A. 30 km/hr
B. 45 km/hr
C. 50 km/hr
D. 55 km/hr

152. If ratio of principal and simple interest for 1 year is 25 :1, then the rate of interest is
A. 4%
B. 25%
C. 5%
D. 20%

153. If a man running at 15 kmph crosses a bridge in 5 minutes, the length of the bridge is
A. 1000 metres
B. 500 metres
C. 750 metres
D. 1250 metres

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

A. 1
B. 0
C. 2
D. ½

A. √7,-1
B. √7,1
C. 0, -2/3
D. -2/3, 0

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. √2

A. 2:√3
B. √3:4
C. √3:2
D. 4:√3

160. A point in the 4th quadrant is 6 unit away from x-axis and 7 unit away from y-axis. The point is at
A. (7,-6)
B. (-7,6)
C. (-6. -7)
D. (-6, 7)

161. PQRST is a cyclic pentagon and PT is a diameter, then ∠PQR + ∠RST is equal to
A. 180°
B. 270°
C. 216°
D. 144°

A. 98
B. 1000
C. 5
D. 970

163. The distance between the centres of the two circles of radii r1, and r2 is d. They will touch each other internally if
A. d= r1 or r2
B. d = r1+r2
C. d = r1- r2
D. d = √r1r2

164. ΔABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC = 10 cm, AD = 8 cm is the median on BC from A. The length of BC is
A. 8 cm
B. 12 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 6 cm

165. A point Q is 13 cm from the centre of a circle. The length of the tangent drawn from Q to a circle is 12 cm. The distance of Q from the nearest point of the circle is
A. 7 cm
B. 8 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 12 cm

166. ΔABC is a right angled triangle with AB = 6 cm, AC = 8 cm, ∠BAC = 90′. Then the radius of the in circle is
A. 4 cm.
B. 2 cm.
C. 6 cm.
D. 3 cm.

167. In a circle with centre O, AB and CD are two diameters perpendicular to each other. The length of chord AC is
A. 2 AB
B. √2 AB
C. ½ AB
D. 1/√2 AB

168. ΔABC is similar to ΔDEF. The ratio of their perimeters is 4:1. The ratio of their areas is:
A. 4:1
B. 16:1
C. 8:1
D. 8√2:1

169. The angle between the minute hand and hour hand of a clock when the time is 7:20 is equal to?
A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 100°
D. 120°

170. The value of cos^2 30° + sin^2 60° + tan^2 45° +sec^2 60° + cos0° is
A. 4 ½
B. 5 ½
C. 6 ½
D. 7 ½

171. If a 48 m tall building has a shadow of 48√3 m., then the angle of elevation of the sun is
A. 15°
B. 60°
C. 45°
D. 30°

172. If cosx + cos^2 x = 1, then sin^8x + 2 sin^6x + sin^4 x is equal to
A. 0
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

173. O is the circum centre of the triangle ABC and ∠BAC = 85°, ∠BCA = 75°, then the value of ∠OAC is
A. 55°
B. 150°
C. 20°
D. 70°

174. If x = p cosec Ө and y = q cot Ө, then the value of x^2/p^2 – y^2/q^2 is
A. sin^2 Ө
B. tan Ө
C. 1
D. 0

175. From an aeroplane just over a straight road, the angles of depression of two consecutive kilometre stones situated at opposite sides of the aeroplane were found to be 60° and 30° respectively. The height (in km) of the aeroplane from the road at that instant was (Given √3 = 1.732)
A. 0.433
B. 8.66
C. 4.33
D. 0.866

176. In ΔABC, ∠C = 90° and AB = c, BC = a, CA = b; then the value of (cosec B – cos A) is
A. c^2/ab
B. b^2/ca
C. a^2/bc
D. bc/a^2

A. 0.4
B. 0.02
C. 0.04
D. 0.2

178. If 1 man or 2 women or 3 boys can do a piece of work in 44 days, then the same piece of work will be done by 1 man, 1 woman and 1 boy in
A. 21 days
B. 24 days
C. 26 days
D. 33 days

179. The digit in the unit place in the square root of 66049 is
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 2

180. 8 workers can build a wall 18 m long, 2 m broad and 12 m high in 10 days, working 9 hours a day. Find how many workers will be able to build a wall 32 m long, 3 m broad and 9 m high in 8 days working 6 hours a day ?
A. 16
B. 20
C. 30
D. 10

181. A leak in the bottom of a tank can empty the full tank in 6 hours. An inlet pipe fills water at the rate of 4 litres a minute. When the tank is full, the inlet is opened and due to the leak the tank is empty in 8 hours. Find the capacity of the tank.
A. 5760 litres
B. 96 litres
C. 10 litres
D. 24 litres

182. The percentage increase in the area of a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by 20% is equal to
A. 32%
B. 34%
C. 42%
D. 44%

183. The paint in a certain container is sufficient to paint an area equal to 9.375 m . How many bricks measuring 22.5 cm by 10 cm by 7.5 cm can be painted out of this container?
A. 200
B. 1000
C. 10
D. 100

184. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3:2. If a man cycling along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 kmph completes one round in 8 minutes, then the area of the park is equal to
A. 152600 m2
B. 153500 m2
C. 153600 m2
D. 153800 m2

185. A company showroom gives a discount of 20% on the second grade shoes and a further discount of 15% on shareholder’s coupon. The total discount, a coupon holder will get is
A. 32%
B. 36%
C. 35%
D. 38%

186. 20% profit is made when a discount of 20% is given on the marked price. When the discount is 30% profit will be
A. 4%
B. 5%
C. 6%
D. 7.5%

187. A dealer buys a table listed at Rs. 1,500 and gets successive discounts of 20% and 10%. He spends Rs. 20 on transportation and sells it at a profit of 20%. Find the selling price of the table.
A. Rs. 1,420
B. Rs. 1,300
C. Rs. 1,320
D. Rs. 1,380

188. Three utensils contain equal quantity of mixtures of milk and water in the ratio 6:1, 5: 2 and 3: respectively. If all the solutions are mixed together, the ratio of milk and water in the final mixture is
A. 65:28
B. 65 : 19
C. 19 : 65
D. 19 : 28

189. The average of 6 consecutive natural numbers is K. If the next two natural numbers are also included, how much more than K will the average of these 8 numbers be?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1.8

190. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 2 and their expenditures are in the ratio 5:3. If each saves Rs. 1000, then A’s income is
A. Rs. 6000
B. Rs. 4000
C. Rs. 2000
D. Rs. 5000

191. If the cost price of 10 articles equals selling price of 9 articles, the gain or loss percent will be
A. 11 1/9 % loss
B. 1 1/9% loss
C. 1 1/9 % gain
D. 11 1/9% gain

192. The price of an item was increased by 10%. This reduced the monthly total sales by 20%. The overall effect on the value of monthly sales is a
A. 10% increase
B. 10% decrease
C. 12% increase
D. 12% decrease

193. The mean of 1^3,2^3,3^3,4^3,5^3,6^3,7^3 is
A. 20
B. 112
C. 56
D. 28

194. Study the following bar diagram carefully and answer the four questions. Production of buses of company A and company B over the given years.

In which year for the company A the percentage increase of production of buses with respect to the previous year is maximum?
A. 2010
B. 2012
C. 2011
D. 2013

195. Study the following bar diagram carefully and answer the four questions. Production of buses of company A and company B over the given years.

The average production (in thousand) of the company B over the years 2009, 2011, 2012 is
A. 87.33
B. 80.67
C. 90.33
D. 84

196. Study the following bar diagram carefully and answer the four questions. Production of buses of company A and company B over the given years.

The average production (in thousand) of company A over the years 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013 is
A. 74
B. 81.25
C. 85.5
D. 81

197. Study the following bar diagram carefully and answer the four questions. Production of buses of company A and company B over the given years.

The ratio of the average production of company A in 2009 and 2010 to the average production of company B in the same years is
A. 147:170
B. 81 : 95
C. 67 : 76
D. 85 : 99

198. The pie-chart shows the proposed outlay for different sectors during a Five-Year plan of Government of India. Total outlay is Rs. 40,000 crores. By reading the pie-chart answer the following three questions.

What is the proposed outlay for Education?
A. Rs. 6000 crores
B. Rs. 8000 crores
C. Rs. 9000 crores
D. Rs. 7000 crores

199. The pie-chart shows the proposed outlay for different sectors during a Five-Year plan of Government of India. Total outlay is Rs. 40,000 crores. By reading the pie-chart answer the following three questions.

If the proposed outlay of Irrigation is x% of the proposed outlay of Agriculture, then x is equal to
A. 50%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 75%

200. The pie-chart shows the proposed outlay for different sectors during a Five-Year plan of Government of India. Total outlay is Rs. 40,000 crores. By reading the pie-chart answer the following three questions.

What is the ratio between the proposed outlay of Irrigation and Communication?
A. 9 : 8
B. 3 : 2
C. 9 : 5
D. 6 : 5


1. B
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. C
14. C
15. A
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. C
21. B
22. A
23. B
24. D
25. B
26. A
27. B
28. D
29. C
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. C
35. B
36. D
37. D
38. A
39. C
40. C
41. C
42. A
43. B
44. D
45. C
46. D
47. C
48. B
49. B
50. D
51. C
52. B
53. C
54. D
55. B
56. C
57. A
58. A
59. B
60. B
61. D
62. B
63. C
64. D
65. D
66. B
67. D
68. C
69. B
70. C
71. D
72. D
73. B
74. B
75. C
76. D
77. B
78. A
79. B
80. C
81. C
82. D
83. C
84. A
85. B
86. D
87. A
88. D
89. B
90. B
91. C
92. B
93. D
94. B
95. D
96. C
97. D
98. A
99. D
100. C
101. A
102. C
103. C
104. C
105. D
106. D
107. C
108. C
109. B
110. D
111. D
112. A
113. B
114. D
115. D
116. B
117. B
118. C
119. D
120. A
121. B
122. D
123. A
124. D
125. D
126. B
127. C
128. C
129. A
130. C
131. B
132. D
133. C
134. C
135. C
136. C
137. A
138. B
139. A
140. C
141. A
142. B
143. C
144. D
145. B
146. C
147. C
148. B
149. B
150. D
151. B
152. A
153. D
154. A
155. A
156. A
157. C
158. C
159. D
160. A
161. B
162. D
163. C
164. B
165. B
166. B
167. D
168. B
169. C
170. D
171. D
172. D
173. D
174. C
175. D
176. C
177. D
178. B
179. B
180. C
181. A
182. D
183. D
184. C
185. A
186. B
187. C
188. B
189. B
190. A
191. D
192. D
193. B
194. B
195. A
196. B
197. C
198. B
199. A
200. D