SSC CGL Tier 1 – 8 July 2012 1st Sitting
Directions (1-9): In each of the following questions, select the related letters / words / numbers from the given alternatives.
1. 9 : 80: : 100 : ?
2. 25: 125 :: 36 : ?
3. 335: 21 6:: 987:?
4. BEGK: ADFJ :: : PSVY:?
5. AZBY: CXDW :: EVFU : ?
6. BDFH: SUWY : : CEGI : ?
7. food: man:: fuel:?
8. Spiritual: Belief:: Orchestral:?
9. Latter: Former :: Hazardous: ?
Directions (10-18): In each of the following questions, find the odd word/ number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
(a) B E
(b) G J
(c) N P
(d) Q R
(a) C X
(b) D W
(c) J Q
(d) L R
19. Which word will appear third the dictionary?
20. Which word will appear last in the dictionary?
21. Arrange the given words in a meaningful order:
(a) 3, 1,2,4,5
(b) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(c) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Directions (22-23) : In each of the following questions, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
22. c _ ab _ ca _ bc _ a
23. _ ba _ bab _ babb _ b
Directions (24-27): In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.
24. 500, 484, 459, __?__, 374
25. MNOPWXYZRSTUBCD__? __
26. 60, 69, 85, __ ?__ ,146
27. 46, 50, 47, 55, 49, 61, __?__
28. The average age of 25 subordinates in an office is 30 years. If the age of Manager is added, the average age increases to 31 years. What is the age of the Manager?
29. Class A has students twice that of class B. After adding 20 students to class A and 30 students to class B, the total number of students in both the classes is 140. What is the number of students in class A in the beginning?
30. Find the lowest number which is divided by 8, 12, 15 and 20 leaves the remainder 2.
31. If B becomes A and P becomes O, what will K become in the English alphabet?
32. The given word is followed by 4 responses, one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the word given ‘CAMBRIDGE’. Find out the word.
33. If SEASONAL is written as ESSANOLA, how can SEPA RATE be written in that code?
34. In certain code, RAGHAVAN is written as GARVAHNA. In that code which word will be written as MATHAVAN?
35. If ‘FRIEND’ is coded as ‘IULHQG’, how will you code ‘ENEMY’?
36. In a coded language, if the word EQUATION is coded as GSWCVKQP, then how is the word DONKEY coded?
37. If 38 + 15 = 66 and 29 + 36 = 99, then 82 + 44 = ?
38. If + means ÷, – means x, x means +, ÷ means -, give the value for 45 + 9 – 3 x 15 ÷ 2
Directions (39-40): In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.
41. From the given details, estimate the number of people affected by Tuberculosis in particular locality in the year 1994.
1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
? 92 113 141 176
42. A man started from a place walked towards North for 5 km then turned 90° to his right and walked another 5 km. Then he turned 45° to his right and walked 2 km and turned 45° to his left. What is his direction now?
(b) South East
(d) South West
43. A boy running towards South, turns to his right and runs, Then he turns to his right and finally turns to his left. Towards which direction is he running now?
Directions (44-45): In the following questions, one statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
To keep myself updated, I always listen to 9 O’clock news on radio.
I. The person does not read newspaper.
II. Recent news is available only on radio.
(a) Only conclusion I is implicit
(b) Only conclusion II is implicit
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is implicit
(d) Both conclusions I and II are implicit
All wealthy people are happy in life.
I. Wealth and happiness are directly related.
II. Wealth leads to happiness in life.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Directions: In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the question figure?
46. Question Figure
47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden! embedded.
Directions: In the following question, a piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
48. Question Figures:
49. Select the correct option that will be the mirror reflection of the problem figure.
Directions: In the following question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘P’ can be represented by 11, 32, etc. and ‘K’ can be represented by 65, 78, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word SALM.
(a) 55, 20, 56, 69
(b) 79, 13, 69, 75
(c) 96, 34, 76, 89
(d) 67, 21, 85, 97
51. Which one of the following is an example for a non-economic good?
(a) Doctor’s service
(b) Teacher’s service
(c) Mother’s service
(d) Banker’s service
52. Which one of the following committee is associated with banking sector reforms in India?
(a) L. C. Gupta
53. Which one of the following is not a qualitative credit control measure of the RBI?
(a) Fixing margin requirements
(b) Variable interest rates
(c) Open market operations
(d) Credit rationing
54. The 13 th Five Year Plan will be operative for the period
(a) 2010 – 2015
(b) 2011 – 2016
(c) 2012 – 2017
(d) 2013 – 2018
55. The national income of a nation is the
(a) Government’s annual revenue
(b) Sum total of factor incomes
(c) Surplus of public sector enterprises
(d) Exports minus imports
56. The Constitutional Amendment Act that has introduced safeguards against the misuse of proclamation of national emergency is the
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 43rd Amendment Act
(c) 44th Amendment Act
(d) 45 th Amendment Act
57. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended by the
(c) Law Minister
(d) Prime Minister
58. The main reason for the growth of communalism in India is
(a) Educational and economic backwardness of minority groups
(b) Political consciousness
(c) Social inequalities
(d) Imposing ban on communal organizations
59. A Retired Judge of a High Court is not permitted to practice as a lawyer in
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Any Court in India
(c) High Courts
(d) Except the High Court where he retired
60. Which one of the following does not match?
(a) Hindu Marriage Act : 1955
(b) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act: 1971
(c) Domestic Violence on Women Act: 1990
(d) Cruelty against Women: 1995
61. Who among the following was the First Viceroy of India?
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(d) Lord Canning
62. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was defeated in the Second Battle of Tarain by
(a) Mahmud Ghazni
(b) Muhammad Ghori
(c) Qutbuddin Aibak
63. The original name of Nana Phadnavis was
(a) Mahadaji Sindhia
(b) Tukoji Holkar
(c) Narayan Rao
(d) Balaji Janardan Bhanu
64. Who among the following first propounded the idea of Basic Education?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Dayanand Saraswati
65. Arrange the following in chronological order:
I. Dandi March
II. Simon Commission
III. Poona Pact
IV. Gandhi Irwin Pact
(a) II, I, III, IV
(b) II, I, IV, III
(c) IV III, I, II
(d) IV III, II I
66. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Darjeeling – West Bengal
(b) Mount Abu – Rajasthan
(c) Kodaikanal – Tamil Nadu
(d) Simla – Uttar Pradesh
67. The earth is at its maximum distance from the Sun on
(a) January 30th
(b) December 22nd
(c) September 22nd
(d) July 4th
68. Consider the following pairs;
Tributary Main River
1. Chambal Yamuna
2. Sone Narmada
3. Manas Brahmputra
Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Only 3
69. A form of condensation that reduces visibility and causes breathing problems is
70. The total population divided by available arable land area is referred to as
(a) Population density
(b) Nutritional density
(c) Agricultural density
(d) Industrial density
71. Green glands are associated with
72. During respiration, the gases enter into the blood and leave the same by the process of
(a) Active transport
(c) Diffusion and active transport
73. Heart is devoid of
(a) Cardiac muscle
(b) Involuntary muscle
(c) Voluntary muscle
(d) Smooth muscle
74. The soil salinity is measured by
(a) Conductivity meter
75. Which of the following is a fungal disease?
76. Chickenpox is caused by
(a) DNA virus
(b) Variola virus
(d) Vi rio cholera
77. Instruments can be shielded from outside magnetic effects by surrounding them with
(a) Iron shield
(b) Rubber shield
(c) Brass shield
(d) Glass shield
78. Find the odd one.
(d) Slaked lime
79. The following is a pseudo-force
(a) Centrepetal force
(b) Centrifugal reaction force
(c) Centrifugal force
(d) Strong nuclear force
80. The hydraulic brake used in automobiles is a direct application of
(a) Archimedes principle
(b) Torricellean law
(c) Bernoulli’s Theorem
(d) Pascal’s law
81. Of the following, which is the fastest?
82. An alternate name for the completely interconnected network topology is
83. Amides can be converted to amines by the reaction named
84. The base used as an antacid is
(a) Calcium hydroxide
(b) Barium hydroxide
(c) Magnesium hydroxide
(d) Silver hydroxide
85. A process which is not helpful in the prevention of rusting of iron is
(b) applying grease
86. Denatured alcohol
(a) is a form of alcohol
(b) is unfit for drinking as it contains poisonous substances
(c) contains coloured impurities
(d) is sweet’ to taste
87. Phenolics as pollutants can be removed from waste water by use of
(a) Ion exchange resin technique
(b) Electrolyte decomposition technique
(c) Reverse osmosis method
(d) Polymeric adsorbents
88. The stability of a pond ecosystem depends on
(a) micro-organisms and fishes
(b) micro-organisms and zoo planktons
(c) fishes and reptiles
(d) producers and consumers
89. Supersonic air planes create a shock wave called
(a) Transition wave
(c) Transverse wave
(d) Sonic boom
90. The main factor which determines balance of nature is
(a) human activities
(b) Rabit and habitat
(c) environmental conditions
(d) availability of food
91. The danger signals are red while the eye is more sensitive to yellow because
(a) absorption in red is less than yellow and hence red is visi ble from a distance
(b) scattering in yellow light is less than red
(c) the wavelength of red light is more than yellow light
(d) none of the above reasons
92. One of the following Chief Ministers received the Highest Civilian Award “Bharat Ratna”
(a) Lalu Prasad Yadav of Bihar
(b) Late M. G. Ramachandran of Tamil Nadu
(c) Jyothi Basu of West Bengal
(d) Late N. T. Rama Rao of Andhra Pradesh
93. The first ‘disabled athelete’ to qualify for an able bodied event in the 2012 London Olympics in 400 metres race is
(a) Oscar Pistorius
(b) Walter Rallis
(c) Raymond Irchovich
(d) Gerald Hangovin
94. Which one of the following film actors has been conferred the Honorary Doctorate in Arts and Culture by the Bedford University, London?
(a) Shahrukh Khan
(b) Amir Khan
(c) Saif Ali Khan
(d) Anil Kapoor
95. The city of Prayag was named Allahabad -the city of Allah by
(d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
96. Spot the odd one from the following:
97. Who among the following has won the Pantaloon’s Femina Miss India World, 2012 Award?
(a) Prachi Misra
(b) Vanya Misra
(c) RocheIla Maria
(d) Sandhya Agarwal
98. Which one of the following statements is not correct about India’s population as per the 2011 census?
(a) Literacy rate has gone up to 74% from 65%
(b) Kerala has the highest literacy rate
(c) Bihar has the lowest literacy rate
(d) Men outnumber women in growth of literates
99. Who advocated the adoption of ‘PURA’ model to eradicate rural poverty?
(a) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(b) Sri Abhijit Sen
(c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(d) Prof. A. M. Patha
100. Which one of the following though called a garden is infact, not a garden?
(a) Vrindavan Garden of My sore
(b) Hanging Garden of Mumbai
(c) Eden Garden of Kolkata
(d) Shalimar Garden of Kashmir
101. The next term of the series 1, 5, 12, 24, 43 is
102. The least multiple of 13 which when divided by 4, 5, 6, 7 leaves remainder 3 in each case is
103. The simplest value of 1/(√2+√3)+1/(√3+√4)+1/(√4+√5)+1/(√5+√6) is
(a) √3(√2 -1)
(b) √2(√3 -1)
(c) √3 -1
(d) √2 -1
104. A and B are partners in a business. A contributes 1/4 of the capital for 15 months and B received 2/3 of the profit. Find for how long B’s money was used?
(a) 6 months
(b) 8 months
(c) 10 months
(d) 12 months
105. If 21 is added to a number, it becomes 7 less than thrice of the number. Then the number is
106. Two men A and B started a job in which A was thrice as good as B and therefore took 60 days less than B to finish the job. How many days will they take to finish the job, if they take to finish the job, if they start working together?
(a) 15 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 22 1/2 days
(d) 25 days
107. A rectangle garden is 100 m x 80 m. There is a path along the garden and just outside it. Width of the path is 10m. The area of the path is
(a) 1900 sq m
(b) 2400 sq m
(c) 3660 sq m
(d) 4000 sq m
108. A dealer offered a machines for sale for Rs. 27,500 but even if he had charge 10% less, the would have made a profit of 10%. The actual cost of the machine is
(a) Rs. 22000
(b) Rs. 24500
(c) Rs. 22500
(d) Rs. 22275
109. An employer reduces the number of employees in the ratio 8 : 5 and increases their wages in the ratio 7 : 9. As a result, the overall wages bill is
(a) Increased in the ration 56 : 69
(b) Decreased in the ratio 56 : 45
(c) Increased in the ratio 13 : 17
(d) Decreased in the ratio 17 : 13
110. The average age of a jury of 5 is 40. If a member aged 35 resigns and man aged 35 resigns and a man aged becomes a member, then the average age of the new jury is
111. With average speed of 40 km/ hour, a train reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an average speed of 35 km hour, it is late by 15 minutes. The total journey is
(a) 30 km
(b) 40 km
(c) 70 km
(d) 80 km
112. A man makes a profit of 20% on the sale by selling 20 articles for Rs. 1. The number of articles he bought by Rs. 1 is
113. The number of seats in an auditorium is increased by 25%. The price of a ticket is also increased by 12%. Then the increase in revenue collection will be
114. A ship is moving at a speed of 30 km/hr. To know the depth of the ocean beneath it, it sends a radio wave which travels at a speed 200 m/s. The ship receives the signal after it has moved 500 m. The depth of the ocean is
(a) √143/2 km
(b) 12 km
(c) √6 km
(d) 8 km
115. A person takes a loan of Rs. 10,0000 partly from a bank at 8% p.a. and remaining from another bank at 10% p.a. He pays a total interest of Rs. 950 per annum. Amount of loan taken from the first bank (in Rs.) is
116. If a+1/a^2 = 98(a > 0), then the value of a^3+1/a^3 will be
117. If x = 1 + √2 + √3, then the value of (2×4 – 8×3 – 5×2 + 26x – 28) is
118. If the distance between two point (0, -5) and (x, 0) is 13 unit, then x
(b) ± 10
(d) ± 12
119. If 4x = 18y, then the value of (x/y-1) is
120. If x+1/x=5= 5, then the value of is
121. If x = 2 + √3, y = 2 – √3, then the value of is
122. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 2 (a – b – c) – 3 then the value of 2a – 3b + 4c is
123. If 2 x – 1/2x = 6, then the value of x2 + 1/16×2 is
124. If 5a + 1/3a = 5, the value of 〖9a〗^2+1/〖25a〗^2 is
125. The area of the triangle formed by the line 5x + 7y = 35, 4x + 3y = 12 and x-axis is
(a) 160/13 sq. unit
(b) 150/13 sq. unit
(c) 140/13 sq. unit
(d) 10 sq. unit
126. If an obtuse-angled triangle ABC, /_A is the obtuse angle and O is the orthocenter. If /_BOC = 54°, then /_BAC is
127. If the ratio of areas of two similar triangles is 9 : 16, then the ratio of their corresponding sides is
(a) 3 : 5
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 4 : 3
128. Let BE and CF be the two medians of a ΔABC and G be their intersection. Also let EF cut AG at O. Then AO : OG is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 3 : 1
129. If S is the circumcentre of DABC and /_A = 50°, then the value of /_BCS is
130. AC and BC are two equal cords of a circle. BA is produced to any point P and CP, when joined cuts the circle at T. Then
(a) CT : TP = AB : CA
(b) CT : TP = CA : AB
(c) CT : CB = CA : CP
(d) CT : CB =CP : CA
131. PQ is a direct common tangent of two circle of radii r1 and r2 touching each other externally at A. Then the value of PQ2 is
(b) 2 r1r2
(c) 3 r1r2
(d) 4 r1r2
BC is the chord of a circle with centre O. A is a point on major are BC as shown in the above figure. What is the value of /_BA C + /_OBC ?
133. Two circles with radii 5cm and 8 cm touch each other externally at a point A. If a straight line through the point A cuts the circles at points P and Q respectively, the AP : AQ is
(a) 8 : 5
(b) 5 : 8
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 4 : 5
134. If I is the In-centre of ΔABC and /_A = 60°, then the value of /_BIC is
135. The external bisectors of /_B and /_C of DABC meet at point P. If /_BAC = 80°, the /_BPC is
136. When a pendulum of length 50 cm oscillates, it produces an arc of 15 cm. The angle so formed in degree measure so formed in degree measure is (approx)
137. If x, y are positive acute angles, x + y < 90° and sin (2x – 20°) = cos (2y + 20°), then the value of sec (x + y) is
138. If 5 tan0 = 4, then the value of ((5sinθ-3cosθ)/(5sinθ+3cosθ)) is
139. The least value of (4sec2 Ѳ + 9cosec2 Ѳ ) is
140. If tan (x + y) tan (x – y) = 1, then the value of tan(2x/3) is
141. If x = cosec Ѳ – sin Ѳ and y = sec Ѳ – cos Ѳ , then the value of x2y2 (x2 + y2 + 3) is
142. If 0 ≤ Ѳ ≤ π/2, 2y cos Ѳ = sin Ѳ and 2x sec Ѳ – y cosec Ѳ = 3, then the value of x2 + 4y2 is
143. When the angle of elevation of the sun increases from 30° to 60°, the shadow of a post is diminished by 5 metres. Then the height of the post is
(a) 5 √3/2 m
(b) 2√3/2 m
(c) 2/5√3 m
(d) 4/5√3 m
144. A rail road curve is to be laid out on a circle. What radius should be used if the track is to change direction by 25° in a distance of 40 metres?
(a) 91.64 metres
(b) 90.46 metres
(c) 89.64 metres
(d) 93.64 metres
145. If sin Ѳ + sin2 Ѳ = 1, then the value of cos12 Ѳ + 3cos10 Ѳ + cos6 Ѳ – 1 is
Directions (146-150): Population of the five adjacent areas of a town, in the year of2020, are represented in the following Pie-chart. The ratio of the numbers of males to that of females in these areas are states in the table below. The total of the population in all the five areas is 72 lakh. Study the Pie-chart and the table and then answer the questions.
146. 12 lakh in the population of the area
147. The number of males in the areas S1 and S4 together is
(a) 13.8 lakh
(b) 8.2 lakh
(c) 16.2 lakh
(d) 15.8 lakh
148. The ratio of number of females in the areas S2 in the areas S5 is
(a) 7 : 9
(b) 36 : 13
(c) 9 : 7
(d) 13 : 36
149. If, in the year 2010, there was an increase of 5% population in the areas S1 and 8% increase in population of the area S3 compared to the previous year, then the ratio of population in the areas S1 and S2, in the year 2009 was
(a) 3 : 10
(b) 27 : 10
(c) 27 : 70
(d) 10 : 3
150. The average of female population in all the five areas is lower than the female population in each of the areas
(a) S1 and S2
(b) S2 and S5
(c) S4 and S4
(d) S4 and S5
Directions (151-155): In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none, Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error then your answer is (d) i.e. No error.
151. Air pollution, together with littering. (a)/ are causing many problems (b)/ Vin our cities. (c)/ No error (d)
152. The accused refused (a)/ to answer to the policeman (b)/ on duty.(c)/No error (d).
153. What is (a)/ the use of me (b)/ attending the session? (c)/ No error (d)
154. We met our prospective employer (a) // for a briefing session (b) / in the Taj Hotel. (c) / No error (d).
155. Because of the severe snow storm and the road blocks, (a)/ the air force dropped food and (b)/ medical supplies close to the city. (c) No error (d)
Directions (156-160): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.
156. ______ pollution control measures are expensive, many industries hesitate to adopt them.
157. It is not ______ for a man to be confined to the pursuit of wealth.
158. _______ his being innocent of the crime, the judge sentenced him to one year imprisonment.
(a) Inspite of
(b) In case of
(c) On account of
(d) In the event of
159. It is a story of two _______ men and a batch of armoured cars.
160. Although there is _______ gun-fire, there is no stiff resistance to the revolutionary army,
Directions (161-165): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given ‘word as your answer.
Directions (166-170) : In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word as your answer.
Directions (171-175): In the following questions’, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase and bold italicised in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase as your answer. –
171. Once the case reached the court, the police washed their hands off it.
(a) waited for a response to
(b) claimed credit for
(c) disassociated themselves from
(d) seemed eager to continue
172. She wanted to go hitch-hiking but her mother put her foot down and now she’s ‘going by bus.
(a) took a firm stand
(b) expressed her displeasure
(c) scolded her badly
(d) got irritated
173. Adolescence is a period of halo cyan days.
(a) hard days
(b) of mental pressure
(c) happy days
(d) days of preparation
174. My sincere advice to my maid-servant fell on stony ground.
(a) was counter productive
(b) had a strong impact
(c) made one stubborn
(d) had little success
175. He has all his ducks in a row, he is complacent.
(a) has everything ready
(b) is well organized
(c) always scores a zero
(d) never gets confused
Directions (176-180): In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d).
176. You shall have attended if the court had instructed you to do so.
(a) would have had to attend
(b) would attend
(c) would have to
(d) No improvement
177. The relics of Greece over which such a great deal of evidence has been collected should be preserved.
(a) from which
(b) on which
(c) ascent which
(d) No improvement
178. When the beverage was ready, they drank possibly as much as they could.
(a) as much as they possibly could
(b) as much as possibly they could
(c) as much as they could possibly
(d) No improvement
179. A citizen is expected to give allegiance to his country of origin.
(d) No improvement
180. We were with daggers drawn despite attempts to understand each other;
(d) No improvement
Directions (181-185): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.
181. A round or cylindrical container used storing things such as food, chemicals or rolls of film
182. A place of permanent residence
183. That cannot be altered or withdrawn
184. Money paid to employees on retirement
185. A place where clothes are kept
Directions (186-190): In the following questions four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word as your answer.
Directions (191-200): In the following questions, you have two brief passages with 5 questions in each passage, Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
PASSAGE -I (Question Nos. 191 to 195)
Stuck with be development dilemma? Stay away from management courses. Seriously, one of the biggest complaints that organizations have about management courses is that they fail to impact the participants’ on-the-job behavior. Some management trainers stress the need for follow-up and reinforcement on the job. Some go so far as briefing the participants’ managers on what behavior they should be reinforcing back on the job. Others include a follow-up training day to review the progress of the participants. None of this is really going far enough.
The real problem is that course promoters view development as something which primarily, takes place in a classroom. A course is an event and events are, by definition limited in time. When you talk about follow-up after a course, it is seen as a nice idea, but not as an essential part of the participants’ development programme. Any rational, empowered individual should be able to take what has been learnt in a course and transfer it to the work place or so the argument goes. Another negative aspect of the course mindset is that, primarily, development is thought to be about skill- acquisition.
So, it is felt that the distinction between taking the course and behaving differently in the work place parallels the distinction between skill-acquisition and skill-application. But can such a sharp distinction be maintained? Skills are really acquired only in the context of applying them on the job, finding them effective and therefore, reinforcing them.
The problem with courses is that they are events, while development is an on-going process which, involves, within a complex environment, continual interaction, regular feedback and adjustment. As we tend to equate development with a one-off event, it is difficult to get seriously motivated about the follow-up. Anyone paying for a course tends to look at follow-up as an unnecessary and rather costly frill.
191. What is the passage about?
(a) personal management
(b) development dilemma
(c) management courses
(d) course promoters’ attitude
192. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Some management trainers stress the need for follow-up and reinforcement on the job
(b) Some suggest a follow-up training day to review the progress of the participants
(c) Some go to the extent of briefing the participants’ managers on what behaviour they should be reinforcing back on the job
(d) The real problem is that course promoters view development as ‘something which does not take place during a course
193. The writer’s attitude, as reflected in the passage, is
194. The course promoters’ attitude is
195. The words ‘mindset’ here means
(a) determined mind
(b) a (fixed) attitude of mind
(c) an open mind
PASSAGE II (Question Nos. 196 to 200)
One may look at life, events, society, history, in another way. A way which might, at a stretch, be described as the Gandhian way, though it may be from times before Mahatma Gandhi came on the scene. The Gandhian reaction to all the grim poverty, squalor and degradation of the human being would approximate to effort at self-change and self-improvement, to a regime of living regulated by discipline from within. To change society, the individual must first change himself. In this way of looking at life and society, words too begin to mean differently. Revolution, for instance, is a term frequently used, but not always in the sense it has been in the lexicon of the militant. So also with words like peace and struggle. Even society may mean differently, being some kind of organic entity for the militant, and more or less a sum of individuals for the Gandhian. There is yet another way, which might, for want of a better description, be called the mystic. The mystic’s perspective measures these concerns that transcend political ambition and the dynamism of the reformer, whether he be militant or Gandhian. The mystic measures the terror of not knowing the remorseless march of time; he seeks to know what was before birth, what comes after death. The continuous presence of death, of the consciousness of death, sets his priorities, and values: militants and Gandhians kings and prophets must leave all that they have built; all that they have un-built and depart when messengers of the buffalo-riding Yama come out of the shadows. Water will to water, dust to dust. Think of impermanence. Everything passes.
196. The Gandhian reaction to poverty is
(a) a total war on poverty
(d) a regulated distribution of wealth
197. According to Gandhianism, the individual who wants to change society
(a) should destroy the existing society
(b) must re-form society
(c) must change himself
(d) may change society without changing himself
198. Who, according to the passage, finds new meaning for words like revolutions, peace and struggle?
(a) A Gandhian who believes in nonviolent revolution
(b) A militant
(c) A mystic
(d) A Gandhian who disciplines himself from within
199. The expression ‘water will to water, dust to dust’ means
(a) water and dust can mix well
(b) man will become water after death
(c) man will one day die and become dust
(d) man will become dust and water after death
200. What does society mean to a Gandhian?
(a) a sum of individuals
(b) an organic entity
(c) a regime of living regulated by discipline from within
(d) a disciplined social community
SSC CGL Tier I : 27 Aug to 11 Sept 2016
SSC CGL Tier 2 : Nov 2016
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