SSC CGL 2013 Tier 1 – 19th May 2013 Evening

PART-A GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING

Directions (1-4): In each of the following questions, select the related number/word/letter from given alternatives.

1. 9: 7:: 80:?
(1) 48
(2) 50
(3) 78
(4) 82

2. Defer : Put off: : Deduce : ?
(1) Infer
(2) Protect
(3) Delate
(4) Oppose

3. Fish : Gills : : Human : ?
(1) Heart
(2) Lungs
(3) Nose
(4) Mouth

4. CARD : IGXJ : : POST : ?
(1) UTXY
(2) VUYZ
(3) UTYZ
(4) VUXY Directions

Directions (5-6): In each of the following questions, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

5. a _ _b abba _ abb a _ ba
(1) abab
(2) abba
(3) aabb
(4) aaab

6. AZB_ _, AZ_Y, A_BY,_ZBY
(1) YBZA
(2) BYAZ
(3) BZYA
(4) AZBY

7. Find out the wrong number in the sequence
102, 101, 98, 93, 86, 74, 66, 53
(1) 101
(2) 66
(3) 74
(4) 93

Directions (8-11) : In each of the following questions, select the one which is different, from other three responses.

8.
(1) Soldier-Barrack
(2) Principal – School
(3) Artist – Troupe
(4) Singer – Chorous

9.
(1) Detach
(2) Affix
(3) Append
(4) Fasten

10.
(1) Man = 13114
(2) Ram = 18113
(3) Jug =10217
(4) Hub = 82110

11.
(1) 74,7
(2) 97,9
(3) 41,4
(4) 63,6

12. The set which resembles the given set 1,5, 12 is
(1) 7, 11, 35
(2) 4, 8, 24
(3) 10, 14, 44
(4) 9, 13, 42

Directions (13-16): In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

13. ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _?_, MLNA
(1) OLPA
(2) KLMA
(3) LLMA
(4) KLLA

14. 4, 18, 48,_?_180
(1) 80
(2) 100
(3) 105
(4) 125

15. FGHJKLNOPRS ?
(1) T
(2) M
(3) Q
(4) U

16. b- 0, y- 3, c- 8, x- 15, d- 24, ?
(1) e-48
(2) w-35
(3) w – 39
(4) v – 30

17. The average age of father and his son is 22 years. The ratio of their ages is 10 : 1 respectively. What is the age of the son ?
(1) 24
(2) 4
(3) 40
(4) 14

18. Veni is an year older than Smith. Smith is two years older than Salim. Raju is an year older than Salim. Who is the youngest of all ?
(1) Raju
(2) Salim
(3) Veni
(4) Smith

19. Rachel starts walking towards North. After walking 15 metres, she turns towards South and walks 20 metres. She then turns towards East and walks 10 metres. Then, again, she walks 5 metres towards North. How far is she from her starting point and in which direction ?
(1) 10 metres, West
(2) 5 metres. East
(3) 5 metres, North
(4) 10 metres, East

Directions (20-21): In each of the following questions, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

20. HETEROGENOUS
(1) REGENT
(2) GENERATE
(3) STORE
(4) ROUTE

21. UNEQUIVOCAL
(1) EQUAL
(2) VOCAL
(3) QUAINT
(4) NAÏVE

22. A group of alphabets are given with each being assigned a number. These have to be unscrambled into a meaningful word and correct order of letter may be indicated from the given responses.
YMLOSBCI
(1) 47685321
(2) 51264387
(3) 21645387
(4) 56241387

23. In a certain code, LONDON is coded as 24 – 30 – 28 – 8 – 30 – 28. How will FRANCE be coded?
(1) 10 – 24 – 6 – 28 – 6- 12
(2) 12-26-6-28-8- 10
(3) 12 – 36 – 2 – 28 – 6-10
(4) 12-26-2-28-8- 10

24. If each of the letters in the English alphabet is assigned odd numerical value beginning A = 1, B = 3 and so on, what will the total value of the letters for the word ‘HOTEL’?
(1) 95
(2) 115
(3) 125
(4) 105

25. In a certain code, MAARK is written as KRAAM. How PAS- SI can be written in that code?
(1) ISSAP
(2) ISSPA
(3) SSIPA
(4) ASSIP

26. If 29 x 48 = 576, 35 x 16 = 90, 22 x 46 = 96, then 42 x 17 = ?
(1) 56
(2) 286
(3) 48
(4) 64

27. If ‘P’ denotes ‘multiplied by’, T denotes ‘subtracted from’, ‘M’ denotes ‘added to’ and ‘B’ denotes ‘divided by’ then : what should be the correct response of
12 P 6 M 15 T 16 B 4 ?
(1) 70
(2) 75
(3) 83
(4) 110

28. If + = Greater than, ᵩ = Not greater than, – = Not less than, x = Equal to, | = Less than and L = Not equal to, then of A | B x C which of the following is true ?
(1) B + C | A
(2) C – B + A
(3) B | A | C
(4) A ᵩ B | C

29. Identify one response which would be a correct inference from the given premises stat¬ed according to the following symbols:
‘A’ stands for not greater than
‘B’ stands for equal to
‘C’ stands for less than
‘D’ stands for not less than
‘E’ stands for not equal to
‘F’ stands for greater than
Premises (2 M B N) and (2N A 3K)
(1) 2M D 3K
(2) 2MB3K
(3) 2M C 3K
(4) 2K B 3N

Directions (30-34): In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses:

30. 54 30 112 42 ?28
24 70 38
(1) 176
(2) 166
(3) 116
(4) 66

31. 216 209 202
522 515 508
633 626 ?
(1) 620
(2) 608
(3) 602
(4) 619

32. 15 12 44 28 64 53
3 8 ?
(1) 30
(2) 13
(3) 70
(4) 118

33. 95, 115, 145, 155, ?
(1) 215
(2) 175
(3) 185
(4) 165

34. 1,3,8, 19, 42, _2
(1) 65
(2) 71
(3) 89
(4) 93

35. Rohan walks a distance of 3 km towards North, then turns to his left and walks for 2 km. He again turns left and walks for 3 km. At this point he turns to his left and walks for 3 km. How many kilometres is he from the starting point ?
(1) 1 km
(2) 2 km
(3) 3 km
(4) 4 km

36. Rani and Sarlta started from a place X. Rani went West and Sarita went North, both travelling with the same speed. After sometimes, both turned their left and walked a few steps. If they again turned to their left, in which directions’ the faces of Rani and Sarita will be with respect to X ?
(1) North and East
(2) North and West
(3) West and North
(4) East and South

Directions (37-38) : In each of the following questions, one/two statements are given followed by three conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even it they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

37. Statement 1 : Water has no shape, has volume.
Statement 2 : The knowledge is, like water, flowed from one side to other.
Conclusion 1: The knowledge is interdisciplinary
Conclusion 2: The knowledge is bound within a specific area. Conclusion 3: The knowledge influences the core of mental activity directly.
(1) Only Conclusion 1 follows.
(2) Only Conclusion 2 follows.
(3) Both Conclusions 1 and 2 follow.
(4) Both conclusions 1 and 3 follow.

38. Statements : Some ladies are beautiful. Some beautifuls are honest. All honest are sensitives.
Conclusion 1: Some sensitives are beautifuls.
Conclusion 2 : Some honest are ladies.
Conclusion 3: Some sensitives are ladies.
(1) None of the Conclusion follows.
(2) Only Conclusion 1 follows.
(3) Only Conclusions 1 and 2 follow.
(4) All Conclusions follow.

39. From the given blocks when 10 is at the bottom, which number will be at the top ?

(1) 8
(2) 12
(3) 6
(4) 4

40. Which one of the answer figures shall complete the given question figure ?
Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

41. Which of the four cubes pictured below are correct view when the six squares are folded (in clockwise direction) into a cube?
Question Figure:

Answer Figure

42. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among pen, pencils, stationery?

43. Indicate which figure will best represent the relationship amongst the three :
Legumes Seeds, Peas, Kidney Beans

44. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among
Black eyed people. Brown haired people, Indian
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

45. Find out which of the answer figures will exactly make up the question figure?
Question Figure:

Answer Figures:

46. Find out which of the following answer figures will exactly make up the question figure ?
Question Figure :

Answer Figures

47. Which one of the answer figures is hidden in the following question figure ?
Question Figure:

Answer Figures:

48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
Question Figures:

Answer Figures:

49. From the answer figures, find out the figure which is the exact mirror image of the question figure, when the mirror is placed on the line MN.
Question Figure :

Answer Figures:

50. In the following question, a word is represented by a set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by alphabets as in the matrices given below. The columns and rows of matrix are numbered from 1 to 6. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column number, e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 42, ‘S’ can be represented by 21, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘PLAY’.

(1) 43, 36, 42, 23
(2) 43, 32, 33, 33
(3) 15, 12, 42, 45
(4) 43, 65, 62, 45

PART-B GENERAL AWARENESS

51. Investment multiplier shows the effect of Investment on
(1) Employment
(2) Savings
(3) Income
(4) Consumption

52. Identify the one which is not related to the Agricultural Price Policy.
(1) Buffer stock
(2) Imports
(3) Support price
(4) Licensing

53. If a good has negative income elasticity and positive price elasticity of demand, it is a
(1) giffen good
(2) normal good
(3) superior good
(4) an inferior good

54. The opportunity cost of a factor of production is
(1) what it is earning in its present use.
(2) what it can earn in the long period.
(3) what has to be paid to retain it in Its present use.
(4) what it can earn in some other use.

55. Which of the following does not form a part of the foreign exchange reserves of India ?
(1) Gold
(2) SDRs
(3) Foreign currency assets
(4) Foreign currency and securities held by the banks and corporate bodies

56. Which one of the following is issued by the court in case of an illegal detention of a person?
(1) Habeas Corpus
(2) Mandamus
(3) Certiorari
(4) Quo Warranto

57. Which among the following is not true about Pressure Groups?
(1) Pressure Groups aim at capturing government.
(2) Pressure Groups aim at influencing the policies of the government.
(3) Pressure Groups articulates the interest of its group
(4) Pressure Group is characterized by homogeneity of interests.

58. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the decision of the Central Administrative Tribunal can be challenged in the Supreme Court ?
(1) 323 A
(2) 329
(3) 343 C
(4) 343 K

59. Which is the example for Plural Executive ?
(1) U.S.A.
(2) U.K.
(3) India
(4) Switzerland

60. The Concept of “Directive Principles of State Policy” incorporated in the Constitution of India was borrowed from the Constitution of
(1) Australia
(2) U.S.A.
(3) Canada
(4) Ireland

61. The Peshwaship was abolished by the British at the time of Peshwa
(1) Raghunath Rao
(2) Narayan Rao
(3) Madhav Rao II
(4) Baji Rao II

62. King Kharvela was the greatest ruler of the Chedi Dynasty of
(1) Cholamandalam
(2) Kallnga
(3) Kannauj
(4) Purushpur

63. Who coined the name ’Pakistan’?
(1) Mohammad All Jinnah
(2) Fazlul Haq
(3) Liaquat All Khan
(4) Choudhxy Rehmat All

64. By which Charter Act, the East India Company’s monopoly of trade with China came to an end?
(1) Charter Act of 1793
(2) Charter Act of 1813
(3) Charter Act of 1833
(4) Charter Act of 1853

65. The idea of federation was first proposed in
(1) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(2) Morley-Minto Reforms
(3) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
(4) Nehru Report of 1928

66. In ‘annular’ pattern, rivers flow
(1) from West to East
(2) from North to South
(3) like a ring
(4) in transverse direction

67. Ports of the Baltic Sea remain open for trade even during winter because
(1) It lies in the tropical belt.
(2) North Atlantic Drift, a warm ocean current flows in the region.
(3) Local winds keep it warm.
(4) Western disturbances cause abrupt rise in the temperature.

68. The climatic zones are classified on the basis of
(1) distance from the equator
(2) elevation
(3) rainfall
(4) distance from the sea

69. Major South-West Asian oil fields are located in
(1) Shore regions of Persian Gulf
(2) Euphratis-Tigris Basin
(3) Arabian Desert
(4) Rub-al-Khali Desert

70. Which one of the following is not a Galilean Satellite of Jupiter?
(1) Europa
(2) Ganymede
(3) Callisto
(4) Deimos

71. Membrane lipids of chill-sensitive plants contain
(1) low proportion of saturated fatty acids.
(2) low proportion of unsaturated fatty acids.
(3) equal proportion of saturated and unsaturated fatty adds.
(4) high proportion of unsaturated fatty acids.

72. Respiration is regarded as a
(1) Synthetic Process
(2) Catabolic Process
(3) Anabolic Process
(4) Reduction Process

73. The structure which helps in the nutrition of the Embiyo is
(1) Yolksac
(2) Amniotic membrane
(3) Crypts
(4) Placenta

74. Which one of the following parts of the human brain is the regulating centre for swallowing and vomiting?
(1) Cerebellum
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Medulla Oblongata
(4) Pons

75. Which one of the following animals is devoid of lateral line sense organ?
(1) Labeo
(2) Catla
(3) Sea horse
(4) Magur

76. Conglobate gland is a leaf like structure found in
(1) Female Cockroach
(2) Male Cockroach
(3) Male Ascaris
(4) Female Ascaris

77. In the resistance colour code, the fourth band signifies
(1) tolerance level
(2) power of ten
(3) the total value of resistance
(4) the material of the resistor

78. In Astrophysics, what name is given to a hypothetical hole in outer space from which stars and energy emerge?
(1) Black hole
(2) Ozone hole
(3) Asteroid belt
(4) White hole

79. Neutrons are slowed down in a nuclear reactor by
(1) Fissionable material
(2) Moderator
(3) Control rods
(4) Cooling system

80. The science of Dactylography is commonly known as
(1) Carbon dating
(2) Water printing
(3) Finger printing
(4) Electro cardiogram

81. Sun Lab’s Java Car uses…………. technology to keep your car networked with the world outside.
(1) embedded
(2) spam
(3) smart Screen
(4) access Point

82. Identify the UFO (Last In First Out) structure among the following
(1) Stack
(2) Queue
(3) De-queue
(4) Array

83. An element of atomic no. 29 belongs to
(1) s-block
(2) d-block
(3) p-block
(4) f-block

84. Light scattering takes place in
(1) Colloidal solutions
(2) Acidic solutions
(3) Electrolyte solutions
(4) Basic solutions

85. Which among the following is used as a catalyst in the production of high octane fuels?
(1) HN03
(2) H2S04
(3) HCl
(4) HF

86. The curcumin is isolated from
(1) Garlic
(2) Turmeric
(3) Sunflower
(4) Rose flower

87. The increased incidence of floods in recent times in North India is due to
(1) Increase In the annual rainfall.
(2) increase In the silting of dams.
(3) increased deforestation in the catchment area.
(4) None of these

88. The term reactor referred to in waste water treatment is
(1) Vessel
(2) Settling tank
(3) Clarifier
(4) Aeration tank

89. The effect or response produced by two or more chemicals are less than the sum of the effects or response that the chemical would produce individually is known as
(1) Antagonism
(2) Independent
(3) Additive
(4) Synergism

90. Threshold limit value of copper in the atmospheric air is
(1) mg/m3
(2) 0.01 mg/m3
(3) 1.0 mg/m3
(4) 5.0 mg/m3

91. Which team won the Champions League-Twenty (CLT-20) Trophy in 2012?
(1) Sydney Sixers
(2) Highveld Lions
(3) Nashua Titans
(4) Delhi Dare Devils

92. Who was the Captain of the Indian Hockey Team, which won the first Olympic Gold Medal in Amsterdam in 1928 ?
(1) Dhyanchand
(2) Jaipal Singh
(3) Laebokhan
(4) Kishan Lai

93. Who was the first Indian woman winner bf ‘Miss Universe’ award?
(1) Reeta Faria
(2) Aishwarya Rai
(3) Lara Datta
(4) Sushmita Sen

94. Who was the first recipient of the Jnanpith Award ?
(1) Dr. K.V. Puttappa
(2) G. Sankara Kurup
(3) Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai
(4) M.T. Vasudevan Nair

95. Among the following works of Salman Rushdie, which one was his first creation?
(1) Shame
(2) Midnight’s Children
(3) The Satanic Verses
(4) The Moor’s Last Laugh

96. Which is the only country whose postage stamps do not bear its name?
(1) U.S. A.
(2) U.K.
(3) Japan
(4) Pakistan

97. Which one of the following organisations is not having its headquarters in Geneva?
(1) World Trade Organisation
(2) World Health Organisation
(3) International Labour Organisation
(4) International Civil Aviation Organisation

98. Who is the Chairperson of the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights?
(1) Leela Samson
(2) Shantha Sinha
(3) Mamta Sharma
(4) Usha Mehra

99. In which calendar month of every year, each one of the first four dates (i.e. from 1st to 4th) is observed as a World/International Day for a specific purpose?
(1) June
(2) July
(3) September
(4) October

100. Which one of the following is wrongly paired ?
Folk Dance State
(1) Kerala Karagam
(2) Gujarat Garba
(3) Uttar Pradesh Nautanki
(4) West Bengal Jatna

PART-C QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

101. The fourth root of 24010000 is
(1) 7
(2) 49
(3) 490
(4) 70

102. The greatest 4 digit number which is a perfect square, is
(1) 9999
(2) 9909
(3) 9801
(4) 9081

103. A piece of work can be done by Ram and Shyam in 12 days, by Shyam and Hari in 15 days and by Hari and Ram in 20 days. Ram alone will complete the work in
(1) 30 days
(2) 32 days
(3) 36 days
(4) 42 days

104. 3 men or 5 women can do a work in 12 days. How long will 6 men and 5 women take to finish the work?
(1) 4 days
(2) 5 days
(3) 6 days
(4) 7 days

105. A and B can do a job in 12 days, B and C in 15 days and C and A in 20 days. How long would A take to do that work ?
(1) 20 days
(2) 60 days
(3) 30 days
(4) 40 days

106. The difference of perimeter and diameter of a circle is X unit. The diameter of the circle is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

107. The perimeter of the base of a right circular cylinder is ‘a’ unit. If the volume of the cylinder is V cubic unit, then the height of the cylinder is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

108. A sphere of diameter 6 cm is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. The diameter of the cylindrical vessel is 12 cm. If the sphere is just completely submerged in water, then the rise of water level in the cylindrical vessel is
(1) 2 cm
(2) 1 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 4 cm

109. A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% above his cost price and gives 15% discount on the marked price. His gain percent is
(1) 5%
(2) 4%
(3) 2%
(4) 1%

110. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on printed price. The ratio of the cost price to printed price of the book is
(1) 45:56
(2) 50:61
(3) 90 : 97
(4) 99 : 125

111. The list price of an article is ₹160 and a customer buys it for ₹122.40 after two successive discounts. If the first discount is 10%, then second discount is
(1) 12%
(2) 10%
(3) 14%
(4) 15%

112. In a school, 10% of number of girls is equal to 1/20 th of number of boys. Ratio between the number of boys to number of girls is
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1:4
(4) 4:1

113. The ratio of 252.5 : 53 is same as
(1) 5 : 3
(2) 5 : 6
(3) 1 : 25
(4) 25 : 1

114. If a, b, c, d, e are five consecutive odd numbers, their average is
(1) 5(a+4)
(2) abcde/5
(3) 5(a + b+ c+ d+ e)
(4) a + 4

115. The average of 20 numbers is 15 and the average of first five is 12. The average of the rest is
(1) 16
(2) 15
(3) 14
(4) 13

116. A tradesman sold an article at a loss of 20%. If the selling price had been increased by ₹100, there would have been a gain of 5%. The cost price of the article (in ₹) was
(1) 100
(2) 200
(3) 400
(4) 500

117. The price of an article is first decreased by 20% and then increased by 30%. If the resulting price is ?416, the original price of the article is
(1) ₹350
(2) ₹405
(3) ₹400
(4) ₹450

118. A man performs 2/15 of the total journey by train, 2/20 by bus and the remaining 10 km on foot. His total journey in km is
(1) 15.6
(2) 24
(3) 16.4
(4) 12.8

119. By walking at 3/4 of his usual speed, a man reaches his office 20 minutes later than usual. His usual time is
(1) 30min.
(2) 75min.
(3) 90 min
(4) 60 min.

120. If the compound interest on a certain sum for two years at 12% per annum is ₹2,544, the simple interest on it at the same rate for 2 years will be
(1) ₹2,400
(2) ₹2,500
(3) ₹2,480
(4) ₹2,440

121. The total cost of 8 buckets and 5 mugs is 7 92 and the total cost of 5 buckets and 8 mugs is ₹77. Find the cost of 2 mugs and 3 buckets.
(1) ₹35
(2) ₹70
(3) ₹30
(4) ₹38

122. If a/(1-a)+b/(1-b)+c/(1-c)=1, then the value of 1/(1-a)+1/(1-b)+1/(1-c)
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 0

123. If (x – 3)2 + (y – 5)2 + (z – 4)2 = 0, then the value of x^2/9+y^2/25+z^2/16 is
(a) 12
(b) 9
(c) 3
(d) 1

124. If 4x/3 + 2P = 12 for what value of P, x = 6 ?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1

125. The value of (4+3√3)/(7+4√3) is
(a) 5√3 – 8
(b) 5√3 +8
(c) 8√3 +5
(d) 8√3 -5

126. If x (3-2/3) =3/x then the value of x2 + 1/x2 is x
(1) 2 1/9
(2) 2 4/9
(3) 3 1/9
(4) 3 4/9

127. What number must be added to the expression 16a2 -12a to make it a perfect square?
(1) 9/4
(2) 11/2
(3) 13/2
(4) 16

128. The straight line 2x+ 3y= 12 passes through:
(1) 1st, 2nd and 3rd quadrant
(2) 1st, 2nd and 4th quadrant
(3) 2nd, 3rd and 4th quadrant
(4) 1st, 3rd and 4th quadrant

129. The sum of three altitudes of a triangle is
(1) equal to the sum of three
(2) less than the sum of sides
(3) greater than the sum of sides
(4) twice the sum of sides

130. In A ABC, /_A + /_B = 65°, /_B + /_C = 140°, then find /_B.
(1) 40°
(2) 25°
(3) 35°
(4) 20°

131. The length of the tangent drawn to a circle of radius 4 cm from a point 5 cm away from the centre of the circle is
(1) 3 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 5√2 cm
(4) 3√2 cm

132. A cyclic quadrilateral ABCD is such that AB = BC, AD = DC, AC Ʇ BD, /_CAD= Ѳ. Then the angle /_ABC =
(1) Ѳ
(2) Ѳ/2
(3) 2 Ѳ
(4) 3 Ѳ

133. The height of an equilateral triangle is 15 cm. The area of the triangle is
(1) 50√3 sq. cm.
(2) 70√3 sq. cm.
(3) 75√3 sq. cm.
(4) 150√3 sq. cm.

134. Two parallel chords of a circle, of diameter 20 cm lying on the opposite sides of the centre are of lengths 12 cm and 16 cm. The distance between the chords is
(1) 16cm
(2) 24 cm
(3) 14 cm
(4) 20 cm

135. In AABC, DG || AC. D and E are two points on AB and CB respectively. If AB = 10 cm and AD = 4 cm, then BE : CE is
(1) 2:3
(2) 2:5
(3) 5:2
(4) 3:2

136. A, B and C are the three points on a circle such that the angles subtended by the chords AB and AC at the centre O are 90° and 110° respectively. /_BAC is equal to
(1) 70°
(2) 80°
(3) 90°
(4) 100°

137. If the angles of elevation of a balloon from two consecutive kilometer-stones along a road are 30° and 60° respectively, then the height of the balloon above the ground will be
(1) √3/2 km
(2) ½ km
(3) 2/√3 km
(4) 3√3 km

138. Evaluate : 3 cos 80° cosec 10° + 2 cos 59° cosec 31°
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

139. (3π/5) radians is equal to
(1) 100°
(2) 120°
(3) 108°
(4) 180°

140. If tan Ѳ + cot Ѳ = 2, then the value of tan2 Ѳ + cot2 Ѳ is
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) √2
(4) 0

141. The eliminant of Ѳ from x cos Ѳ – y sin Ѳ = 2 and x sin Ѳ + y cos Ѳ = 4 will give
(1) x2 + y2 = 20
(2) 3×2 + y2 = 20
(3) x2 – y2=20
(4) 3×2 – y2 = 10

142. sin2 Ѳ -3 sin Ѳ + 2 = 0 will be true if
(1) 0 ≤Ѳ <90
(2) 0 < Ѳ < 90
(3) Ѳ = 0°
Ѳ -90°

143. The value of

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4

Directions (144 – 148): The sub divided bar diagram given below depicts H.S. Students of a school for three years. Study the diagram and answer the questions.

144. The percentage passed in 1st division in 2008 was
(1) 27%
(2) 32%
(3) 15 3/8 %
(4) 11 13/17 %

145. The pass percentage in 2008 was
(1) 67%
(2) 73%
(3) 79 2/3%
(4) 82 6/17%

146. In which year the school had the best result for H.S. in respect of percentage of pass candidates?
(1) 2008
(2) 2009
(3) 2010
(4) The percentage of pass candidates are same for the three years.

147. The number of students passed in third division in the year 2008 was
(1) 50
(2) 60
(3) 70
(4) 80

148. The percentage of the students passed in 2nd division in the year 2010 was
(1) 30%
(2) 40%
(3) 50%
(4) 60%

Directions (148 – 150) : Following figure is Pie-chart representing item wise cost of manufacturing certain product. Study the chart and answer the questions.

149. Total manufacturing cost is ₹96,000. Then, cost of labour is
(1) ₹30,720
(2) ₹38,400
(3) ₹11,520
(4) ₹15,000

150. The difference of cost of material and direct expenses is
(1) ₹26,000
(2) ₹10,000
(3) ₹26,500
(4) ₹26,880

PART-D ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

Directions (151-155): In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is (4), i.e., No error.

151. The new dish (1)/ that I ordered (2) / is tasting good. (3)/ No error. (4)

152. Increasing racism and hate crimes (1)/ casted a shadow (2) / over elections. (3)/ No error. (4)

153. I have got your letter yesterday (1)/ and felt happy to learn (2)/ of your recovery. (3)/ No error. (4)

154. Sam is working (1)/ in a bank in Chennai (2)/for the past five years. (3)/ No error. (4)

155. People living in low-lying areas (1)/ find it difficult (2)/ to cope up with the floods.(3)/ No error. (4)

Directions (156-160): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

156. His words were hardly…. with that screaming and shouting in the market.
(1) legible
(2) eligible
(3) intelligible
(4) None of these

157. He was…angry to speak to me.
(1) so
(2) too
(3) that
(4) such

158. I wish I ……. a pen.
(1) were
(2) am
(3) was
(4) be

159. Look after your health ………. you should repent later on.
(1) as
(2) because
(3) till
(4) lest

160. Every year millions of tourists ……….. the Anna Centenary library in Chennai.
(1) visiting
(2) visit
(3) are visiting
(4) visited

Directions (161-163) : In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

161. repeated
(1) disputed
(2) elaborated
(3) explained
(4) reiterated

162. revere
(1) condemn
(2) reverse
(3) humiliate
(4) respect

163. erudite
(1) scholarly
(2) unlettered
(3) stingy
(4) sloppy

Directions (164-166): In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

164. grating
(1) musical
(2) unmusical
(3) hoarse
(4) strident

165. capricious
(1) fanciful
(2) reasonable
(3) Intolerant
(4) indifferent

166. lassitude
(1) pleasure
(2) lustrous
(3) lethargy
(4) enthusiasm

Directions (167-171): In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase.

167. The Issues were settled in court, but after a few days it was back to square one.
(1) to return to the starting point
(2) to run to the first square
(3) to start and return
(4) to come to a stop

168. Politicians enjoy blowing their own trumpets.
(1) to boast about their achievements
(2) to use one’s own trumpet
(3) to blow their trumpet loudly
(4) to praise others trumpeting

169. Students must learn to keep their belongings in apple pie order.
(1) orderly preparation of apple pie
(2) in perfect order
(3) ordering for apple pie
(4) arranging apples neatly

170. Scientific knowledge is no longer a closed book in this 21st century.
(1) an unopened book
(2) a covered book
(3) a mystery
(4) a mysterious book

171. It takes a month of Sundays to chop all that wood.
(1) a short period
(2) no time
(3) a long time
(4) a special Sunday

Directions (172-181): In the following questions, a sentence / part of the sentence printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold sentence / part of the sentence at (1), (2) and (3) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (4).

172. He reached the village just when the sun was setting.
(1) When just the sun was setting, he reached the village.
(2) When the sun was setting he just reached the village.
(3) He just reached the village when the sun was setting.
(4) No improvement.

173. He evaded to pay income tax.
(1) from paying
(2) against paying
(3) paying
(4) No improvement

174. The gypsies had left the village a few days ago.
(1) have left
(2) would have left
(3) left
(4) No improvement

175. When we bought the house, we could tell that it was a large, new, compact, tinted house.
(1) it was a new, large and compact house
(2) It was as new, large and as tinted
(3) it was a new, large, compact and bright house
(4) No improvement

176. Migrant workers can be seen working on many of the building places in New Delhi.
(1) sites
(2) premises
(3) locations
(4) No Improvement

177. “Indian English” has come of age and has been accepted as a legitimate category the world over.
(1) literate
(2) local
(3) illegal
(4) No improvement

178. If they were knowing about the crabs, they would not have decided to picnic there.
(1) had known
(2) knew
(3) did know
(4) no improvement

179. A shrewd man could only see through the trick.
(1) Only a shrewd man could see the trick through.
(2) Only a shrewd man could see through the trick.
(3) Through the trick a shrewd man could only see.
(4) No improvement.

180. As soon as I reached my house, I opened my cupboard.
(1) I reached my house as soon as I opened my cupboard.
(2) As soon as I opened my cupboard. I reached my house.
(3) No sooner had I reached my house that I opened my cupboard.
(4) No improvement.

181. Tour success for hard work depends on your ability.
(1) Your success depends on your ability for hard working.
(2) Your success depends on your ability of hani work.
(3) Your success depends on your ability for hard work.
(4) No improvement.

Directions (182-188): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

182. Science of human mind and behavior
(1) Physiology
(2) Psychology
(3) Sociology
(4) Philology

183. A set of three related works by the same author
(1) Topology
(2) Trilogy
(3) Trichology
(4) Ecology

184. The study or practice of dancing or composing ballets
(1) Calligraphy
(2) Cartography
(3) Choreography
(4) Epigraphy

185. Having juicy or fleshy and thick tissues
(1) Succulent
(2) Translucent
(3) Dissolvent
(4) Dissident

186. One who accepts pleasure and pain equally
(1) Thespian
(2) Sadist
(3) Stoic
(4) Humanitarian

187. One who thinks or speaks too much of himself
(1) Imposter
(2) Enthusiast
(3) Egotist
(4) Optimist

188. An exact- copy of handwriting or a picture produced by a machine
(1) Original
(2) Facsimile
(3) Copy
(4) None of these

Directions (189-190): In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

189.
(1) campagnes
(2) campaignes
(3) campaines
(4) campaigns

190.
(1) rhythim
(2) rhithm
(3) rhythm
(4) rhithym

Directions (191-200): In the following questions, you have two passages with 5 questions in each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Passage -1 (Q. Nos. 191-195)
The Great Pyramid at Giza is one of the world’s most amazing landmarks. Rising high above the Sahara Desert in the Giza region of northern Egypt, the Great Pyramid stands some 450 feet into the burning desert sky and occupies of an area of 13 acres. The rough climate of the Sahara has actually caused the pyramid to shrink 30 feet from its original height. The pyramid was such an amazing feat of engineering that it remained the tallest structure in the world for over 3,800 years. The entire pyramid was originally faced with polished limestone to make it shine brilliantly in the sun.
Most Egyptologists, scientists who study ancient Egypt, agree that the Great Pyramid was built around 2560 BC, a little more than 4,500 years ago. It took tens of thousands of workers twenty years to build. The pyramid contains over two million stone blocks. Although most of the blocks weigh two or three tons, some weigh up to 80 tons 1 The Great Pyramid of Giza was ordered built by the Pharaoh Khufu as a magnificent tomb. His vizier (advisor) Hemon is credited with being the pyramid’s architect. Khufu’s pyramid is actually part of a complex of pyramids that includes the Pyramid of Khafre, the smaller Pyramid of Menkaure, a variety of smaller pyramids and structures, and the Great Sphinx. The Great Pyramid of Giza is the last remaining of the Seven Wonders of the World.

191. Which of these does not house the Great Pyramid ?
(1) Giza
(2) Southern Egypt
(3) Northern Egypt
(4) Sahara Desert

192. How many stone blocks constitute the pyramid?
(1) 4,500
(2) more than two million
(3) 3,800
(4) 2,560

193. Most of the blocks in the pyramid weigh about ……… tons.
(1) five
(2) eighty
(3) two or three
(4) 4,500

194. Which of the following definitions best describes the meaning of “complex” in the passage?
(1) Pyramid
(2) Materials
(3) Group
(4) Army

195. Which of the following is false?
(1) The Great Pyramid is the last of the Seven Wonders of the World.
(2) Khufu was Hemon’s vizier and architect.
(3) The Pyramid took tens of thousands of workers about twenty years to complete it.
(4) Hemon was Khufu’s vizier and architect.

Passage – II (g. Nos. 196-200)
One of the American Navy’s greatest losses during World War If was inflicted not by the Japanese, but by the weather. On the evening of 17 December 1944, destroyers, cruisers and aircraft carriers of the Third Fleet Task Force 38 were replenishing stocks of food, fuel and ammunition during a sea rendezvous with support ships when a savage tornado struck the Philippine Sea. One of the commanders said later; ‘My ship was riding as though caught in some giant washing machine. We were rolling between heaving cliffs of water, caught in so strong a vice of wind and sea that our 50,000 horse-power engines were helpless.’ It was nine hours before he regained control of his ship, after the fleet had bobbed like helpless shuttlecocks, unable to prevent collisions in the sledge hammer waves.

196. The American Navy suffered great losses because of
(1) the aircraft raid
(2) the Japanese fleet
(3) the weather
(4) the landmines

197. Find a word from the passage which means “refilling”.
(1) heaving
(2) inflicting
(3) retaliating
(4) replenishing

198. A sea rendezvous means
(1) a dive into the sea
(2) a swim in the sea
(3) a meeting at sea
(4) sailing in the sea

199. Sledge hammer waves means
(1) waves moving like a sledge.
(2) waves like a big, heavy hammer.
(3) waves hammering a sledge.
(4) waves in which a hammer and a sledge are found.

200. The ships caught in the tornado
(1) are compared to shuttlecocks
(2) had a cargo of shuttlecocks
(3) scattered shuttlecocks in the sea
(4) traded in shuttlecocks