SSC CGL 2014 Tier 1 – 24 October Morning

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-6): In the following questions, select the related word/ letters/number from the given alternatives.

1. Optimist : Cheerful : : Pessimist : ?
(a) Petty
(b) Selfish
(c) Gloomy
(d) Mean

2. YTOJ : XSNI : : WRMH : ?
(a) VQLG
(b) TOJE
(c) RMHC
(d) UPKF

3. EIGK : EACY : : RVTY : ?
(a) RVSQ
(b) RNPL
(c) RWUY
(d) RMPL

4. 720 : 840 : : 60 : ?
(a) 76
(b) 80
(c) 70
(d) 74

5. 225 : 256 : : 289 : ?
(a) 234
(b) 361
(c) 324
(d) 432

6. Money : Misappropriation : : Writing : ?
(a) Deception
(b) Mistake
(c) Plagiarism
(d) Theft

Directions (Q. Nos. 7-11): Select the one which is different from other three alternatives.

(a) Rival
(b) Opponent
(c) Foe
(d) Ally

(a) 27
(b) 35
(c) 18
(d) 9

(a) 9-72
(b) 8-56
(c) 11-115
(d) 10-90

(a) TUVX
(b) OPRS
(c) BCDF
(d) HIJL

(a) Bay
(b) Cape
(c) Peninsula
(d) Island

12. Which one of the given response would be a meaningful order of the following?
1. Seed
2. Plant
3. Germination
4. Embryo
5. Flower
6. Fruit
(a) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 6
(b) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5, 6
(c) 6, 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 1, 5, 6, 4, 2, 3

13. Arrange the following words as per order in the English dictionary.
1. Live
2. Litter
3. Little
4. Literacy
5. Living
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
(b) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(c) 4, 3, 5, 2, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5

14. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
(a) iupgg
(b) upgii
(c) puigp
(d) giupi

15. In the following series, how many KGN occur in such a way that ‘G’ is in the middle and ‘K’ and ‘N’ are adjacent to it on both sides?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 1
(d) 2

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-18) In the Following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

16. 1, 0, 3, 2, 5, 6, ?, 12, 9, 20
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 8

17. SHG, RIF, QJE, PKD, ?
(a) NME
(b) NLB
(c) OLE
(d) OLC

18. 7, 8, 18, 57, ?, 1165
(a) 174
(b) 232
(c) 224
(d) 228

19. There are five friends – Sachin, Kamal, Mohan, Arun and Ram. Sachin is shorter than Kamal, but taller than Ram. Mohan is the tallest. Arun is a little shorter than Kamal and a little taller than Sachin. Who is the second tallest?
(a) Ram
(b) Sachin
(c) Kamal
(d) Arun

20. A is the brother of B, B is the daughter of C and D is the father of A. Then, how is C related to D?
(a) Husband
(b) Wife
(c) Granddaughter
(d) Grandfather

21. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.

22. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word

23. Mr. Mani’s age is 47 yr and John’s age is 13 yr. In how many years will Mr. Mani’s age be double of John’s age?
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 10
(d) 15

24. If in a certain code ‘INTELLIGENCE’ is written as ‘ETNIGILLECNE’, then how can ‘MATHEMATICAL’ be written in the same code?

25. If in a certain code ‘CHARACTER’ is written as ‘241612376’ and ‘CHILDREN’ is written as ‘24859670’, then how can ‘HIRALAL’ be written in the same code?
(a) 4861551
(b) 4861515
(c) 4685151
(d) 4685511

26. Given below are capital letters in the first line and symbols in the second line. Symbols and letters are codes for each other. Choose the correct code for the given letters.
(a) | – + ≠ | |
(b) | – x # | |
(c) | – + # | |
(d) | – + ≠ =

27. In an examination, 78% of the total students who appeared were successful. If the total number of failures was 176 and 34% got first class, then how many students got first class?
(a) 272
(b) 112
(c) 210
(d) 254

28. Some letters are given with numbers from 1 to 6. Select the sequence of numbers which arranges the letters into a meaningful word
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5
(b) 4, 3, 2, 6, 5, 1
(c) 6, 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
(d) 3, 4, 5, 2, 6, 1

29. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following equation
(8 * 7 * 6) * 5 * 10
(a) x – ÷ =
(b) – x ÷ +
(c) + – ÷ x
(d) x + = ÷

30. If ‘>’ stands for ‘division’, ‘v’ stands for ‘multiplication’, ‘-’ stands for ‘greater than’, ‘x’ stands for ‘less than’, ‘<’ stands for ‘addition’, ‘^’ stands for ‘subtraction’, ‘+’ stands for ‘equal to’, then which of the following equation is correct?
(a) 10 ^ 3 < 5 < 4 + 16
(b) 4 ^ 6 < 4 < 4 + 16
(c) 12 ^ 3 < 5 < 4 + 12
(d) 11 ^ 12 < 5 < 4 + 12

31. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.
5 * 3 = 125; 4 * 3 = 64; 8 * 2 = ?
(a) 28
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 64

Directions (Q. Nos. 32-34) In these questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 4
(d) 5

(a) 13
(b) 14
(c) 11
(d) 12

(a) 31
(b) 46
(c) 23
(d) 25

35. Some statements are given followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.
All files are papers.
Some papers are books.
Some books are journals.
I. All files are journals.
II. All books are not journals.
(a) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(b) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
(c) Only Conclusion I follows
(d) Only Conclusion II follows

36. Pratap starts from school and walks 7 km towards East. He takes a left and walks 4 km, then takes a right and walks 2 km, again takes a right and walks 3 km. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) South
(b) North
(c) East
(d) West

37. Vijay travelled 12 km Southward, then turned right and travelled 10 km, then turned right and travelled 12 km. How far was Vijay from the starting point?
(a) 22 km
(b) 44 km
(c) 12 km
(d) 10 km

38. Fertilizer consumption in India in 1984-85 was 8.21 MT. By 1990 it was 13.75 MT and by 2000 it was expected to reach 16 MT. What conclusion can you draw from this data?
(a) Fertilizer consumption does not show any trend
(b) There is a steady increase of the fertilizer consumption
(c) Fertilizer consumption is steady
(d) There is a steady decrease in the fertilizer consumption.

How many triangles are there in the given figure?
(a) 18
(b) 20 or more
(c) 12
(d) 16

40. Among the four answer figures, which figure can be formed the cut-pieces given below in the question figure?
Question Figure
Answer Figures

41. Choose the cube which will be formed on folding the given question figure.

42. In the given figure, which letter represents those Actors who are also Dancers, Singers as well as Violinists?
(a) S
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) U

Directions (Q. Nos. 43 and 44) In the following questions, identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the classes given below.

43. Factory, Machinery, Product

44. Travellers, Train, Bus

Directions (Q. Nos. 45 and 46) In these questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

45. Question Figure:
Answer figure:

46. Question Figure:
Answer figure:

47. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
Question figure:
Answer figure:

48. From the given answer figures, select the one is which the question figure is hidden/ embedded.
Question figure:
Answer Figure:

49. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column. e. g., ‘E’ can be represented by 02, 43, 68 etc., and ‘N’ can be represented by 21, 65, 95 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the number set for the word given below.
(a) 04, 30, 31, 41
(b) 88, 57, 69, 32
(c) 04, 11, 41, 76
(d) 88, 78, 99, 89

50. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the image of the question figure?
Question figure:
Answer figure:


51. The famous economist Thomas Robert Malthus, in his views regarding population, is
(a) optimistic
(b) partly optimistic and partly pessimistic
(c) pessimistic
(d) None of the above

52. Non-insurable or uncertainty risk is
(a) change in fashion
(b) fire
(c) flood
(d) change in the price of that commodity

53. ‘ Gold Bullion Standard’ refers to
(a) gold coin as an unlimited legal tender
(b) gold as the measure of value
(c) free coinage of gold
(d) no restriction on import and export of gold

54. Laws made by the executive are called
(a) Delegated Legislation
(b) Preferred Legislation
(c) Rule of Law
(d) Administrative Law

55. The word ‘Oikonomia’ means
(a) Household Management
(b) Individual Management
(c) Political Management
(d) Fiscal Management

56. The word ‘Economics’ is taken from which language?
(a) French
(b) Greek
(c) German
(d) English

57. Which of the following is a merit of the presidential form of government?
(a) The fixed tenure of the executive gives it a great sense of stability
(b) It ensures speedy execution of policies
(c) It safeguards the liberty of the people
(d) All of the above

58. The two chambers of the Swiss Federal Assembly are called
(a) National Council and Council of States
(b) House of Lords and House of Commons
(c) Senate and House of Representatives
(d) None of the above

59. Name the Italian traveller who visited the Vijayanagar empire in 1420 AD
(a) Domingos Paes
(b) Edoardo Barbosa
(c) Nicolo de Conti
(d) Abdur Razzag

60. Which one of the following dynasties established an independent rule in Bijapur?
(a) Imad Shahi
(b) Nizam Shahi
(c) Qutb Shahi
(d) Adil Shahi

61. Who regarded the second chamber as needless, useless and worse?
(a) Laski
(b) Maclver
(c) Bentham
(d) Seeley

62. The tenure of the Swiss President is
(a) 3 yr
(b) 2 yr
(c) 4 yr
(d) 1 yr

63. Haemolymph is observed in
(a) Arthropods
(b) Echinoderms
(c) Ascaris
(d) Annelids

64. The virus without capsid but only with nucleic acids is called
(a) Capsomere
(b) Nucleoid
(c) Prion
(d) Virion

65. The immunity caused by the B- lymphocytes is called
(a) Sterile immunity
(b) Acquired Immunity
(c) Cellular Immunity
(d) Humoral Immunity

66. Who among the following enjoyed the patronage of Sultans from Balban to Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq?
(a) Ibn Batutah
(b) Badauni
(c) Zia-ud-din Barani
(d) Amir Khusrow

67. The Sufi movement originally started from
(a) Persia
(b) Delhi
(c) Lahore
(d) Kabul

68. Humayun was driven out of Hindustan in 1540 AD after the battle of
(a) Chausa
(b) Dourah
(c) Surajgarh
(d) Kannauj

69. Poly metallic nodules (also called manganese nodules) are found in concentrations
(a) on continental shelves
(b) in deep ocean beds
(c) on lake beds
(d) in beach sands

70. Spot the odd item in the following
(a) Meander
(b) Delta
(c) Bolson
(d) Ox-bow lake

71. Kandla port is located at
(a) Gulf of Khambat
(b) Kori Creek
(c) Gulf of Kutch
(d) None of these

72. Which of the following forests grows in waterlogged areas?
(a) Mangrove
(b) Evergreen
(c) Deciduous
(d) Coniferous

73. Nag Tiba and Mahabharat ranges are included in
(a) Sub-Himalayas
(b) Trans-Himalayas
(c) Greater Himalayas
(d) Lesser Himalayas

74. Pink mould is the common name for
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Rhizopus
(c) Neurospora
(d) Mucor

75. The sleeping sickness is caused by
(a) Escherichia
(b) Neisseria
(c) Entamoeba
(d) Trypanosoma

76. Combustion is a
(a) physicai and chemical process
(b) biological process
(c) physical process
(d) chemical process

77. Which of the following is not a form of carbon?
(a) Soot
(b) Hematite
(c) Graphite
(d) Charcoal

78. What is Dry Ice?
(a) Solid carbon dioxide
(b) Liquid nitrogen
(c) ice cubes and saw dust
(d) Ice cubes and salt

79. The gas commonly used in advertisement sign-boards and decorative lights is
(a) nitrogen
(b) chlorine
(c) hydrogen
(d) neon

80. Flow of blood in dorsal blood vessel of earthworm is
(a) sideward
(b) downward
(c) backward
(d) forward

81. Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Leather belts
(b) Silver foil
(c) Iron nails
(d) Plastic mugs

82. Fungi that grow on bark are said to be
(a) Xyiophilous
(b) Saxicolous
(c) Coprophilous
(d) Corticolous

83. To an astronaut in space the sky will appear to be
(a) violet
(b) red
(c) blue
(d) black

84. On a rainy day, small oily films on water show brilliant colours. This is due to
(a) scattering
(b) dispersion
(c) refraction
(d) polarization

85. Natural radioactivity was discovered by
(a) Rutherford
(b) Marie Curie
(c) Henri Becquerel
(d) Enrico Fermi

86. Rainbow formation is due to
(a) absorption of sunlight by water droplets
(b) diffusion of sunlight through water droplets
(c) ionisation of water droplets
(d) refraction and reflection of sunlight by water droplets

87. CAD stands for
(a) Computer Automatic Design
(b) Computer Aided Decode
(c) Computer Automatic Decode
(d) Computer Aided Design

88. Unix operating system is generally known as
(a) Multi User Operating System
(b) General Application
(c) Single User Operating System
(d) Single User Application Program

89. Who holds the world record as the youngest person to climb Mount Everest?
(a) Santosh Yadav
(b) Phu Doijee
(c) Bachendri Pal
(d) Dicky Dolma

90. Hyperplasia means
(a) abnormal increase in number of cells
(b) an increase in size of a cell
(c) excessive motility of muscle
(d) voracious eating

91. The part of root involved in water absorption is
(a) zone of elongation
(b) zone of root cap
(c) zone of cell division
(d) zone of root hairs

92. Who is the Prime Minister of Australia?
(a) Tony Abbott
(b) Kevin Rudd
(c) Julia Gillard
(d) None of these

93. Which of the parent country of mobile giant ‘Nokia’?
(a) Finland
(b) Sweden
(c) Spain
(d) Germany

94. Where was the Joint G-20 Finance and Labour Ministers Meeting held on July 19, 2013?
(a) New York
(b) Paris
(c) Moscow
(d) London

95. Which is the largest man-made lake?
(a) Baikal
(b) Wullar
(c) Govind Sagar
(d) Rana Pratap Sagar

96. Who took oath as the President of Iran on August 4, 2013?
(a) Hassan Rouhani
(b) Mohammad Bashir Ahmad
(c) Mohammad Bagher Ghalibaf
(d) Mahmoud Ahmadinejad

97. Who was sworn-in as the United States Ambassador to the United Nations by Joe Biden on August 1, 2013?
(a) Rosemary DiCarlo
(b) Samantha Power
(c) Zalmay Khalizad
(d) Susan Rice

98. Who won the Rogers Cup women’s singles in lawn tennis in 2013?
(a) Victoria Azarenka
(b) Agnieszka Radwanska
(c) Maria Sharapova
(d) Serena Williams

99. Who was appointed as the Chairperson of the National School of Drama on August 19, 2013?
(a) Adly Mansour
(b) Sasikumar Venkat
(c) Amal Allana
(d) Ratan Thiyam

100. To which channel did the International Olympic Committee sell the broadcasting rights for 2014 and 2016 Olympics?
(a) Set Max
(b) Zee sports
(c) STAR India
(d) Doordarshanz


101. Subhash can copy 50 pages in 10 h; Subhash and Prakash can copy 300 pages in 40 h. In how much time can Prakash copy 30 pages?
(a) 12 h
(b) 9 h
(c) 13 h
(d) 10 h

102. Rajesh is in-charge of buying bread rolls and buns for a party. There are 10 buns in each box of buns and 8 bread rolls in each box of bread rolls. Rajesh wants to buy exactly the same number of buns and bread rolls. What is the smallest number of boxes he should buy for buns alone?
(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 5

103. Simplify Capture

104. If a job is to be completed in 10 days, it requires 270 persons. If 180 persons take up the same job, they will finish it in
(a) 27 days
(b) 12 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 18 days

105. A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 100 days. However, if there were 10 men less, then it would take 10 days more for the work to be finished How many men were there originally?
(a) 110
(b) 75
(c) 50
(d) 100

106. A square lawn has path 4 m wide around it. If the area of the path is 196 m2, then each side of the lawn is
(a) 7.25 m
(b) 9.25 m
(c) 8.25 m
(d) 8 m

107. A cloth merchant has announced 25% rebate on marked price. If one needs to have a rebate of Rs. 40, then how many shirts, each with a marked price of Rs. 32, should he purchase?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 6

108. One dozen pairs of socks quoted at Rs. 160 are available at a discount of 10%. Find how many pairs of socks can be bought for Rs. 60.
(a) 6 pairs
(b) 8 pairs
(c) 5 pairs
(d) 7 pairs

109. A machine is marked at Rs. 7500 for sale. The shopkeeper allows successive discounts of 8%, 5% and 2% on it. The net selling price (in Rs.) is
(a) 6427.50
(b) 6415.40
(c) 6400.30
(d) 6423.90

110. The surface area of two spheres are in the ratio 4 : 9. What is the ratio of their volumes?
(a) 8 : 27
(b) 16 : 81
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 4 : 9

111. On increasing the diameter of a circle by 75%, the percentage increase in the perimeter is
(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 65%
(d) 70%

112. If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 42 cm, its area, (in sq cm) will be
(a) 24√3
(b) 49√3
(c) 7√3
(d) 14√3

113. If X + 1/x = 1, (x ≠ 0), then the value of Capture
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) ½

114. If a + b + c = 0, find the value of Capture
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 3abc
(d) 0

115. If x + y = 4 and 1/x + 1/y = 4, then the value of Capture is
(a) 52
(b) 64
(c) 4
(d) 25

116. (a2 + 2a)2 + 12(a2 + 2a) – 45 can be expressed as
(a) (a – 1) (a -3) (a2 + 2a + 15)
(b) (a – 1) (a + 3) (a2 + 2a + 15)
(c) (a + 1) (a + 3) (a2 + 2a + 15)
(d) (a + 1) (a – 3) (a2 + 2a + 15)

117. The ratio of the first and second class fares between two stations is 4 : 1 and that of the number of passengers travelling by the first and second class is 1 : 40. If Rs. 11000 is collected as total fare, then the amount collected from the first class passengers is
(a) Rs. 1375
(b) Rs. 3150
(c) Rs. 800
(d) Rs. 1000

118. The average age of three boys is 15 yr. If their ages are in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7, then the age of the youngest boy (in yr) is
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 9
(d) 15

119. Of three numbers, the first is twice the second and the second is thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 10, then the largest number is
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 30
(d) 15

120. A man purchased a car for Rs. 135000 and spent Rs. 25000 on repairs. At what price was the car sold if he suffered 10% loss on it?
(a) Rs. 176000
(b) Rs. 144000
(c) Rs. 121500
(d) Rs. 150000

121. In the certain examination, 77% candidates passed in English and 34% failed in Mathematics. If 13% failed in both the subjects and 784 candidates passed in both the subjects, then the total number of candidates was
(a) 1600
(b) 1800
(c) 1200
(d) 1400

122. A train 120 m long runs through a station at the speed of 54 km/h. The time taken by the train to pass a man standing on the platform
(a) 7s
(b) 8s
(c) 5s
(d) 6s

123. A, B and C start together from the same point to travel around a circular island 30 km in circumference. A and B are travelling in the same direction and C is in the opposite direction. If A travels 5 km, B travels 7 km and C travels 8 km in an hour, then they all come together again after
(a) 25 h
(b) 30 h
(c) 15 h
(d) 20 h

124. At what rate will a sum of Rs. 1000 amount to Rs. 1102.50 in 2 yr at compound interest?
(a) 6%
(b) 6.5%
(c) 5%
(d) 5.5%

125. Radii of two circles are 6.3 cm and 3.6 cm. If they touch each other internally, then the distance between their centres is
(a) 9.1 cm
(b) 2.7 cm
(c) 3.7 cm
(d) 10.1 cm

126. There is a circle of radius 5 cm and the perpendicular distance from the centre of the circle to the chord of the circle is 3 cm. Then, the length of the chord is
(a) 6 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 4 cm

127. In a ΔABC, /_A – /_20°, /_B -/_C = 32°. Then, the /_A is
(a) 84°
(b) 90°
(c) 75°
(d) 80°

128. The bisector of /_BAC of Δ ABC cuts BC at and D and the circumcircle of the triangle at E. If DE = 3 cm, AC = 4 cm and AD = 5 cm, then the length of AB is
(a) 9 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) 8 cm

129. In two Δ ABC and Δ PQR, (BC) ̅=(QR) ̅,(AB) ̅=(PQ) ̅ and extended m /_ABC = 120° and extended m /_PQS = 120°. Then, by which condition are the two triangles congruent?
(a) Side – Angle – Side
(b) Angle – Side – Side
(c) Angle – Side – Angle
(d) Side – Side – Side

130. If an equilateral triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle with centre at 0, then /_BOC, /_COA and /_AOB are respectively
(a) 50°, 60°, 70°
(b) 120°, 120°, 120°
(c) 60°, 60°, 60°
(d) 80°, 120°, 160°

131. If x = 3 + 2√2 , then the values of Capture are respectively
(a) 140√2, 198
(b) 234, 216
(c) 216, 234
(d) 198,140√2

132. Given that a + b +c = 2 and ab + bc + ca = 1, then the value of (a + b)2 + (b + c)2 + (c + a)2 is
(a) 10
(b) 16
(c) 6
(d) 8

133. If x2 + 4x + 3 = 0, then the value of Capture is
(a) -1
(b) -1/2
(c) 1
(d) ½

134. Find the area of the triangle formed by the graph F = 9C/5 + 32 with the F-axis and C-axis.
(a) 2760/9 sq unit
(b) 2760/9 sq unit
(c) 2860/9 sq unit
(d) 2560/9 sq unit

135. If in a ΔABC, AB is smaller than AC, then AC – AB is
(a) = BC
(b) < ½ AC
(c) BC

136. √((1+sinθ)/(1-sinθ)) is equal to
(a) sec Ѳ + tan Ѳ
(b) sec Ѳ – tan Ѳ
(c) cosec Ѳ + cot Ѳ
(d) cosec Ѳ – cot Ѳ

137. If tan Ѳ = 3/4 and 0 < Ѳ < π/2 and 25x sin2 Ѳ cos Ѳ = tan2 Ѳ, then the value of x is
(a) 7/64
(b) 9/64
(c) 3/64
(d) 5/64

138. A kite flying at a height of 45 m from the level ground is attached to string inclined t 60° to the horizontal. The length of the string is
(a) 30/√2 m
(b) 30√5 m
(c) 30√3 m
(d) 30√2 m

139. If a sec Ѳ = x and b tan Ѳ = y, then how are x and y connected with a and b?
(a) a2x2 -b2y2 = a2b2
(b) b2x2 – a2y2 = a2b2
(c) a2x2 + b2y2 = a2b2
(d) b2x2 + a2y2 = a2b2

140. (tanA+tanB)/(cotA+cotB)is equal to
(a) cot A cot B
(b) sec A cosec B
(c) tan A tan B
(d) None of these

141. The angle subtended at the centre of a circle by an arc length equal in length to the radius of the circle is defined as
(a) one radian
(b) 90 degrees
(c) one grade
(d) one degree

142. If sin x + sin2 x = 1, then the value of cos2 x + cos4 x is
(a) 2
(b) 2.5
(c) 1
(d) 1.5

143. The value of a sector in a pie-chart is equal to
(a) (Angle of the sector)/(360°) X 100
(b) (Angle of the sector)/(360°) X Total value of data
(c) (Angle of the sector)/(180°) X total value of data
(d) (Angle of the sector)/(180°) X 100

144. In the figure, AB || CD and EF intersects them. Then, the value of x is
(a) 18°
(b) 14°
(c) 28°
(d) 24°

Directions (Q. Nos. 145-150) Study the following chart and answer the questions given below the chart.

145. If in the year 1998, the boxes were exported at the same rate per box as that in 1997, what would be the value (in crore of Rs.) of export in 1998?
(a) 330
(b) 400
(c) 352
(d) 375

146. What is the difference between boxes (in lakh) exported in the years 1996 and 1997?
(a) 50
(b) 25
(c) 100
(d) None of these

147. In which year was the value per aluminium box the minimum?
(a) 1996
(b) 1998
(c) 1999
(d) 1995

148. What is the difference (in lakh) between the boxes exported in the years 1997 and 1998?
(a) 100000
(b) 1000000
(c) 10
(d) 1000

149. What was the aproximate percentage increase in export value from the years 1995 to 1999?
(a) 375
(b) 200
(c) 333.3
(d) None of these

150. What was the percentage drop in export quantity from the years 1995 to 1996?
(a) 75
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) None of these


Directions (Q.Nos. 151-155) In the following questions, some parts of the sentence have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, mark (d) as your answer.

151. With our great annoyance (a)/we found the ground (b)/filled with broken glasses. (c)/No error (d)

152. The new device (a)/aims at eliminating (b)/the risk of short- circuiting. (c)/No error (d)

153. I wish to heartily (a)/congratulate you for (b)/your astounding success. (c)/No error (d)

154. The visitor took the vacant seat (a) /next from mine (b)/one of the many huge sofas in the room. (c)/ No error (d)

155. He was (a)/a learnt man among lords, (b)/and a lord among learned men. (c)/No error (d)

Directions (Q.Nos. 156-160) In the following questions sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

156. The book provides an overview of European wines that should prove inviting to both the virtual ……… and the experienced connoisseur.
(a) prodigal
(b) novice
(c) zealot
(d) glutton

157. The Sun is shining brightly, please ………. the light.
(a) put off
(b) put out
(c) take off
(d) put on

158. This practice was brought ……… to prevent certain abuses.
(a) about
(b) in
(c) down
(d) off

159. This package was supposed ………. yesterday.
(a) to have been delivered
(b) to deliver
(c) to be delivering
(d) not to be delivered

160. Her true feelings manifested themselves in her sarcastic remarks, only then was her ……… revealed.
(a) sweetness
(b) bitterness
(c) sarcasm
(d) charm

Directions (Q.Nos. 161-163) In the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

161. Brutalize
(a) Devise
(b) Strike
(c) Stir
(d) III-treat

162. Pinnacle
(a) Summit
(b) Pit
(c) Capusle
(d) Heart

163. Garble
(a) Communicate
(b) Explain
(c) Confuse
(d) Hide

Directions (Q.Nos. 164-166) In the following questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

164. Seamy
(a) Unpleasant
(b) Sincere
(c) Honest
(d) Pure

165. Cease
(a) Confront
(b) Confiscate
(c) Abandon
(d) Initiate

166. Denounce
(a) Grant
(b) Praise
(c) Signify
(d) Confirm

Directions (Q.Nos. 167-171) In the following questions four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

167. Ask Mr. Das. He can give you all the news you need. He is always in the swim.
(a) in search of news
(b) well-informed and upto date
(c) giving news to others
(d) at the swimming pool

168. You have been trying to solve this puzzle for a long time, be careful, so that you avoid barking up the wrong tree.
(a) keep working constantly
(b) climbing the wrong tree
(c) trying to solve problems
(d) trying to find something at a wrong place

169. I’ll be able to do my job very well when I know the ropes.
(a) learn the procedures
(b) gain confidence
(c) become bolder
(d) work in silence

170. The secretary’s thoughtless remark added fuel to the fire.
(a) helped in improving the situation
(b) prevented the situation
(c) added humour to the situation
(d) worsened the difficult situation

171. He could not get money from his master because he rubbed him up the wrong way.
(a) suggested a wrong method
(b) advised him to be strict
(c) Irked or irritated him
(d) asked him to speed up

Directions (Q.Nos. 172-181) In the following questions sentence /a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).

172. The government representative furnished the reporters all details.
(a) provided the reporters all details
(b) furnished reporters all details
(c) furnished the reporters with all the details
(d) No improvement

173. It was raining so heavily yesterday that I could not move out for may usual walk.
(a) I could not go out for my usual walk
(b) I could not move for my usual walk
(c) I could not go to my usual walk
(d) No improvement

174. Ram filled ink into his pen before leaving for school.
(a) filled ink in his pen
(b) filled his pen with ink
(c) filled ink on his pen
(d) No improvement

175. The toys he bought for Suzy are too to be cheap.
(a) are so much good to be cheap
(b) are so good that to be cheap
(c) were so good to be cheap
(d) No improvement

176. I did one mistake in the dictation test today.
(a) I made a mistake in
(b) I did a mistake in
(c) I did a mistake at
(d) No improvement

177. John has been detained at a meeting.
(a) by the meeting
(b) on a meeting
(c) in meeting
(d) No improvement

178. The butler was as devoted as a faithful dog.
(a) a faithful cat
(b) a faithful pet
(c) a faithful friend
(d) No improvement

179. He denied that he had not forged my signature.
(a) would not forge
(b) had forged
(c) did not forge
(d) No improvement

180. There is an error in grammar in the sentence.
(a) a written error
(b) a grammar error
(c) a grammatical error
(d) No improvement

181. To his astonishment and admiratior, he got the information that it was only the picture of a curtain.
(a) found
(b) saw clearly
(c) received the information
(d) No improvement

Directions (Q.Nos. 182-188) In the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.

182. Having a stale small or taste.
(a) Savoury
(b) Tepid
(c) Rancid
(d) Insipid

A wooden object used for connecting animals that are pulling a vehicle.
(a) Whip
(b) Yoke
(c) Rein
(d) Leash

184. A man who knows a lot about things like food, music and art.
(a) Hostage
(b) Connoisseur
(c) Priest
(d) Optimist

185. A doctor who specializes in diseases of the nose.
(a) Pathologist
(b) Podiatrist
(c) Rhinologist
(d) Otologist

186. Study of caves.
(a) Topology
(b) Numismatics
(c) Speleology
(d) Seismology

187. Government be the few.
(a) Monarchy
(b) Anarchy
(c) Oligarchy
(d) Autocracy

188. Materials that change naturally by the action of bacteria.
(a) Biological
(b) Biodegradiable
(c) Inflammable
(d) Perishable

Directions (Q.Nos. 189 and 190) In the following questions four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

(a) Extirpate
(b) Extripaite
(c) Exterpate
(d) Exitrpeit

(a) Intelligibility
(b) Inteligibility
(c) Inteligibelity
(d) Inteligibillity

Directions (Q.Nos. 191-200) You have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Passage I
A crucial element that defines the soap opera is the open-ended nature of the narrative, with stories spanning several episodes. One of the defining features that makes a television program a soap opera, according to Albert Moran, is “that form of television that works with a continuous open narrative. Each episode ends with a promise that the storyline is to be continued in another episode.”
In 2012, Robert. Lloyd of the Los Angeles Times wrote of daily dramas, “Although melodramatically eventful, soap operas such as this also have a luxury of space that makes them seem more naturalistic, indeed, the economics of the form demand long scenes and conversations that a 22-episodes-per- season weekly series might dispense with half a dozen lines of dialogue may be drawn out, as here, for pages. You spend more time even with the minor characters the apparent villains grow less a apparently villainous.
Soap opera storylines run concurrently, intersect and lead into further developments An individual episode of a soap opera will generally switch between several different concurrent “narrative threads that may at times interconnect and affect one another or may run entirely independent of each other. Evening soap operas and serials that run for only a part of the year tend to bring things to a dramatic end-of- season cliffhanger.

191. What does the author mean ‘by the open -ended nature of soap operas?
(a) Every episode ends shruptly
(b) Consecutive episodes nave no connection
(c) Each episode ends with a promise that the storyline is to be continued in another episode
(d) Every episode has a different story

192. A soap opera has the space for it to be more
(a) dramatic
(b) tragic
(c) artistic
(d) naturalistic

193. The economics of a soap opera form demands for it to have
(a) melodramatic events
(b) promising storylines
(c) long scenes
(d) luxurious space

194. An individual episode of a soap opera generally switches between
(a) successive intersections of events
(b) different concurrent narrative threads
(c) more time spent with minor characters
(d) apparent villains that grow less apparent villainous

195. Soap operas that run for a part of the year usually end in
(a) a cliffhanger
(b) a sequence
(c) a cliff
(d) an episode

Passage II
Two or three days and nights went by, 1 reckon I might say they swam by they slid along so quiet and smooth and lovely. Here is the way we put it in the time. It was a monstrous big river down there-sometimes a mile and a half wider we ran rights, and laid up and hid daytimes, soon as night was most gone we stopped navigating and tied up nearly always in the dead water under a towhead and then cut young cotton woods and willows and hid the roft with them-Then, we set out the lines. Next we slid into the river and had a swim, so as to freshen up and cool, off then we set down on the sandy bottom where the water was about knee deep and watched the daylight come. Not a sound anywhere-perfectly shill just like the whole word was asleep, only sometimes, the bullfrogs a cluttering maybe. The first thing to see, looking away over the water, was a kind of dull line- that was the woods on other side, you couldn’t make nothing else out, then a pale place in the sky, then more paleness spreading around, then the river softened up away off and warm black any more, but gray you could see little dark spots drifting along ever so far away-trading scow and such things and long black streaks- rafts sometimes you could hear a sweep creaking, jumbled up voices, it was so still and sounds comes so far and by and by you could see a streak on the water which you know by the look of the streak that there’s snag there in a current which breaks on it and makes that streak look that way.

196. How did the days and nights go by, according to the writer?
(a) They slid along so smooth and soft and quietly
(b) They slid along so quietly and smooth and softly
(c) They slid along so quiet and smooth and lovely
(d) They slid along so smooth and quietly

197. They stopped navigating
(a) at daytime
(b) at dawn
(c) at night
(d) at dusk

198. After a swim in the moor they
(a) set down on the sandy shore and watched the daylight come
(b) set down on the sandy bottom and watched the daylight come
(c) set down on the sandy bottom where the water was about ankle deep and watched the daylight come
(d) set down on the sandy bottom where the water was about knee deep and watched the daylight come

199. In the stillness of the night
(a) the whole world was asleep
(b) a sweep creaking or jumbled up voices could be heard
(c) sound come so far
(d) the bullfrogs also were asleep

200. The streak on the water looks as it does because
(a) of a sang there in the swift current which breaks on it
(b) the streak has been swept by the swift current
(c) the swift current has broken the streak
(d) the streak has been swept by the swift current to the shore

SSC CGL Tier I : 27 Aug to 11 Sept 2016
SSC CGL Tier II : Nov 2016

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