# IBPS PO 2015 QUESTION PAPER

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
Each of the six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U has lived in India for a different number of days. S has stayed for. more number of days than R but less than T. P has stayed for more number of days than only U. T has not stayed for the most number of days. The one stayed for the second least number of days stayed for 14 days in India. The one who stayed for second highest number of days stayed for 47 days, S stayed for 15 days less than T.

1. For how many days did R possibly stay in India?
(A) 56
(B) 41
(C) 33
(D) 25
(E) 11

2. Who amongst the following stayed for the second highest number of days?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) Q
(D) R
(E) P

3. If the number of days for which Q stayed in India is less than 60 and is an even number which is divisible by 3 but not by 4, for how many days did Q stay in India?
(A) 54
(B) 42
(C) 56
(D) 48
(E) 30

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
Q is the sister of tr. T is the mother of D. T has only one son. D is the brother df J. J is married to M. Y is the daughter of M.

4. How is J related to Q?
(A) Son
(B) Cannot be determined
(C) Daughter
(D) Niece
(E) Nephew

5. How is Y related to T ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Daughter-in-law
(C) Cannot be determined
(D) Niece
(E) Granddaughter

In each of the following questions, relationship between the different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statements and mark the appropriate answer:
(A) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true
(B) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true
(C) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true
(D) if only Conclusion I is true
(E) if only Conclusion II is true

6. Statements
C<R<E<A=M;Y>E
Conclusions:
I. M >R
II. Y>A

7. Statements:
C<R<E<A=M Y>E
Conclusions:
I. C =Y
II. C < Y

8. Statements
B < L < A = M > E ≥ S;
L > W > J
Conclusions:
I. L < S II. E>W

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, A, B, C, D and E are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. In row-2, L, M, N, O and P are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. B sits second to the right of D. The person facing B sits to the immediate left of N. L sits second to the right of N. Only two persons sit between L and P. E is not an immediate neighbour of D. O does not face E. C neither faces N nor sits at an extreme end of the line.

11. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding O?
(A) L sits to the immediate left of O.
(B) Only three persons sit between P and O.
(C) O sits exactly in the middle of the row.
(D) O faces one of the immediate neighbours of B.
(E) None of the given statements is true

12. Who amongst the following is facing A?
(A) L
(B) M
(C) O
(D) P
(E) N

13. Who amongst the following is facing M?
(A) E
(B) A
(C) D
(D) B
(E) C

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(A) NO
(B) CE
(C) AB
(D) PO
(E) ML

15. What is the position of C with respect to B?
(A) Second to the left
(B) Third to the left
(C) Immediate left
(D) Immediate right
(E) Second to the right

In each of the following questions, two/ three statements followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(A) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II follow
(B) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows
(C) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows
(D) if only Conclusion I follows
(E) if-only Conclusion II follows

16. Statements:
No ground is a soil.
All soils are basins.
Some basins are deltas.
Conclusions:
I. No delta is a soil.
II. Some grounds being deltas is a possibility.

17. Statements:
No ground is a soil.
All soils are basins.
Some basins are deltas.
Conclusions:
I. At least some soils are deltas.
II. All basins are soils.

18. Statements:
All policies are decisions.
No decision is a verdict.
No verdict is a result.
Conclusions:
I. All results being policies is a possibility.
II. No verdict is a policy.

19. Statements:
Some calculators are machines.
No calculator is a phone.
Conclusions:
I. Some machines are phones.
II. No machine is a phone.

20. Statements:
All seasons are winters.
Some winters are autumns.
All autumns are falls.
Conclusions:
I. At least some falls are winters.
II. At least some autumns are seasons.

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : In a certain code language,
‘great passion for music’ is written as ‘mo bu sc nd’.
‘music always on mind’ is written as ‘fi sc ag lw’.
(All codes are two-letter codes only)

21. What is the code for ‘follow’ in the given code language
(A) ke
(B) jp
(C) Other than those given as options
(D) fi
(E) sc

22. What is the code for ‘mind’ in the given code language?
(A) bu
(B) ag
(C) Iw
(D) ke
(E) ty

23. In the given code language, what does the code ‘nd’ stand for ?
(A) either ‘for’ or ‘great’
(B) music
(C) mind
(D) always
(E) either ‘music’ or ‘on’

24. If ‘music always help’ is coded as ‘ag hr sc’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘help your twitter’?
(A) ke ty bu
(B) hr tw ag
(C) hr ke sc
(D) ty ke hr
(E) bu ty hr

25. What may be the possible code for ‘divine passion’ in the given code language?
(A) mo ag
(B) bu mo
(C) xy ag
(D) xy bu
(E) mo xy

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven persons, namely L, M, N, O, P, Q and R will appear for a different exam but not necessarily in the same order, in seven different months (of the same year) namely January, February, April, May, July, September and December. Each of them also likes a different genre of TV shows namely Family, Action, Comedy, Reality, Animated, History and Thriller but not necessarily in the same order. O will appear for an exam in a month which has only 30 days. Only one person will appear between the one who likes animated shows and O. The one who likes Action will appear for an exam immediately before the one who likes Animated Shows. The one who likes Thriller will appear for an exam neither in the month which has 31 days nor in the month which has 30 days. Only two persons will appear for an exam between the one who likes Thriller and Q. M will appear for an exam immediately after Q. R will appear for an exam immediately before N. P likes History shows. The one who likes Family shows will appear for an exam in a month which has 31 days. O does not like Comedy shows.

26. Which of the following genres of TV shows does 0 like?
(A) History
(B) Thriller
(C) Family
(D) Action
(E) Reality

27. How many persons will appear for an exam between the months on which N and L will appear for an exam?
(A) One
(B) None
(C) Three
(D) Two
(E) More than three

28. As per the given arrangement, January is related to Reality shows and February is related to Action shows following a certain pattern, with which of the following is July related to following the same pattern?
(A) Family shows
(B) Thriller shows
(C) Comedy shows
(D) History shows
(E) Animated shows

29. Which of the following represents the month in which L will appear for an exam?
(A) December
(B) May
(C) July
(D) September
(E) Cannot be determined

30. Which of the following represents the persons who will appear for an exam in January and December respectively?
(A) N,P
(B) N, M
(C) R, P
(D) R, M
(E) M, P

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
Eight persons – A, B, C, D, M, N, O and P – are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distances between each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Each one of them is also related to N in some way or the other.
Only three persons sit between B and N. Only one persons sits between N and P. N’s father sits to the immediate right of P. N’s sister sits third to the right of N’s father. Only one person sits between N’s sister and N’s son. M sits third to the left of N’s son. Only three persons sit between M and N’s husband. A sits second to the right of N’s husband. N’s mother sits to the immediate right of C. C is not the husband of N. N’s daughter sits third to the right of P. D sits to the immediate left of N’s brother.

31. How many persons sit between P and N, when counted from the left of N?
(A) One
(B) Five
(C) Two
(D) None
(E) Three

32. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given information?
(A) A is the son of D.
(B) C is an immediate neighbour of D.
(C) D sits third to the left of B.
(D) All the given options are true.
(E) A sits second to the right of N’s husband.

33. Who sits to the immediate left of P?
(A) B
(B) M
(C) N’s sister
(D) N’s husband
(E) A

34. Who amongst the following is the son of N ?
(A) P
(B) B
(C) D
(D) C
(E) O

35. How is B related to A?
(A) Grandmother
(B) Son-in-law
(C) Grandson
(D) Uncle
(E) wife

Inequality is at the top of the agenda around the world. Hilary Clinton, the leading Democratic candidate to succeed Barack Obama as president of the United. States, made inequality the centrepiece of a major campaign speech. Economists at the IMF too have recently released a study assessing the causes and consequences of rising inequality. Its authors reckon that while inequality could cause all sorts of problems, governments should be especially concerned about its effects on growth. They estimate that a one percentage .point increase in the income share of the top 20% will drag down growth by 0.08% percentage points over five years, while a rise in the income share of the bottom 20% actually boosts growth. But how does inequality affect economic growth rates? Economists say that some inequality is needed to propel growth. Without the carrot of large financial rewards, risky entrepreneurship and innovation would grind to a halt. In 1975, an American economist, argued that societies cannot have both perfect equality and perfect efficiency, but must choose how much of one to sacrifice for the other. While most economists continue to hold that view, the recent rise in inequality has prompted a new look at its economic costs. Inequality could impair growth if those with low incomes suffer poor health and low productivity as a result, or if, as evidence suggests, the poor struggle to finance investments in education, inequality could also threaten public confidence in growth-boosting capitalist strategies like free trade. More recent work suggests that inequality, could lead to economic or financial instability. The governor of the Reserve Bank of India argued that governments often respond to inequality by easing the flow of credit to poorer households, however, American households borrowed heavily prior to the crisis to prop up their consumption. But for this rise in household debt, consumption would have stagnated as a result of poor wage growth. Crafting a response to rising inequality is therefore tricky, he says. Some of the negative impact of inequality on growth can be blamed on poor government policies in highly unequal countries. In Latin America, for instance, populist pressure for excessive state economic control seems to shorten the average duration of growth spells. Yet in moderation, redistribution seems to benign effects-perhaps by reducing dependence on risky borrowing among poorer households. Over the past generation or two inequality has risen most in places where progressive policies, such as high top tax-rates, have been weakened. A little more redistribution now might improve the quality and quantity of economic-growth and reduce the demand for more aggressive state interventions later.

36. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word CARROT given in bold as used in the passage.
(A) nutrient
(B) threat
(C) argument
(D) incentive
(E) satisfaction

37. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word SPELLS given in bold as used in the passage.
(A) curses
(B) predictions
(C) periods
(D) charms
(E) results

38. Which of the following best describes the opinion of experts regarding inequality?
(A) The impact of inequality on growth is exaggerated by governments.
(B) Inequality is a complex phenomenon and requires careful handling.
(C) Governments should aim at achieving perfect equality,
(D) State interventions such as redistribution cannot reduce inequality.
(E) Easing the flow of credit to poor households is the way to reduce inequality.

39. According to the passage, which of the following is/are the possible impact(s) of inequality?
A. It affects economic stability-Of a country.
B. The public may object to policies like free trade.
C. It discourages entrepreneurship and innovation.
(A) Only (A)
(B) Only (B)
(C) All (A), (B) and (C)
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) Only (B) and (C)

40. What do the examples of Hilary Clinton and IMF economists cited in the passage convey?
(A) Politicians misrepresent research depending on the message they want to de-. liver.
(B) Americans are not concerned with the impact of growing inequality.
(C) Social issues arc focused on prior to elections but not implemented thereafter,
(D) The issue of inequality is getting a lot of attention at present.
(E) America and the IMF diagree on the measures “to be adopted to handle inequality

41. What is the author’s view regarding policies such as high top tax-rates?
(A) These are pointless as they drag down growth.
(B) He is in favour of these as research shows they have a positive impact.
(C) He believes they promote risky lending practice among the poor.
(D) These are unfair as they impact less than 20 percent of the population.
(E) Other than those given as options.

42. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(A) Governments and central bankers are in agreement on the measures needed to reduce inequality.
(B) India and Latin America have the highest rates of inequality.
(C) Government policies of redistribution of wealth serve no purpose whatsoever.
(D) Inequality is on the rise on / account of the partial policies of the IMF.
(E) None of the given options is true in the context of the passage.

43. Choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word BENIGN given in bold as used in the passage.
(A) mild
(B) gentle
(C) selfish
(D) friendly
(E) nasty

44. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?
(A) Inequality impacts growth and cannot be eliminated.
(B) Inequality is growing in developed countries not just developing ones.
(C) Those in positions of power are unconcerned about the effects of inequality.
(D) Economists in developed and developing countries disagree about managing inequality.
(E) The IMF should take the lead and define acceptable norms of inequality.

45. Choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word FREE given in bold as used in the passage,
(A) restricted.
(B) expensive
(C) independent
(D) confidential
(E) boundless

Rearrange the given six sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.
(A) These nuggets contain words of caution because many young middle-class Chinese who gear up during the nation’s glittering boom years, are suddenly confronting the shadow of an economic slowdown and even hints of austerity.
(B) Titled “Guide on Safe Passage Through the Economic Crisis”, it is aimed at young Chinese urban professionals.
(C) Recently, an advice column has been circulating widely on China’s most popular social media phone app.
(D) Its nuggets of wisdom include “Work hard at your job so you are the last to be laid off and “In an economic crisis, liquidity is the number one priority”.
(E) By austerity they mean cancelling vacations and delaying weddings and even selling recently purchased apartments to have cash on hand.
(F) These frantic measures are prompting the leaders to take appropriate actions to bring the situation under control.

46. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) F
(E) D

47. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) E

48. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(A) E
(B) D
(C) A
(D) B
(E) F

49. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) E
(D) F
(E) C

50. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(A) A
(B) F
(C) B
(D) C
(E) E

Each sentence below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

51. The actress is…………that she will be spending her birthday with her husband and other…………of the family.
(A) ecstatic, elements
(B) abject, sources
(C) confused, people
(D) mundane, partners
(E) thrilled, members

52. Steep hills and low rise traditional buildings that once………..the mosque have in recent years………given to shopping malls and luxury hotels.
(A) befell, up
(B) encased, space
(C) beautified, forward
(D) hid, liberty
(E) surrounded, way

53. Scientific research has now……….that a fish-rich diet can help………depression.
(A) established, react
(B) confirmed, curb
(C) released, combat
(D) revealed, accustom
(E) deepened, limit

54. The actress who put on a lot of weight to effectively………..the character she played in her film, looks like a………..heroine now.
(A) depict, conventional
(B) pass, regular
(C) portray, more
(D) revolve, usual’
(E) represent, absolute

55. Even as he……….. himself for his film debut, the comedian is………… getting a taste of how some friendships in showbiz come with a price tag.
(A) prepares, favourably
(C) locates, reportedly
(D) shows, apparently
(E) apportions, supposedly

In the following questions, read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Select the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, select No error’ as your answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.

56. The pledges that countries (a)/ are making to battle climate change (b)/ will still result in the world (c)/ heating up by more than 6 degree Celsius, (d)/ No error (e).
(A) The pledges that countries
(B) are making to battle climate change
(C) will still result in the world
(D) heating up by more than 6 degree Celsius
(E) No error

57. When it come to helping (a)/ one another, it turns out (b)/ that some fish are better (c)/ at it than previously thought, (d)/ No error (e)
(A) When it come to helping
(B) one another, it turns out
(C) that some fish are better
(D) at it than previously thought.
(E) No error

58. Every child in our (a)/ country has the right (b)/ to acquire quality (c)/ primary and secondary education, (d) / No error (e).
(A) Every child in our
(B) country has the right
(C) to acquire quality
(D) primary and secondary education
(E) No error

59. The club members are (a)/ socially responsible and (b)/ take part in (c)/ variety volunteering activities, (d)/ No error (e)
(A) The club members are
(B) socially responsible and
(C) take part in
(D) variety volunteering activities
(E) No error

60. On Sunday night, (a)/ a rare astronomical phenomenon will have produce (b)/ a moon that will appear slightly bigger (c)7 than usual and have a reddish hue. (d)/ No error (e)
(A) On Sunday night,
(B) a rare astronomical phenomenon will have produce
(C) a moon that will appear slightly bigger
(D) 7 than usual and have a reddish hue
(E) No error

In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A (26) affecting the quality of primary education appears to be (27) levels of teacher motivation. In 2002- 2003,25% of primary-school teachers’, in rural India were absent on any given day. The impact of absenteeism is (28) by the fact that the average primary school in India has a workforce of no more than three teachers. The obvious reason, remuneration, does not appear to be a (29). In fact, both education experts and ordinary citizens (30) that government-employed school teachers are paid relatively well. UNESCO surveys from as early as 2004 indicated that the annual statutory salary of primary school teachers in India with 15 years’ experience was more than \$14,000.

61.
(A) important
(B) tip
(C) pointless
(D) key
(E) seriously

62.
(A) high
(B) pointed
(C) acute
(D) low
(E) beneath

63.
(A) exacerbated
(B) married
(C) stated
(D) witnessed
(E) portrayed

64.
(A) presence
(B) forcing
(C) driver
(D) reckon
(E) case

65.
(A) together
(B) says
(C) argue
(D) couple
(E) impart

66. The time taken by a boat to travel a distance downstream is half the time taken by it to travel the same distance upstream. What is the speed of the boat downstream if it travels 7.5 km upstream in 1 hour 30 minutes? (in km/h)
(A) 7.5
(B) 5
(C) 9
(D) 10
(E) None of these

In these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and select the appropriate option.

67. I. x2 = 144
II. y2 – 24y + 144 = 0
(A) x ≤ y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) relationship between x and y cannot be determined
(D) x< y (E) x> y

68. I. 2×2 — 9x + 10 = 0
II. 2y2 – 13y + 20 = 0
(A) x ≤ y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) relationship between x and y cannot be determined
(D) x< y (E) x> y

69. I. 2×2 + 15x + 27 = 0
II. 2y2 + 7y + 6 = 0
(A) x ≤ y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) relationship between x and y cannot be determined
(D) x < y (E) x> y

70. I. 3×2 — 13x + 12 = 0
II. 3y2 – 13y + 14 = 0
(A) X ≤ y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) relationship between x and y cannot be determined
(D) x < y (E) x > y

71. I. 5×2 + 8x + 3 = 0
II. 3y2 + 7y + 4 = 0
(A) x ≤ y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) relationship between x and y cannot be determined
(D) x < y (E) x > y

What approximate value will come in place of, the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

72. 159 ÷ 39.99 + 4/5 x 180 – 120.05
(A) 28
(B) 24
(C) 32
(D) 18
(E) 8

73. 1599 ÷ 39.99 + 4/5 x 2449 – 120.05 =?
(A) 1680
(B) 1940
(C) 1640
(D) 1880
(E) 1780

74. 1576 ÷ 45.02 + 23.99 x √255 =?
(A) 340
(B) 420.
(C) 380
(D) 460
(E) 360

75. ?+ 30.01% of 651 ÷ 25.05% of 59.98 = 135
(A) 68
(B) 140
(C) 122
(D) 78
(E) 128.5

76. 3899 * 11.99-2379 * 13.97=?
(A) 125
(B) 250
(C) 155
(D) 135
(E) 225

77. ‘A’ gave 25% of an amount to ‘B’. from the money B got, he spent 30% on a dinner. Out of the .remaining amount, the respective ratio between the amount B kept as savings and the amount he spent on buying a book is 5 : 2. If B bought the book for Rs. 460, how much money did A have in the beginning?
(A) Rs. 12600
(B) Rs. 9200
(C) Rs. 12000
(D) Rs. 9000
(E) Rs. 8000

78. The respective ratio of the sums invested for 2 years each, in scheme A offering 20% per annum compound interest (compounded annually) and in Scheme B offering 9% p.a. simple interest is 1 :3. Difference between the interests earned from both the schemes is Rs.12000. How much was invested in scheme A?
(A) Rs. 10500
(B) Rs. 15000
(C) Rs. 12000
(D) Rs. 12500
(E) Rs. 10000

79. A bag contains 4 red, 5 yellow and 6 pink balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn are yellow in colour?
(A) 1/7
(B) 3/7
(C) 2/7
(D) 5/14
(E) 9/14

80. 18 men can complete a project in 30 days and 16 women can complete the same project in 36 days. 15 men start working and after 9 days they are replaced by 18 women. In how many days will 18 women complete the remaining work?
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 26
(D) 28
(E) 24

What will come in place of the question mark ?) in the following number series ?

81. 155,151,144,132,113,?
(A) 89
(B) 71
(C) 85
(D) 92
(E) 60

82. 18,18, 24, 48,108,?
(A) 254
(B) 228
(C) 212
(D) 176
(E) 194

83. 9,10.8,14.4,21.6, ?, 64.8
(A) 36
(B) 44
(C) 34
(D) 41.8
(E) 37.6

84. 6, 5, 8,21,80
(A) 268
(B) 192
(C) 255
(D) 364
(E) 395

85. 13, 6, 5, 6,10,?
(A) 19
(B) 25
(C) 17.5
(D) 28
(E) 22.5

86. A trader has 600 kgs of rice, a part of which he sells at 15% profit and the remaining quantity at 20% loss. On the whole, he incurs an overall loss of 6%. What is the quantity of rice he sold at 20% loss?
(A) 250 kgs
(B) 320 kgs
(C) 420 kgs
(D) 360 kgs
(E) 480 kgs

87. A vessel contains a mixture of Grape, Pineapple and Banana juices in the respective ratio of 4 : 6 : 5.15 litres of this mixture is taken out and 8 litres of grape juice and 2 litres of pineapple juice is added to the vessel. If the resultant quantity of grape juice is 10 litres less than the resultant quantity of pineapple juice, what was the initial quantity of mixture in the vessel ? (in litres)
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 105
(D) 135
(E) 90

88. ‘B’ is 3 years older than ‘A’ and ‘B’ is also 3 years younger than ‘C’. 3 years hence, the respective ratio between the ages of A and C will be 4: 5 What is the sum of the present ages of A. B and C ?
(A) 48 years
(B) 56 years
(C) 63 years
(D) 84 years
(E) 72 years

89. If the volume and curved surface area of a cylinder are 616 m3 and 352 m2 respectively what is the total surface area of the cylinder (in m2 )
(A) 429
(B) 419
(C) 435
(D) 421
(E) 417

Study the table and answer the given questions.

90. In 2010, if the number of female qualified candidates was 176, what was the respective ratio of number of male qualified candidates and number of female qualified candidates ?
(A) 25:16
(B) 5:4
(C) 25:11
(D) 21:16
(E) 17:11

91. The number of appeared candidates increased by 40% from 2006 to 2011. If 25% of the appeared candidates qualified in 2011, what was the number of qualified candidates in 2011?
(A) 240
(B) 225
(C) 255
(D) 245
(E) 230

92. In 2007, the respective ratio of number of appeared candidates to the qualified candidates was 5:4. Number of female qualified candidates constitutes what percent of number of appeared candidates in the same year?
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 15
(E) 40

93. In 2009, if the difference between number of male qualified candidates and female qualified candidates was 72, what was the number of appeared candidates in 2009?
(A) 800
(B) 900
(C) 850
(D) 600
(E) 950

94. If the average number of qualified candidates in 2006 and 2008 was 249, what per cent of appeared candidates qualified in the competitive exam in 2006?
(A) 40
(B) 30
(C) 20
(D) 35
(E) 25

95. To reach point B from point A, at 4pm, Sara will have to travel at an average speed of 18 kmph. She will reach point B at 3 pm if she travels at an average speed of 24 kmph. At what average speed should Sara travel to reach point B at 2 pm ?
(A) 36 kmph
(B) 28 kmph
(C) 25 kmph
(D) 30 kmph
(E) 32 kmph

Number of visas issued by Country ICYZ’ for Country A and Country B in 6 different months

96. What is the difference between the total number of visas issued for Country A and Country B together April and the total number of visas issued for both the countries together in June ?
(A) 90
(B) 70
(C) 110
(D) 100
(E) 80

97. What is the average number of visas issued for Country B in March, May. July and August ?
(A) 315
(B) 310
(C) 320
(D) 335
(E) 325

98. The number of visas issued for Country A in March decreased by 20% from the previous month. What is the respective ratio between the number of visas issued for Country A in February and the number of visas issued for the same country in May ?
(A) 25:13
(B) 25:18
(C) 26:13
(D) 24:13
(E) 26:15

99. The number of visas issued for Country A decreased by what per cent from May to July ?
(A) 35 1/3
(B) 33
(C) 30 5/9
(D) 32 2/3
(E) 32 4/9

100. The number of visas issued for Country B in March is what per cent less than the number of visas issued for Country A in June?
(A) 8.5
(B) 7.75
(C) 4.25
(D) 6.25
(E) 5.75